FT 6/29

Question 1

It would be incorrect to state that Hi-Ex foam?
Select one:
a. Produces very large, light foam bubbles
b. Is best suited for use in confined areas
c. Is best suited for use on Class “B” fires
d. Under certain conditions may be effective on LNG fires

Answer 1

C
(TB Foam 13.1, 13.2) (Class “A” fires)
The correct answer is: Is best suited for use on Class “B” fires

Question 2

When operating at a fire where Hi-Ex Foam is being utilized it would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The length of the water supply line should be as short as possible
b. The metering valve can be adjusted from 1% to 6%
c. The correct eductor should have a 2” red band painted around the throat
d. Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex Foam

Answer 2

C
(TB Foam—13.8) (1 inch yellow band)
The correct answer is: The correct eductor should have a 2” red band painted around the throat

Question 3

The amount of water required for Hi-Ex foam operations is \_\_\_\_\_ gpm?
Select one:
a. 75
b. 180 
c. 125
d. 60

Answer 3

D
(TB Foam 13.9)
The correct answer is: 60

Question 4

At a Hi-Ex Foam operation, maintain \_\_\_ psi at the inlet to the eductor?
Select one:
a. 200-220
b. 180-200 
c. 100-150
d. 220-240

Answer 4

A
(TB Foam 13.9)
The correct answer is: 200-220

Question 5

The recommended placement of the eductor at a Hi-Ex Foam operation is?
Select one:
a. One length from the pumper 
b. One length from the generator
c. At the pumper
d. At the generator

Answer 5

A
(TB Foam 13.10)
The correct answer is: One length from the pumper

Question 6

At the completion of a HI-Ex foam operation, place the pick-up tube of the eductor in a pail of fresh, clean water and run the system at the same pressure used during operations for \_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes?
Select one:
a. 10
b. 20
c. 5
d. 15

Answer 6

D
(TB Foam 13.12)
The correct answer is: 15

Question 7

Regarding the use of the Foam Chute Applicator, it would incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. The chute should be secured by a metal band or rope
b. The chute used should be one foot larger in diameter than the mouth of the generator
c. With the chute, foam can be delivered to levels that are either lower or higher than the generator
d. Kinks or bends in the chute should be eliminated as much as possible

Answer 7

C
(TB Foam 13.14) (Not higher)
The correct answer is: With the chute, foam can be delivered to levels that are either lower or higher than the generator

Question 8

When is it always necessary to seal around the area of foam discharge at a Hi-Ex foam operation?
Select one:
a. When filling an area that is below the generator
b. When filling an area that is above the generator
c. It is never necessary to create a seal
d. When filling an area on the same level as the generator

Answer 8

D
(TB Foam 13.15)
The correct answer is: When filling an area on the same level as the generator

Question 9

When operating in a Hi-Ex Foam environment, the use of the HT may be difficult. When transmitting, the HT microphone should be placed?
Select one:
a. Near the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a circular motion
b. Directly on the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a waving motion
c. Directly on the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a circular motion
d. Near the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a waving motion

Answer 9

B
(TB Foam 13.16)
The correct answer is: Directly on the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a waving motion

Question 10

A flammable liquid is a liquid with a flashpoint below?
Select one:
a. 300 degrees
b. 100 degrees 
c. 200 degrees
d. 150 degrees

Answer 10

B
(TB Foam Page 28)
The correct answer is: 100 degrees

Question 11

A liquid with of specific gravity of equal to or greater than 1.0 will ______ on water?
Select one:
a. Float on water
b. Sink in water

Answer 11

B
(TB Foam Pg 30)
The correct answer is: Sink in water

Question 12

Regarding the use of the AFFF Foam extinguisher, it would be inaccurate to state?
Select one:
a. It can be used on Class “B” fires like pit or grease fires
b. It should never be used on a Class “A” fire
c. It should have 100 pounds of pressure
d. Its distance reach is 35 to 40 feet

Answer 12

B
(TB Foam Add 2) (May be used on Special Class A fires like tires or small rubbish)
The correct answer is: It should never be used on a Class “A” fire

Question 13

While using an AFFF Foam extinguisher at an oil burner operation, it would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. It can be gently applied on the surface of the oil by placing a finger over the nozzle
b. It must be applied against a backboard or side of the tank
c. Black smoke coming from a cellar is an indicator of an oil burner fire
d. It should not be driven directly through the surface

Answer 13

B
(TB Foam Add 2) (It is not necessary)
The correct answer is: It must be applied against a backboard or side of the tank

Question 14

An AFFF Foam extinguisher that has not been used within \_\_\_\_\_ after charging must be emptied, refilled and recharged?
Select one:
a. 9 months
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months

Answer 14

D
(TB Foam Add 2)
The correct answer is: 12 months

Question 15

Members are under the “Immediate Supervision” of an Officer in all but which choice?
Select one:
a. The Door FF, who is feeding hose to the members from outside the fire apartment.
b. The Extinguisher FF, who can hear the Officer yelling to them that the fire is in the rear bedroom
c. The OV FF, who has deployed a Search Rope and has entered the rear of the 1st floor in a Taxpayer to search with the 2nd arriving OV FF while their Officer searches the cellar.
d. The Officer can see the Forcible Entry FF searching a living room in a light smoke condition.

Answer 15

C
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.2.1, 9.2.2) (A member would have to be within sight and/or hearing of the Officer OR working with a search line or hoseline which is under the SUPERVISION OF AN OFFICER)
The correct answer is: The OV FF, who has deployed a Search Rope and has entered the rear of the 1st floor in a Taxpayer to search with the 2nd arriving OV FF while their Officer searches the cellar.

Question 16

The OV FF of L-100, who notices a rear window already removed from the fire apartment, attempts to notify her Officer that she is going to perform entry and search with the 1st Roof FF. If she is unable to notify her Officer, who shall she attempt to notify next?
Select one:
a. The LCC of L-100
b. The 2nd Ladder Officer
c. The IC
d. The Irons FF of L-100, operating with the Officer of L-100.

Answer 16

A
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.2.2) (If contact cannot be made with their Company Officer, they shall contact (IN THIS PRIORITY) their Company Chauffeur, the IC or any other HT equipped member)
The correct answer is: The LCC of L-100

Question 17

After activating the Emergency Alert button on their HT, how many times shall a member initially say “Mayday” or “Urgent” followed by the remainder of the emergency message?
Select one:
a. Three times 
b. Five times
c. Once
d. Twice

Answer 17

A
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.4)
The correct answer is: Three times

Question 18

If the IC instructs a member who transmitted an emergency message to switch to Channel 16, the member’s “Beacon will?
Select one:
a. Be deactivated the next time they press the HT “Push to Talk”
b. Continue unless the “Emergency Alert Tone” is deactivated.
c. Be deactivated as soon as they switch to Channel 16.
d. Continue even if they deactivate the “Emergency Alert Tone”

Answer 18

B
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.4.1)
The correct answer is: Continue unless the “Emergency Alert Tone” is deactivated.

Question 19

Which “Mayday” or “Urgent” transmission is incorrect?
Select one:
a. “L-300 to Command – Mayday – Collapse - Member has collapsed on the 3rd floor and is unconscious”.
b. “L-400 Roof to Command, Mayday – Collapse Imminent- the rear wall is pulling away from the building”.
c. “L-444 OV to Command – Mayday – Collapse has occurred on the Exposure 2 side of the building – the parapet collapsed”.
d. “L-600 to Command – Urgent – Collapse Feared – the floor is feeling spongy on the 2nd floor”.

Answer 19

A
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.4, 9.4.1 A, B, 9.4.2 D) (The term “Collapse” is to be used to indicate STRUCTURAL FAILURE ONLY. In this instance, the transmission should be “Mayday – Unconscious Member”)
The correct answer is: “L-300 to Command – Mayday – Collapse - Member has collapsed on the 3rd floor and is unconscious”.

Question 20

When an Officer transmits a “Mayday” for a Missing Member, they shall provide several pieces of information. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Last known location or reference point.
b. Name of the affected member.
c. Assignment (e.g. roof, nozzle)
d. The assigned unit of the member.

Answer 20

D
(Ch. 9 p. 9-6) (The unit the member is working in THAT TOUR.)
The correct answer is: The assigned unit of the member.

Question 21

When a Missing, Lost or Trapped Member is located, the member who locates the missing or trapped member shall take several actions. Which one is wrong?
Select one:
a. They shall provide the IC with any imminent conditions that might affect the missing, lost or trapped member and resources needed to reach safety.
b. They shall provide the Location and ID of the missing, lost or trapped member to the IC.
c. They shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button
d. They shall contact the IC with an “Urgent” message.

Answer 21

D
(Ch. 9 p. 7 & 8) (This is a “MAYDAY” transmission)
The correct answer is: They shall contact the IC with an “Urgent” message.

Question 22

Which choice is correct concerning the transmission of Signal 10-70?
Select one:
a. The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.
b. It requires a “Mayday” message to the Borough Dispatcher.
c. It requires a “Mayday” transmission on the HT.
d. It shall be transmitted when any Engine Company is unable to secure a positive water source.

Answer 22

A
(Ch. 9 p. 9-10) (transmitted when the FIRST arriving Engine Company, requires an “Urgent”, requires an “Urgent”)
The correct answer is: The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.

Question 23

A member would be correct to make an “Urgent” transmission for “Fire Extending” in which choice?
Select one:
a. Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.
b. Heavy fire extending to a small area of brush on the side of the building.
c. Minor fire extension to the curtains around the window in the rear bedroom of the fire apartment.
d. Fire extending from a Private Dwelling attic to a 5’ by 5’ shed in the rear yard

Answer 23

A
(Ch. 9 p. 9-11) (Member discovering fire extending INTO AN EXPOSURE and any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem)
The correct answer is: Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

Question 24

A correct HT transmission can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. “URGENT-WATER LOSS” for a burst length on the 1st handline with Ladder Company members operating on the floor above.
b. “URGENT-WATER LOSS” when the 1st Engine loses water while extinguishing an ADV fire from a safe distance.
c. “MAYDAY-WATER LOSS” for a burst length on the 1st handline with Ladder members operating on the floor above.
d. “MAYDAY-WATER LOSS” when the 3rd Engine loses water in their handline while standing fast at a detached garage fire.

Answer 24

A
(Ch. 9 . 9-12) (Water loss due to a confirmed burst length, WHICH WOULD ENDANGER MEMBERS, shall immediately press their EAB and transmit an “URGENT” message to the IC)
The correct answer is: “URGENT-WATER LOSS” for a burst length on the 1st handline with Ladder Company members operating on the floor above.

Question 25

A member of Ladder 100 would be correct to make which HT transmission?
Select one:
a. “URGENT— a strong wind is blowing back into the fire apartment”.
b. “MAYDAY – there is a propane cylinder that is about to BLEVE”.
c. “MAYDAY – the Tower Ladder bucket is stuck on the parapet”.
d. “MAYDAY— a strong wind is blowing back into the fire apartment”.

Answer 25

A
(Ch.9 p. 9-12) (A member aware of a change in conditions that will severely impact an operation or the safety of members shall immediately press their EAB and transmit an “URGENT” message.)
The correct answer is: “URGENT— a strong wind is blowing back into the fire apartment”.

Question 26

All of the following may acknowledge a “Mayday” or “Urgent” message with the exception of which one?
Select one:
a. Any Officer if it is not being acknowledged by the IC
b. The IC
c. Any Safety Team member if it is not being acknowledged by the IC
d. Any member on scene

Answer 26

D
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.4.4)
The correct answer is: Any member on scene

Question 27

An incorrect point concerning an “Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue” can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. The member designated to perform the operation should be located remote from search activity.
b. The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.
c. The Emergency Alert Button is pressed every few seconds.
d. It requires only one HT.

Answer 27

B
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.5.1, 9.5.3, 9.5.5, 9.5.6) (HT is placed on the channel which the missing, lost or trapped member was operating)
The correct answer is: The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.

Question 28

A method that may be used to locate missing, lost or trapped members utilizes HT feedback noise. Which choice is incorrect concerning this technique?
Select one:
a. HT’s are placed on the channel which the missing member was operating.
b. The HT speakers are held 6” to 8” apart.
c. Transmitting button of one HT is pressed.
d. The member designated to create feedback is assigned 2 HT’s.

Answer 28

B
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.5.10) (1 - 2 inches apart)
The correct answer is: The HT speakers are held 6” to 8” apart.

Question 29

While drilling on communications at subway operations, Lt. Burrow made several statements. Which one was incorrect?
Select one:
a. HT communications are poor from level to level.
b. A HT relay is not required when the station is equipped with a repeater.
c. Post radios may prove unreliable when communicating to below grade locations.
d. HT communications in a straight line are from fair to poor.

Answer 29

B
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.7) (An effective HT relay must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not.)
The correct answer is: A HT relay is not required when the station is equipped with a repeater.

Question 30

Which type of construction is most common in a Queen Anne private dwelling?
Select one:
a. Braced Frame
b. Platform
c. Lightweight
d. Balloon Frame

Answer 30

D
(PD Ch1 3.3)
The correct answer is: Balloon Frame

Question 31

Some possible indicators of a cellar fire at a private dwelling are listed below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. High heat and heavy smoke with no visible fire on the first floor.
b. Smoke pushing from the chimney, especially during warmer weather
c. Smoke showing from an attic window or louvered vents, especially in older homes with braced frame construction
d. Very hot floorboards on the 1st floor or smoke showing from baseboard areas on the first floor.

Answer 31

C
(PD Ch 3 2.2) (Balloon construction)
The correct answer is: Smoke showing from an attic window or louvered vents, especially in older homes with braced frame construction

Question 32

At a private dwelling fire, the IC (chief or company officer) should consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior or whenever fire conditions dictate. Some examples are outlined below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Unable to quickly access or locate a secondary cellar entrance and unable to advance down the interior cellar stair.
b. At a cellar fire involving lightweight construction.
c. At a medium or advanced cellar fire.
d. Unable to locate any cellar entrance.

Answer 32

C
(PD CH 3 2.6) (Serious or advanced cellar fire)
The correct answer is: At a medium or advanced cellar fire.

Question 33

When an exterior hoseline is operated through the cellar window for a cellar fire in a private dwelling, what is the primary consideration for the members operating on the first floor?
Select one:
a. Close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.
b. Operate under the protection of a charged hoseline.
c. Exit the building.
d. Secure an area of refuge.

Answer 33

A
(PD CH 3 2.6)
The correct answer is: Close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.

Question 34

When the first hoseline is stretched through the front door at a cellar fire in a private dwelling, which consideration mentioned below would be incorrect?
Select one:
a. High heat conditions at the bottom of the stairs would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.
b. Initial size-up indicating a serious fire condition would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.
c. The safety of members is the paramount concern in making a decision to advance down the interior cellar stairs.
d. Questionable stability of the stairway would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.

Answer 34

A
(PD Ch 3 2.7.2) (Top of the stairs)
The correct answer is: High heat conditions at the bottom of the stairs would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.

Question 35

At a cellar fire in a private dwelling where the first hoseline was advanced through the main entrance, who can make the decision to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance?
Select one:
a. The IC or an Engine Officer supervising the first line.
b. Only a Chief Officer; not an Acting Chief Officer
c. A Chief Officer or an Acting Chief Officer
d. The IC only

Answer 35

C
(PD Ch 3 2.7.4)
The correct answer is: A Chief Officer or an Acting Chief Officer

Question 36

The repositioning of the first hoseline from inside a house to a secondary entrance at a cellar fire in private dwelling must be coordinated and communicated to all units operating inside the building? When this is done, which tactic below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The IC must ensure that his/her urgent transmission is acknowledged by all units/members operating in the interior.
b. Ladder company members operating on the floors above must be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned.
c. The IC shall transmit an urgent message utilizing the emergency alert button to broadcast the tactic to all members.
d. The forcible entry team of the first ladder company will operate with the engine company and facilitate the advance of the hoseline via a secondary entrance.

Answer 36

B
(PD Ch 3 2.7.4) (First floor)
The correct answer is: Ladder company members operating on the floors above must be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned.

Question 37

Engines shall consider stretching a 2 ½” hoseline for a fire in a private dwelling in all of the following situations except which one?
Select one:
a. Wind impacted fire.
b. Fully involved building.
c. A heavily involved cellar fire in a larger style private dwelling (Queen Anne).
d. Exposure protection.

Answer 37

C
(PD Ch 3 5.3, 6.4) (First floor)
The correct answer is: A heavily involved cellar fire in a larger style private dwelling (Queen Anne).

Question 38

At flat roof private dwellings the \_\_\_ ladder is responsible for roof ventilation. At peaked roof private dwellings the \_\_\_ ladder company is responsible for roof ventilation (if needed).
Select one:
a. 2nd, 2nd
b. 2nd, 1st
c. 1st, 2nd 
d. 1st, 1st

Answer 38

C
(PD Ch 4 4.1, 4.2)
The correct answer is: 1st, 2nd

Question 39

At a peak roof PD fire, what is the order of preference for roof access?
Select one:
a. Tower Ladder, Portable Ladder, Aerial Ladder
b. Aerial Ladder, Portable Ladder, Tower Ladder
c. Portable Ladder, Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder
d. Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, Portable Ladder

Answer 39

D
(PD Ch 4 6.2)
The correct answer is: Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, Portable Ladder

Question 40

When raising the aerial ladder to the roof a peaked roof private dwelling extend the ladder at least \_\_\_\_\_ feet above and to one side of the peak.
Select one:
a. 5 
b. 2
c. 6
d. 1 - 3

Answer 40

A
(PD Ch 4 6.2 B)
The correct answer is: 5

Question 41

When opening a peaked roof at a private dwelling which tactic is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. A 6’ hook (10’ for Queen Anne) should be brought to the roof to push down the ceiling on the top floor after the roof has been cut.
b. When cutting with the axe the opening is limited by the member’s reach and maneuverability, but will generally be 3’x 6’.
c. The first hole should be cut at the main gable.
d. The power saw may be used from the basket of the tower ladder.

Answer 41

B
(PD Ch 4 6.3) (generally 2’ x 3’)
The correct answer is: When cutting with the axe the opening is limited by the member’s reach and maneuverability, but will generally be 3’x 6’.

Question 42

13. At a flat roof private dwelling fire which one of the following members brings the saw to the roof?
Select one:
a. 2nd Roof
b. 1st Roof 
c. 1st OV
d. 2nd OV

Answer 42

A
(PD Ch 4 7.1 A&B, 7.2 A&B)
The correct answer is: 2nd Roof

Question 43

At a cellar fire in a private dwelling, which ladder company procedure is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When the first ladder inside team proceeds to the cellar via a secondary entrance, the second ladder inside team will then provide VEIS of the floors above the cellar.
b. When the main entrance is used, if the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the first ladder inside team shall be sent to provide assistance.
c. When the first ladder uses the main entrance and advances down the cellar stairs, the second ladder will report to the IC and augment search operations and ventilation efforts on all floors above the cellar.
d. When the first hoseline is advanced through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs, the first ladder company will perform a primary search of only the cellar.

Answer 43

D
(PD Ch 4 10.3, 10.4) (first ladder company will perform a primary search of THE FIRST FLOOR PRIOR TO DESCENDING INTO THE CELLAR)
The correct answer is: When the first hoseline is advanced through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs, the first ladder company will perform a primary search of only the cellar.

Question 44

For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before a collapse occurs is generally estimated to be \_\_\_\_\_. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within \_\_\_\_\_ minutes.
Select one:
a. Two hours; 20
b. One hour; 20
c. One hour; 30 
d. Two hours; 30

Answer 44

B
(PD Ch 6 1.6)
The correct answer is: One hour; 20

Question 45

In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within \_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes.
Select one:
a. 5 to 10
b. 10 to 15 
c. 20 to 25
d. 15 to 20

Answer 45

A
(PD Ch 6 1.7)
The correct answer is: 5 to 10

Question 46

Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than \_\_\_\_\_ feet are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present.
Select one:
a. 15
b. 10
c. 25 
d. 20

Answer 46

C
(PD Ch 6 1.8)
The correct answer is: 25

Question 47

The NYC Building Code requires lightweight constructed spaces between the ceiling and the floor above or the ceiling and roof above to be divided into approximately equal areas of \_\_\_\_\_ square feet.
Select one:
a. 750
b. 1000
c. 400
d. 500

Answer 47

D
(PD Ch 6 2.2.5 A, 2.2.6 A)
The correct answer is: 500

Question 48

In lightweight parallel chord wood truss, the gang nails are the weakest point of the support system since these connections only penetrate \_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. 1/4”-1/2” 
b. 1/2"-1”
c. 1”-2”
d. 1/3”-2/3”

Answer 48

A
(PD Ch 6 3.2)
The correct answer is: 1/4”-1/2”

Question 49

Which general operating procedure outlined below is incorrect for units operating at a private dwelling constructed of lightweight materials?
Select one:
a. Once the fire enters the concealed space containing lightweight trusses or joists, all members shall be directed not to enter the fire area or areas directly above the fire until the IC determines the risk of a planned coordinated interior attack.
b. When lightweight construction is suspected, an immediate examination of the ceiling voids shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit.
c. The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of a building may be an indication of a fire in a trussloft.
d. The primary emphasis for any fire in a lightweight building under construction is always an exterior attack.

Answer 49

D
(PD Ch 6 4.1.2, 4.1.4, 4.1.7, 4.1.12) (NOT ALWAYS - UNLESS THE FIRE IS MINOR, OR CONFINED TO A SMALL AREA, the primary emphasis for a fire in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack.)
The correct answer is: The primary emphasis for any fire in a lightweight building under construction is always an exterior attack.

Question 50

When operating at a fire in a private dwelling constructed of lightweight materials which tactic below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The IC shall special call an additional ladder company for a structural fire in a building constructed of lightweight materials.
b. When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the two hoselines, then an outside operation must be considered.
c. A 2nd hoseline must be positioned to back up the 1st line.
d. When the 2nd line is needed to address a potential life hazard or is directed by the IC to a location remote from the 1st hoseline, a 3rd hoseline must be positioned as a back-up line.

Answer 50

A
(PD Ch 6 4.2) (Special call additional engine)
The correct answer is: The IC shall special call an additional ladder company for a structural fire in a building constructed of lightweight materials.