FT 4/20

Question 1

Regarding Natural Gas properties, it is incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Depending on the mixture, its explosive range is 5% to 15%
b. When unconfined (outdoors), natural gas will burn rapidly with an explosive pressure
c. When natural gas ignites, it undergoes a rapid increase in volume
d. It is significantly lighter than air

Answer 1

B
(Nat Gas–Section 3) (without an explosive pressure)
The correct answer is: When unconfined (outdoors), natural gas will burn rapidly with an explosive pressure

Question 2

A Con Edison gas main valve will have an ID number?
Select one:
a. Stamped on the south side of the collar
b. On a tag, outside of the valve cover
c. Stamped on the north side of the collar
d. On a tag, inside of the valve cover

Answer 2

D
(Nat Gas—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: On a tag, inside of the valve cover

Question 3

An “NC” stamped on a tag near a service meter indicates there is no?
Select one:
a. Interior gas riser valve
b. Curb valve or service valve 
c. Excess flow valve
d. Main valve

Answer 3

B
(Nat Gas–Pg 9)
The correct answer is: Curb valve or service valve

Question 4

Regarding Peck Vents, it is incorrect to state they?
Select one:
a. Normally have an odor of natural gas
b. May have a red cap
c. Vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails
d. Are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure

Answer 4

A
(Nat Gas—Pg 11)
The correct answer is: Normally have an odor of natural gas

Question 5

Which one of the following is indicative of a Major Gas Emergency?
Select one:
a. 10% LEL detected in an unvented sewer
b. 5% LEL detected outside a building
c. Gas leaking and present inside of a wall or void
d. 15% gas found in an unvented manhole

Answer 5

C
(Nat Gas—Pg 15) (10% LEL outside a building, 20% LEL unvented sewer, 20% gas found in an unvented manhole)
The correct answer is: Gas leaking and present inside of a wall or void

Question 6

Regarding the use of gas detectors and meters, it is incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. The Natural Gas Meter is the superior tool for identifying where it is no longer safe to operate
b. Natural gas detectors and meters require warm up times in fresh air
c. The Natural Gas Detector is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances (stoves)
d. Report to the IC readings found at a location high and at the entrance to a room with the suspected leak

Answer 6

D
(Nat Gas 6.4) (and in the middle of the room)
The correct answer is: Report to the IC readings found at a location high and at the entrance to a room with the suspected leak

Question 7

The first priority at a natural gas emergency is to locate and mitigate the leak.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 7

B
(Natural Gas—6.5) (Insure it is not a major gas emergency)
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 8

When investigating a gas emergency, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. All investigations warrant the use of all available gas detectors / meters on scene
b. The Ladder Outside Team should proceed to the natural gas utility meter location
c. Engines arriving prior to Ladder Companies should activate their natural gas meter prior to entering the building
d. The 1st ladder inside team should proceed directly to the basement / cellar any time any levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Detector

Answer 8

D
(Nat Gas—Pg 20) (Displayed on the METER)
The correct answer is: The 1st ladder inside team should proceed directly to the basement / cellar any time any levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Detector

Question 9

A leak or break in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may be stopped or greatly diminished by taping, or stuffing putty, rags into the break?
Select one:
a. Plastic piping
b. Medium or high pressure gas piping
c. Low pressure gas piping
d. Low or medium pressure gas piping

Answer 9

C
(Nat Gas—6.7.3)
The correct answer is: Low pressure gas piping

Question 10

Regarding the closing of gas valves, it is incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. When the key operating nut is parallel to the piping, it indicates it is in the closed position
b. Most natural gas appliance shutoffs are of the ¼ turn variety
c. ¼ turn interior gas riser valves are sometimes found in a cellar / basement near the ceiling area
d. In a basement / cellar, a building service valve may be found just inside of the building where natural gas enters the building and will usually be a ¼ turn valve

Answer 10

A
(Nat Gas Pg 22-23) (OPEN position)
The correct answer is: When the key operating nut is parallel to the piping, it indicates it is in the closed position

Question 11

The last resort for the FDNY is to close the?
Select one:
a. Main Valve
b. Head of Service Valve
c. Curb Valve 
d. Master Meter

Answer 11

C
(Nat Gas Pg 24)
The correct answer is: Curb Valve

Question 12

Plastic valves are color coded?
Select one:
a. Yellow
b. Salmon
c. White 
d. Grey

Answer 12

C
(Nat Gas Pg 24)
The correct answer is: White

Question 13

If an incident is determined to be a major gas emergency, members should transmit a?
Select one:
a. 10-75 and a 10-80 Code 1 
b. 10-60 and a 10-80 Code 1
c. 10-75 and a 10-80
d. 10-60 and a 10-80

Answer 13

A
(Nat Gas Pg 28)
The correct answer is: 10-75 and a 10-80 Code 1

Question 14

For inside gas leaks, if the indoor leak is found, you may continue to operate if levels can be kept at less than \_\_\_\_\_ percent LEL by venting?
Select one:
a. 80 
b. 10
c. 50
d. 20

Answer 14

A
(Nat Gas Pg 32)
The correct answer is: 80

Question 15

For inside gas leaks, if at any time, gas levels reach \_\_\_\_\_\_ of the LEL or higher, treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone”?
Select one:
a. 50
b. 20
c. 80 
d. 10

Answer 15

C
(Nat Gas Pg 32)
The correct answer is: 80

Question 16

Members are operating inside of a Private Dwelling where they have a natural gas leak that has NOT been found. While operating, they determine they cannot locate the leak and there are indications that the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source. In this case, they should treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than \_\_\_\_\_ % LEL by venting?
Select one:
a. 80
b. 20 
c. 50
d. 10

Answer 16

D
(Nat Gas Pg 32)
The correct answer is: 10

Question 17

At a major gas emergency, it would be incorrect to consider which tactic below?
Select one:
a. The potential blast zone shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes
b. Do not enter a potential blast zone to move an apparatus
c. Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone
d. Removing ignition sources and venting are optional tactics in the potential blast zone

Answer 17

D
(Nat Gas Pg 33) (Not options)
The correct answer is: Removing ignition sources and venting are optional tactics in the potential blast zone

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT considered intrinsically safe and cannot be used by FDNY personnel in a potentially explosive atmosphere?
Select one:
a. FDNY - Thermal Imaging Camera 
b. Natural gas meter
c. Handie-talkie
d. Natural gas detector

Answer 18

A
(Nat Gas Pg 34) (FDNY flashlight)
The correct answer is: FDNY - Thermal Imaging Camera

Question 19

When performing rapid evacuation in an explosive environment, members would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Knock on doors to alert occupants to self-evacuate
b. Advise occupants to use elevators instead of stairs
c. If forcing entry - use the hydra ram or the adz end of the halligan to gap and force the door
d. Force entry for only known life hazards

Answer 19

B
(Nat Gas Pg 34-35)
The correct answer is: Advise occupants to use elevators instead of stairs

Question 20

Regarding water supply and line placement at major gas emergencies, fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure. To protect structures, stretch 2 ½” hose or large caliber streams are appropriate for defensive positions?
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 20

A
(Nat Gas Pg 35)
The correct answer is: Agree

Question 21

The opportunity to cut power has expired when any readings display levels of \_\_\_\_\_ per cent LEL or greater?
Select one:
a. 80 
b. 60
c. 10
d. 50

Answer 21

A
(Nat Gas Pg 36)
The correct answer is: 80

Question 22

Sewer manhole covers may be removed by FDNY personnel with the approval of an on-scene FDNY Chief Officer.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 22

A
(Nat Gas Pg 37)
The correct answer is: Agree

Question 23

If requested by an on-scene utility company worker, approved by a Chief Officer, and the cover has been determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene utility company, FDNY personnel may use manhole hooks from battalion vehicles to remove which type of electric manhole covers?
Select one:
a. Round or Square
b. Only square
c. Only round 
d. Only rectangular

Answer 23

C
(Nat Gas Pg 37) (Use stairs instead of elevators)
The correct answer is: Only round

Question 24

Which of the following Engine Companies would be in service as a CFR-D Unit at 0900? (More than one)
Select one or more:
a. Only two firefighters are found CFR-D certified at roll call
b. Only one firefighter and the officer are found CFR-D certified at roll call
c. Only the officer is found CFR-D certified at roll call
d. Only one firefighter is found CFR-D certified at roll call

Answer 24

A, B
(CFR 2—1.7, 1.8) Officer shall notify their respective Batt for needed details prior to the start of the tour. In order to be in service as a CFR-D Unit, there shall be a minimum of two (2) trained members (FF or Officer).
The correct answers are: Only two firefighters are found CFR-D certified at roll call, Only one firefighter and the officer are found CFR-D certified at roll call

Question 25

At 1105 hours, Captain Fauci E99 determines that only the nozzle FF in E99 is CFR-D certified as they have just come back from a job and only they have only the officer (non-certified), the ECC (non-certified) and the Nozzle FF (certified CFR-D)on duty. They are back in service, but awaiting details from other units. In this situation, Captain Fauci should know?
Select one or more:
a. The Engine is shall not respond to any CFR-D calls
b. The Engine may still be dispatched for medical calls received directly from the public to assist civilians

Answer 25

A, B
(CFR 2—1.8.1A) Notify the Dispatcher and Battalion and enter the event in the Company Journal.
The correct answers are: The Engine is shall not respond to any CFR-D calls, The Engine may still be dispatched for medical calls received directly from the public to assist civilians

Question 26

Which CFR-D member in a 4 FF Engine (where all members are certified), operated incorrectly at a Cardiac arrest response?
Select one:
a. “C” FF - took the Trauma Bag, began compressions
b. “D” FF - hooked up and operated the defibrillator
c. “A” FF - took the oxygen bag, began ventilation
d. ECC - remained with the apparatus
e. “B” - Boss—completed the PCR

Answer 26

D
(CFR 2—2.1) (FF does the PCR)
The correct answer is: “B” - Boss—completed the PCR

Question 27

Segment one responses include all of the following call types except?
Select one:
a. Choking
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Respiratory arrest
d. Difficulty breathing

Answer 27

D
(CFR-2 3.1.1)
The correct answer is: Difficulty breathing

Question 28

The Officer in charge of a CFR-D response shall ask the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance, request relay of the seriousness of the patient’s condition to responding EMS units, and begin packaging efforts immediately whenever a patient is?
Select one:
a. Critical, unstable or potentially unstable
b. Critical or unstable
c. In all situations
d. Critical only

Answer 28

B
(CFR 2—3.9.3, 3.12)
The correct answer is: Critical or unstable

Question 29

Every time an Engine is 10-84 at a CFR-D response, a PCR is required to be completed.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 29

B
(CFR 2—3.10) (Only if patient care is provided)
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 30

An Engine company operating at an odor of fumes has one medical patient they discovered. When requesting an ambulance on the Department radio, they must provide the FDNY dispatcher with all of the following information except?
Select one:
a. CPR initiated
b. Pulse and respiratory rate
c. Gender 
d. CUPS status
e. Chief complaint
f. Age

Answer 30

C
(CFR 2—3.11)
The correct answer is: Gender

Question 31

In which situation(s) below should an engine officer place his unit completely out of service after a CFR-D response?
Select one or more:
a. Decontamination of CFR-D equipment is required
b. Decontamination of PPE is required
c. The unit’s only defibrillator was left with a patient and will be replaced later
d. Decontamination of a member is required

Answer 31

B, D
(CFR 2—3.16.1, 3.16.2)
The correct answers are: Decontamination of a member is required, Decontamination of PPE is required, Decontamination of CFR-D equipment is required

Question 32

A 10-99 must be transmitted in which situation(s) below?
Select one or more:
a. The Unit requests an ETA and EMS reports “No unit available”
b. The unit officer determines due to a patient’s condition, the unit will likely be on scene for at least 15 minutes
c. Unit is performing CPR / defibrillation
d. The CFR-D Unit requests an ETA and EMS reports “20 minutes”

Answer 32

A, C
(CFR 2—3.19)
The correct answers are: Unit is performing CPR / defibrillation, The Unit requests an ETA and EMS reports “No unit available”

Question 33

FDNY members should not begin resuscitation efforts when they determine which condition(s) below exist?
Select one or more:
a. Dependent lividity 
b. Decomposition 
c. Valid DNR Order 
d. Valid Health Care Proxy
e. Obvious death 
f. Rigor mortis

Answer 33

A,B,C,E,F

The correct answers are: Obvious death, Dependent lividity, Rigor mortis, Decomposition, Valid DNR Order`

Question 34

Captain Birx is working in Engine 100 on a CFR-D response and finds that the patient’s whereabouts are not known. After a complete search, she checks the response ticket for additional info, and then verifies info with the dispatcher. After finding those two tactics provide no new info, she contacts neighbors and security personnel, but all efforts lead to no patient. In this situation, she would be most correct to enter which signal on the MDT?
Select one:
a. 10-91 
b. 10-92
c. 10-37 Code 4
d. 10-31

Answer 34

B
(CFR 2—4.7.3)
The correct answer is: 10-92

Question 35

Lt Pence arrives at a CFR-D response where forcible entry is the only option to reach a potential patient who has an apparently minor condition because people in the apartment are denying access to the patient. Lt Pence requests NYPD for security purposes and an EMS supervisor. After the EMS supervisor arrives, and the NYPD has arrived, who is now responsible for determining the appropriate action to be taken regarding denial of access to the patient?
Select one:
a. The FDNY Officer
b. The EMS Supervisor
c. The World Health Organization
d. The Police Department

Answer 35

D

The correct answer is: The Police Department

Question 36

A PCR must be completed in all of the following situation(s) except?
Select one:
a. CFR-D unit arrives at scene of medical emergency where NYPD ESU has already initiated patient care and ESU states no assistance is required
b. Patient refuses medical aid on a CFR-D response and leaves the scene
c. Valid DNR Order presented on a CFR-D response
d. EDP declines to accept treatment on a CFR-D response

Answer 36

A
(CFR 2—4.4, 4.9, 4.10)
The correct answer is: CFR-D unit arrives at scene of medical emergency where NYPD ESU has already initiated patient care and ESU states no assistance is required

Question 37

Under no circumstances shall fire apparatus be used to transport patients?
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 37

A
(CFR—2—4.17)
The correct answer is: Agree

Question 38

Which legal guideline is correctly stated regarding treatment to minors?
Select one:
a. If a minor is suffering from a life-threatening illness or injury, immediate medical intervention must be provided, unless a parent or guardian is available and refuses to give consent
b. For non-urgent illness or injury involving minors, if the parent or guardian refuses to allow treatment, carefully explain the treatment needed, call the dispatcher and have them notify EMS and call FDNY / EMS telemetry

Answer 38

B
(CFR—2—6.1.1) (regardless of whether the parent / guardian gives consent)
The correct answer is: For non-urgent illness or injury involving minors, if the parent or guardian refuses to allow treatment, carefully explain the treatment needed, call the dispatcher and have them notify EMS and call FDNY / EMS telemetry

Question 39

If there is reason to suspect on a CFR-D response that a child has suffered or will suffer abuse or maltreatment as a result of the acts or omissions of a child's parent or guardian, who is mandated to file a report?
Select one:
a. An FDNY EMS Supervisor
b. The CFR-D Engine Officer
c. The Police Department
d. The ambulance crew

Answer 39

D

The correct answer is: The ambulance crew

Question 40

Whenever units of the Bureau of Operations and EMS are operating at an incident, the ranking Fire Officer on the scene is the Incident Commander and responsible for all decisions at the scene with the exception of patient care matters.
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 40

B

The correct answer is: Agree

Question 41

Which one of the following checks must be performed at the beginning of each tour?
Select one:
a. Tower Ladder Intercom system check 
b. Wheel checks in sequence on tires
c. Engine Oil Level
d. Battery charge (voltmeter)

Answer 41

A
(App C-2—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: Tower Ladder Intercom system check

Question 42

All one of the following must be performed daily except?
Select one:
a. Purge the air tanks
b. Handholds, hand rails
c. Radiator level 
d. Air loss in brake system

Answer 42

A
(App C-2—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: Purge the air tanks

Question 43

All one of the following must be performed weekly except?
Select one:
a. Tower Ladder Boom Inspection 
b. Electric Fuel Pump Primer
c. Transmission fluid level
d. Power Steering fluid level

Answer 43

A
(App C-2—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: Tower Ladder Boom Inspection

Question 44

The Aerial Ladder and Tower Ladder Emergency System should be maintained with a 30-second emergency test each?
Select one:
a. Day
b. Month
c. Week 
d. Quarter

Answer 44

C
(App C-2—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: Week

Question 45

When snow chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed \_\_\_\_\_\_ mph?
Select one:
a. 20
b. 15
c. 25
d. 30

Answer 45

D
(App C-2—2)
The correct answer is: 30

Question 46

If members see a marked FDNY apparatus without a security decal, they would be most correct to?
Select one:
a. Contact the borough dispatcher with a mixer-off message
b. Immediately notify NYPD
c. Approach the vehicle to gather more information
d. Immediately notify Fleet maintenance

Answer 46

A
(App C-2—add 2—4.2)
The correct answer is: Contact the borough dispatcher with a mixer-off message

Question 47

Units shall ensure that their engine and ladder apparatus have a vehicle security decal affixed where?
Select one:
a. Adjacent to the driver’s side door
b. On the front windshield on the officer’s side
c. On the front windshield on the driver’s side
d. Adjacent to the officer’s side door

Answer 47

A
(App C-2—add 2—4.4)
The correct answer is: Adjacent to the driver’s side door

Question 48

If a security decal becomes damaged on an engine or ladder apparatus, the fire apparatus shall be placed out of service?
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 48

A
(App C-2—add 2—4.6)
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 49

The officer of a fire apparatus that needs a new vehicle security decal should immediately notify who to obtain this decal?
Select one:
a. The Borough Command
b. Fleet Services 
c. Bureau of Fire Investigation
d. Bureau of Operations

Answer 49

B
(App C-2—add 2—4.6)
The correct answer is: Fleet Services

Question 50

The officer of a fire apparatus that needs a new vehicle security decal must forward a letterhead report explaining the circumstances through the chain of command to the?
Select one:
a. Chief of Operations
b. Bureau of Investigations and Trials
c. Chief of Fire Investigation
d. Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services

Answer 50

D
(App C-2—add 2—4.6)
The correct answer is: Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services