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Question Bank > FT 5/4 > Flashcards

FT 5/4 Flashcards

1
Q 
Regarding the FDNY Infection Control Program, it would be correct to state that sharps containers shall be colored red and replaced when they are \_\_\_\_\_ full?
Select one:
a. 90 %
b. 50 %
c. 75% 
d. 100 %
A

C
(CFR 3 — 12.13.2)
The correct answer is: 75%

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2
Q

Regarding infectious waste, CFR-D companies would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. Red Biohazard bags may be placed in an infectious waste container in quarters located in a remote light traffic area on the apparatus floor
b. Infectious waste shall be placed in red Biohazard bags
c. CFR-D companies shall drop off red bag waste at their Battalion
d. Red Biohazard bags may be given to FDNY EMS Command personnel at the scene of Department operations

A

C
(CFR 3 — 12.15, 12.16, 12.17) (The CFRD Engine Depot)
The correct answer is: CFR-D companies shall drop off red bag waste at their Battalion

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3
Q 
In the event of a missed pickup of Red Bags by Solid Waste Technologies, the CFR-D Depot Officer shall contact?
Select one:
a. The Resource Center 
b. FDOC
c. EMS
d. Their Battalion
A

A
(CFR 3 — 12.16.3)
The correct answer is: The Resource Center

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4
Q 
Captain Fauci of Engine 99 is notified by one of his members that he feels he is allergic to the disposable latex gloves. In this case, Captain Fauci should notify who about this matter?
Select one:
a. The White House Covid-19 Task Force
b. BHS 
c. EMS
d. The IMT
A

B
(CFR 3 — 13.5.2)
The correct answer is: BHS

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5
Q

Regarding the use of latex gloves, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. They shall be changed if torn during the course of treating a patient
b. Fire Duty gloves may be worn over latex gloves if the potential exists for compromising the latex glove barrier and integrity.
c. These gloves shall must be washed or decontaminated when treating multiple patients
d. They shall be changed after contact with each patient

A

C
(CFR 3 — 13.5) (Gloves must be changed when treating a new patient)
The correct answer is: These gloves shall must be washed or decontaminated when treating multiple patients

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6
Q 
Infectious waste may not be stored for more than \_\_\_\_\_\_ days?
Select one:
a. 25
b. 20
c. 15
d. 30
A

D
(CFR 3 — 14.1.6)
The correct answer is: 30

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7
Q 
A mixture of one part bleach to ninety-nine parts water shall be prepared for spot cleaning minor contamination. These mixtures shall be disposed of in the slop sink?
Select one:
a. After 15 hours
b. After 24 hours 
c. Every tour
d. After 9 hours
A

B
(CFR 3 — 15.2.2 C)
The correct answer is: After 24 hours

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8
Q 
You are Captain Biden and have determined that minor spot cleaning will not be effective on a member’s PPE. In this case you should have the item bagged in?
Select one:
a. Two clear bags 
b. Two red bags
c. One red bag
d. One clear bag
A

A
(CFR 3 — 15.3.2)
The correct answer is: Two clear bags

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9
Q 
All of the following items can be immersed in fluid when performing minor cleaning (decontamination) except?
Select one:
a. Helmets
b. Boots
c. Non Motorola radios 
d. Motorola Handie-Talkies
A

C
(CFR 3 — 15.3.7, 15.6)
The correct answer is: Non Motorola radios

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10
Q 
A member overexposed to bleach shall be moved to fresh air. In case of contact with bleach, immediately flush the skin or eyes with running water for at least \_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes?
Select one:
a. 20 
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5
A

B
(CFR 3 — 15.14.1)
The correct answer is: 15

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11
Q 
A Department issued respirator should be used when treating a patient with a cough that has lasted more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or who otherwise is believed to have tuberculosis?
Select one:
a. 72 hours
b. 15 hours
c. 48 hours 
d. 24 hours
A

C
(CFR 3 — 16.2.2)
The correct answer is: 48 hours

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12
Q

Regarding Tuberculosis, it would be correct to state it is normally?
Select one:
a. Spread through the air when a person coughs
b. Transmitted if members touch patient’s clothing
c. Transmitted if members handle bed sheets or pillows
d. Spread through casual exposure

A

A
(CFR 3 — Add 1—Sect 3)
The correct answer is: Spread through the air when a person coughs

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13
Q 
High Risk facilities for tuberculosis transmission are defined as wall of the following except?
Select one:
a. Nursing Homes
b. Prisons
c. Shelters
d. Hospitals
e. Subways
A

E
(CFR 3 — Add 1–4.2, 9.1)
The correct answer is: Subways

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14
Q

Proper procedures concerning tuberculosis precautions are indicated in all of the following points except?
Select one:
a. During inspections of prisons and shelters, members should use an N95 respirator
b. The N95 respirator affords the greatest degree of protection for members in emergency situations
c. When responding to alarms at prisons and shelters, members should be prepared to use either their SCBA or an N95 respirator
d. When inspecting hospitals or nursing homes, normally it should not be necessary to enter rooms with patients.

A

B
(CFR 3 — Add 1—Pg 5-6) (SCBA affords greatest protection)
The correct answer is: The N95 respirator affords the greatest degree of protection for members in emergency situations

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15
Q

Regarding the transmission of rabies to members, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Bites from infected mammals are the usual path of rabies transmission to humans
b. All exposures to suspected rabid animals must be reported to the Safety Command within 7 days
c. Casual exposure such as petting a rabid animal does not constitute an exposure
d. Always wear latex gloves when handling equipment to pick up or to physically handle a carcass

A

B
(CFR 3 — Add 2—2.2, 2.3, 3.2, 4.1) (Reported to BHS immediately)
The correct answer is: All exposures to suspected rabid animals must be reported to the Safety Command within 7 days

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16
Q

Regarding the issue of insect infestation, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Adult bed bugs have flat rusty-red-colored oval bodies
b. When bed bugs feed, their bodies swell and become brighter purple
c. Adult bed bugs are about the size of an apple seed
d. Adult bed bugs are big enough to be easily seen

A

B
(CFR 3 — Add 5—1.2) (Brighter red)
The correct answer is: When bed bugs feed, their bodies swell and become brighter purple

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17
Q

When operating at medical emergencies, the primary method for bed bugs to get into an ambulance / apparatus would be via?
Select one:
a. The patient’s luggage, bedding or clothing
b. FDNY tools and equipment

A

A
- (CFR 3 — Add 5 – 1.4)
The correct answer is: The patient’s luggage, bedding or clothing

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18
Q

When operating at medical emergencies where bed bugs may be present, members would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Place tools and equipment on carpet floors
b. Place tools and equipment on hard surfaces
c. Don PPE including gowns, shoe covers and hair covers
d. Wrap the patient with FDNY supplied sheets or blankets

A

A
(CFR 3 — Add 5—1.6) (NON-carpet floors)
The correct answer is: Place tools and equipment on carpet floors

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19
Q

Which point below concerning insect infestation is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Bedding in the firehouse that is infested should be washed in the washing machine using cold water only
b. If found on soft equipment cases, the cases can be packed into double clear bags and sealed for decontamination
c. If bed bugs are found on an apparatus, they can be caught using tape or crushed with paper towels
d. If an apparatus is grossly contaminated with numerous bed bugs, the officer shall place the unit out of service and generate a Work Order for a Department exterminator

A

A
(CFR 3 — Add 5—1.7, 1.10, 2.4) (Hot water)
The correct answer is: Bedding in the firehouse that is infested should be washed in the washing machine using cold water only

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20
Q

Regarding the completion of PCR, it would be incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. A PCR is required whenever a CFRD Engine is 10-84 on a CFRD assignment
b. A separate PCR is to be completed for each patient treated
c. A PCR must be completed whenever patient care is provided
d. Patient contact includes visualizing, approaching, communicating with or initiating patient history with a patient

A

A
(CFR 5 — 1.2) (A PCR is required ONLY when patient care is provided)
The correct answer is: A PCR is required whenever a CFRD Engine is 10-84 on a CFRD assignment

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21
Q

Regarding the completion of PCR, it would be incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. The firefighter assigned to complete the PCR is responsible for the PCR accuracy, completeness and legibility
b. A CFR-D certified member shall be assigned by the Company Officer to complete the PCR
c. When making corrections on a PCR, members shall place a single line through the words to be corrected
d. All times recorded on the PCR are to be written in military time - always using 4 digits

A

A
(CFR 5 — 1.3, 3.2) (Company Officer)
The correct answer is: The firefighter assigned to complete the PCR is responsible for the PCR accuracy, completeness and legibility

22
Q 
On the PCR, a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_\_ set of vital signs is required for all adult patients except for DOAs and cardiac arrests?
Select one:
a. Three
b. Four
c. One 
d. Two
A

C
(CFR 5 — 4.13)
The correct answer is: One

23
Q

Which definition is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Ignition Device - Mechanical, chemical or electrical means used to initiate a fire
b. Plant - Material arranged to start and feed initial fire
c. Trailer - material arranged to spread fire from its point of origin
d. Incendiary fire - a designation given to a fire by the Incident Commander

A

D
(TB Arson—1.2.2—1.2.7) (Fire Marshall makes it incendiary)
The correct answer is: Incendiary fire - a designation given to a fire by the Incident Commander

24
Q

All of the following are possible indicators of accelerants except?
Select one:
a. Charring of the floor
b. Char in broken patterns or puddle like circle burns
c. Low burning with deep charring
d. Heavy body of fire with large amount of contents

A

D
(TB Arson—3.7)
The correct answer is: Heavy body of fire with large amount of contents

25
Q

A civilian walks up to you at a car fire and says they are a witness to how the fire started. In this situation, you would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Listen to what they say about the fire
b. Get the person’s name and address
c. Place the name and witness statement on the front of the fire report
d. Let the person talk freely

A

C
(TB Arson—3.20, 3.21) (DO NOT place the name and witness statement on the front of the fire report)
The correct answer is: Place the name and witness statement on the front of the fire report

26
Q

Where a fire line has been established for an arson or fatal fire investigation that will extend over a period of time, who must authorize whether neighbors, relatives, spectators, the media or members of the Department may cross these fire lines?
Select one:
a. Assigned Fire Marshal and / or Chief of Department
b. Chief Fire Marshal and / or Chief of Operations
c. Assigned Fire Marshal and / or Chief of Operations
d. Chief Fire Marshal and / or Chief of Department

A

C
(TB Arson—4.1)
The correct answer is: Assigned Fire Marshal and / or Chief of Operations

27
Q

Which one of the following is a possible indicator of a victim who was killed before a fire started?
Select one:
a. A pugilistic position
b. Pink or red skin on the lowest horizontal areas of a body
c. Pink to cherry red lips or eyelids
d. Soot in or around the nose and mouth

A

B
(TB Arson—4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
The correct answer is: Pink or red skin on the lowest horizontal areas of a body

28
Q

When packaging evidence in situations of possible arson, it would be correct to think that?
Select one:
a. A glass jar can be used, but it must be brand new and have a tight fitting lid
b. A one gallon metal can, preferably a new can, is best
c. A plastic bag can be used in an emergency if it is new and at least medium gauge
d. Avoid the use of plastic containers

A

D
(TB Arson—5.3) (Must be a NEW can, Can be a CLEAN glass jar, Must be heavy gauge and used in pairs)
The correct answer is: Avoid the use of plastic containers

29
Q 
Which of the following factor(s) can help locate the point of origin? (More than one)
Select one or more:
a. Depth of charring 
b. V-patterns 
c. Glass objects 
d. Ceiling damage
A

A,B,C,D
(TB Arson—6.5.2, 6.5.4, 6.7, 6.8)
The correct answers are: Ceiling damage, V-patterns, Glass objects, Depth of charring

30
Q

Which point concerning locating the point of origin is not accurately stated?
Select one:
a. Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a slow fire build up
b. Perpendicular burns on walls may be caused by an accelerant
c. Light smoke stains usually indicate a rapid build-up of the fire, little fire damage, and are found close to the point of origin
d. V-Pattern usually indicate an accelerant was used

A

D
(TB Arson—6.5, 6.7.2) (Absence of a V-pattern could mean an accelerant)
The correct answer is: V-Pattern usually indicate an accelerant was used

31
Q 
Which one of the following glass indicators likely indicates a relatively slow heat build-up at a fire?
Select one:
a. Small crazing of glass
b. Half-moon effects on glass
c. Checkering of glass
d. Large crazing of glass
A

D
(TB Arson—6.7.3)
The correct answer is: Large crazing of glass

32
Q

At any fire, the deepest char will always be found at the point of origin.
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

A

A
(TB Arson—6.8) (Not always so, since the most intense heat and fire may be above the point of origin)
The correct answer is: Disagree

33
Q

When shutting a hydrant down using the street shut off, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. It takes 17 full turns to shut the hydrant down
b. Around 10 full turns there will be a noticeable decrease in water flow
c. The nut is usually found off-center on the street side of the chamber
d. After removing the street plate place the wrench on the fitting and begin turning it counterclockwise

A

B
(Emer 3—6.2) (Around 12 full turns)
The correct answer is: Around 10 full turns there will be a noticeable decrease in water flow

34
Q

A ladder company arrives on the scene of a car into a utility pole where live wires are on top of the vehicle with injured civilians trapped inside. In this situation, the officer would be correct to think?
Select one:
a. There is no safe way to remove live wires or people from a car with live wires touching the car
b. The live wires may only be moved with a 6’ hook if life is in imminent danger
c. The occupants may only be moved from the vehicle if life is in imminent danger
d. The live wires may only be moved with rope if life is in imminent danger

A

A
(TB Emer 3—8.1)
The correct answer is: There is no safe way to remove live wires or people from a car with live wires touching the car

35
Q

When operating a handline near a downed wire, members should?
Select one:
a. Use a straight stream nozzle and keep away at least 30 feet from any downed wire
b. Use a fog nozzle and keep away at least 30 feet from any downed wire
c. Use a fog nozzle and keep away at least 25 feet from any downed wire
d. Use a straight stream nozzle and keep away at least 25 feet from any downed wire

A

C
(TB Emer 3—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: Use a fog nozzle and keep away at least 25 feet from any downed wire

36
Q

When live wires are down in the street and members are checking structural exposures, they would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Use only thermal imaging cameras to check fuse box / electrical service entrance boxes for heat
b. Be aware of voltage gradient on the ground near fallen wires
c. Place weighted objects on downed wires that are whipping
d. Ensure they do not open any house service

A

C
(TB Emer 3—Pg 8) (DO NOT place weighted objects on downed wires that are whipping)
The correct answer is: Place weighted objects on downed wires that are whipping

37
Q

A ladder company is called to the scene to assist with the removal of a disabled passenger from a wheelchair lift. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The keyed switch at the bus driver’s seat supplies power to the wheelchair lift
b. The officer shall insure the wheelchair lift is secured, chocked and stabilized
c. The key for the keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift must be removed
d. The keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift must be in the on position

A

D
(TB Emer 3—22.2) (OFF position)
The correct answer is: The keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift must be in the on position

38
Q

Units arriving at a suspended scaffold incident would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. In all instances, the area below the scaffold shall be cordoned off from pedestrians and vehicles using tape
b. The anchor points of the scaffolding must be evaluated by first arriving units as soon as possible
c. If possible, FDNY members should enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area
d. If the tiebacks or hooks of the anchoring system are damaged, secure the scaffold with a Life Saving Rope

A

D
(Scaffolds—3.1, 3.2) (Utility Rope)
The correct answer is: If the tiebacks or hooks of the anchoring system are damaged, secure the scaffold with a Life Saving Rop

39
Q 
If the workers on a suspended scaffold have Safety Lines that are suspect or not present, what may be used to secure these workers? 1. Utility Rope, 2. Life Saving Rope, 3. Squad or Rescue High Angle Rope
Select one:
a. #2 only
b. #2 & 3 
c. #3 only
d. #1 & 2
A

B
(Scaffold—3.2)
The correct answer is: #2 & 3

40
Q

When operating at an occupied stalled suspended scaffold that is level, members would be correct to?
Select one:
a. If the wire rope hoist is jammed within the unit, allow workers to operate the hoist only in the downward direction
b. Restore electrical power to the scaffold from the roof level only after receiving permission from the IC
c. If hauling workers through an open window, always secure them with a Life Saving Rope
d. Lower a handie-talkie to stranded workers who are in a windowless area

A

D
(Scaffold—5.1, 5.2, 5.3) (Receive permission from units below, Do not allow hoist operation, Attach LSR or High Angle Rope only if they must disconnect from their safety line)
The correct answer is: Lower a handie-talkie to stranded workers who are in a windowless area

41
Q 
If a hoist motor is over heated, allow it to cool for at least \_\_\_\_\_ minutes, then have a \_\_\_\_\_ press the reset button?
Select one:
a. 10, worker
b. 10, member
c. 15, member
d. 15, worker
A

D
(Scaffold)
The correct answer is: 15, worker

42
Q 
At a suspended scaffold incident, whether the scaffold is level or off-level, unless the workers are in danger of falling, injured, or there is another imminent dangerous condition requiring immediate action, removal should be accomplished via?
Select one:
a. Glass cutting
b. Life Saving Rope
c. High Angle Rope 
d. Utility Rope
A

C
(Scaffold 5.5)
The correct answer is: High Angle Rope

43
Q

At an occupied suspended scaffold incident that is off-level, from an open window, going onto the scaffold only if necessary, attempt to attach a Life Saving Rope snap hook onto the victim’s harness.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

B
(WITHOUT going onto the scaffold)
The correct answer is: Disagree

44
Q

Glass cutting at scaffold incidents may be performed by?
Select one:
a. Any ladder company in an extreme emergency; or a Rescue or Squad Company
b. Only Rescue and Squad Companies
c. Only SOC Support Ladders, Rescue, and Squad companies
d. Any ladder company in an extreme emergency

A

B
(Scaffold—7.1)
The correct answer is: Only Rescue and Squad Companies

45
Q

An Officer and 3 members report for duty at 0830 hours and find that the unit is at a 3rd alarm 3 blocks away. The dispatcher calls the officer and instructs him to leave quarters as soon as possible after 0900 to relieve the unit as per the IC. In this case, the officer would be correct to?
Select one:
a. Call the roll, immediately make an entry of departure, proceed to the scene, then write the particulars of the roll call upon return from operations
b. Call the roll, write the 0900 roll call, and then immediately make an entry of departure and proceed to the scene

A

A
(Journal Guide—2.10)
The correct answer is: Call the roll, immediately make an entry of departure, proceed to the scene, then write the particulars of the roll call upon return from operations

46
Q 
A Fire Department mechanic enters Engine 99’s quarters to perform repairs to the apparatus. A mark in the Company Journal regarding the mechanic’s arrival should be taken by the?
Select one:
a. Mechanic in red ink 
b. Company Officer in red ink
c. ECC in red ink
d. Housewatch FF in blue ink
A

A
(Journal Guide—2.11)
The correct answer is: Mechanic in red ink

47
Q

If a unit is required to respond to an alarm while the officer is in the process of writing roll call, members shall?
Select one:
a. Not make any entries at all until the Roll Call is completed
b. Make necessary entries only after skipping lines
c. Make only emergency entries, if absolutely necessary
d. Make necessary entries as required while the unit is out

A

D
(Journal Guide—2.14)
The correct answer is: Make necessary entries as required while the unit is out

48
Q 
Which one of the following is a legitimate Flagging Column entry?
Select one:
a. PR 
b. HF
c. ACC
d. AFID
A

A
(Journal Guide—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: PR

49
Q 
Which one of the following is a legitimate Flagging Column entry?
Select one:
a. OMT
b. RXD 
c. VS
d. PP
A

B
(Journal Guide—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: RXD

50
Q

When writing a 0900 Roll Call a Company Officer would be incorrect to believe?
Select one:
a. Group numbers shall follow member’s names for both the OD (9 x 6) and IC (6 x 9)
b. The officer shall identify the chauffeur in writing as part of the Roll Call Entry
c. The inspection of SCBA and HT shall be incorporated into the 0900 Roll Call entry
d. Department PAQ and journal entries shall be examined as per the regulations with a flagging column entry of “EE”

A

C

The correct answer is: The inspection of SCBA and HT shall be incorporated into the 0900 Roll Call entry

Question Bank (102 decks)

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