Bx Test 30

Question 1

If you see an “F” in the flagging column of a company journal, you would be correct to know this indicates?
A: Fire

B: Heating Fuel

C: Diesel Fuel

D: Fight in quarters

Answer 1

B
Explanation:
F - Heating Fuel – measured, ordered, delivered
DF - Diesel Fuel - measured, ordered, delivered, dispensed
CJ p8

Question 2

Which situation below does NOT require an immediate notification to BITS
A: Any allegation concerning thefts by employees during fire and emergency operations

B: Physical altercations among members

C: Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles

D: Serious confrontations with civilians

Answer 2

A
Explanation:
A- Immediate notification to the IG
The following are immediate notification to BITS:
* On duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol
* Physical altercations among members, dangerous misuse of Department vehicles, serious confrontations with civilians
* Arrest of Department employees
* On-duty confrontations between Department members and members of the Police Department, or other government agencies which may lead to possible disciplinary action
AUC 268A sec 2 and 3

Question 3

Units operated at a cellar fire in a 4 story row frame. Hoselines were deployed in the following fashion. Which one is incorrect?
A: The first line was stretched to the first floor and remained there to protect the public hall due to the intensity of the fire.

B: The first line was advanced through the front door and, then to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.

C: When needed, the second hoseline was stretched to backup the first line on the first floor.

D: When not needed as a backup line for the first line on the first floor, the second line was stretched to the cellar via the interior stairs.

Answer 3

D
Explanation:
D. When not needed as a backup line for the first line on the first floor, the second line was stretched to the cellar via the OUTSIDE CELLAR ENTRANCE.

Rowframes 6.2

Question 4

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding elevator operations at a High-Rise MD fire on the 8th floor where the elevators are equipped with Firefighter service and Outside operations are indicated?
A: Members of the 1st arriving ladder company recalled the elevators and searched them upon reaching the ground floor.

B: The first available elevator was placed in firefighter service and members of the first due engine and truck took the elevator to the 6th floor.

C: The Engine Officer, Nozzle, and Control firefighters rode along with the inside team of the first arriving ladder company.

D: The IC designated a member from the 2nd arriving ladder company to operate the firefighter service elevators.

Answer 4

A
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A IS INCORRECT – 6.4.2 – The first arriving ladder company recalls the elevators whether or not they will be used. The 2nd arriving ladder ensures all elevators are RECALLED & SEARCHED.
B – Correct – Stairs shall be used when the FIRE is on the SEVENTH FLOOR OR BELOW.
C – Correct – Outside operations were indicated therefore the Engine Officer, Nozzle and Control make up the first elevator team 6.4.6
D – Correct – If the OV is involved in an outside operation and the fire is above the 7th floor, the elevator will be operated by a member from the second ladder and/or other members designated by the IC 6.4.6B

Question 5

The collision report shall be submitted by the Officer/Vehicle Operator within __ hours of the apparatus collision/incident.
A: 96

B: 24

C: 72

D: 48

Answer 5

D
Explanation:
SB 3 11.1 2.2

Question 6

You are responding to the designated mobilization point to possibly deploy as a High Rise Roof Team, because a 3rd alarm doubtful has just been transmitted for a high-rise building fire in the great Borough of the Bronx. In addition to gathering the equipment for the High-Rise Roof Kit, what channel are you and your FFs expected to switch to prior to lift off?
A: Channel 10

B: Channel 13

C: Channel 3

D: Channel 42D

Answer 6

B
Explanation:
AUC 269 add 1 sec 3.1.5
High Rise Roof Kit: 1- 6 SCBAs with 1 hour cylinders
2- 1 Bolt Cutter
3- 2 Halligan Tools
4- 2 Axes
5- 2 Search Ropes
6- 1 Rabbit Tool
7- Bags for Tools (to prevent damage to the aircraft)….sec 3.3.1

Question 7

A simple formula to obtain a ___ degree angle is to place the base of the portable ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to ___ the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base of the ladder to the top of its support.
A: 65; 1/3

B: 65; 1/4

C: 75; 1/3

D: 75; 1/4

Answer 7

D
Explanation:
Portable Ladder 7.3

Question 8

Engine 199 and Ladder 99 arrive on the fire floor in a High Rise MD where the apartment door is closed, window failure has not occurred yet there is a very heavy wind condition outside. Which operations decision was INCORRECT based on the scenario?
A: The Engine officer had the line advanced to the apartment door and charged.

B: Prior to opening the door of the fire apartment, the Ladder Officer shall get a report on exterior conditions from members operating outside the building and the Roof firefighter operating on the floor above.

C: The Ladder officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform search while the other member stays at the apartment door on the hallway side of the door making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position.

D: Once the hose line advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Ladder Officer, the door shall be chocked open.

Answer 8

C
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
C IS INCORRECT – The other member stays inside the apartment door making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position thereby limiting the flow path. 5.3E
A – 5.3A
B – 5.3G
D – 5.3D

Question 9

What code should be transmitted when your Engine Company performs CPR on a patient on a CFRD response?
A: 10-37 Code 1

B: 10-37 Code 2

C: 10-37 Code 3

D: 10-37 Code 4

Answer 9

B
Explanation:
10-37 - Medical Assignment Not Associated with Fire Operations
Code 1: Victim deceased.
Code 2: Victim/Patient is NOT breathing and requires resuscitation or may be suffering from a serious, apparently life threatening injury or illness.
Code 3: Victim/Patient IS breathing and suffering from a non-serious, apparently not life threatening injury or illness.
Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
Comm 8 p11

Question 10

Choose the correct technique when boarding a NYPD helicopter as the High Rise Roof Team.
A: Standing up position, in two rows, from the front of the helicopter

B: Semi-crouched position, in single file, from the side of the helicopter

C: Standing up position, in two rows, from the side of the helicopter

D: Semi-crouched position, in single file, from the front of the helicopter

Answer 10

D
Explanation:
Air rescue teams shall board and depart the Bell 412 air rescue ship from the FRONT within the field vision of the pilot. Approach and leave the aircraft in a semi-crouched position in single file. DO NOT RUN
AUC 269 add 1 sec 5

Question 11

At the scene of a collapse, which unit has the responsibility of performing the preliminary void search?
A: First arriving ladder

B: Second arriving ladder

C: Rescue Company

D: Squad Company

Answer 11

A
Explanation:
NOTE: SECOND ARRIVING LADDER THE MAJOR PRIORITY IS CONTROLLING THE GAS, ELECTRIC AND WATER SERVICES.

Collapse 7.5

Question 12

While relocated, the members of Tower Ladder 99 were discussing Air Train Operations along the Van Wyck Expressway. Which statement made below was INCORRECT?
A: When no guardrail is visible above the parapet wall, it usually indicates that the third rail is on the outside of the tracks and that the walkway is located between the tracks.

B: If there is an imminent life hazard requiring members to access the track area immediately, the IC must ensure that the blue light station power removal box is activated, and power confirmed off before operations commence.

C: Members must not enter the track area until power has been confirmed off and the grounding straps are in place, except when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time doesn’t allow for the grounding straps.

D: The placing of an apparatus alongside the high-speed roadway for access to the guideway will always require the complete closing of the roadway.

Answer 12

B
Explanation:
AUC 207 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM
B IS INCORRECT – For an imminent life hazard, confirmation of power off is not required. – Section 9 - Pg 5 top.
A – PG 4 top.
C – Section 8 and 9 #2 – Pg 5 top.
D – Section 11 – Pg 6 Bottom.

Question 13

The low battery alarm of the CO Meter consists of each of the following alerts except?
A: 1 beep (every 5 seconds)

B: 1 flash (every 5 seconds)

C: 1 quick vibration (every 5 seconds)

D: A low battery icon on the display

Answer 13

C
Explanation:
1 quick vibration (EVERY 1 MINUTE)
HM 4 Add 1 3.5

Question 14

You are 10-84 for an EMS run when the patient your FFs are attending to starts to exhibit bizarre behavior (possibly emotional disturbed person). You immediately pick up the department radio and transmit what signal?
A: 10-27

B: 10-31

C: 10-47

D: 10-48

Answer 14

C
Explanation:
Units encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior at an incident shall immediately notify the dispatcher to request 10-47 for “POSSIBLE EDP.” The dispatcher shall relay all information to the NYPD.
The nearest BC shall be dispatched to all incidents involving a reported EDP
AUC 271 sec 1

Question 15

All members should be familiar with the characteristics of under river tubes infrastructure and equipment. Which feature below is described incorrectly?
A: Section valves for the standpipe system are located approximately 600 feet apart.

B: Crossover associated with emergency exits are usually one or more levels above the tracks, but they may be at track level.

C: Sound powered phone jacks are located at standpipe outlets in most of the tubes.

D: The emergency evacuation devices are located at the base of the emergency exit stairs nearest the under river tubes.

Answer 15

B
Explanation:
B. Crossover associated with emergency exits are usually AT TRACK LEVEL, BUT MAY BE ONE OR MORE LEVELS ABOVE THE TRACK LEVEL.

NOTE “C”: THE EXCEPTION IS THE JORALEMAN STREET TUBE

Under River Rails 2.6.2, 2.7.1, 2.7.2

Question 16

The ladder pipe should be supplied with roughly ___ psi, plus 5 psi for every 10 feet in elevation. When operating at the maximum elevation of ___ feet, the Siamese should be supplied with roughly 150 psi.
A: 80, 80

B: 110, 80

C: 80, 60

D: 110, 60

Answer 16

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 9 sec 6.6.6

Question 17

Two senior members of a busy Queens Ladder Company were discussing appropriate ventilation tactics. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made regarding “ventilation on the floor above?”
A: Upon arrival at the doorway to the apartment on the floor(s) above, the officer shall control, communicate and coordinate any required horizontal ventilation.

B: Evaluate the ventilation profile, paying particular attention to the air being pulled in. Determine if fire has extended to this area and request a hoseline if needed.

C: If the Ladder Company Officer determines the fire has not communicated to the floor above, extensive ventilation is permitted to facilitate search operations.

D: Communicate conditions encountered to the IC (i.e. heat, smoke and fire).

Answer 17

C
Explanation:
If the Ladder Company Officer determines the fire has not communicated to the floor above, LIMITED VENTILATION is justifiable IF it facilitates search operations, with the understanding of potentially pulling fire to that location.
Vent 8.3.1

Question 18

The Purple K dry chemical extinguisher is superior for combating which type of fire?
A: Methanol

B: Gasoline

C: Diesel

D: Compressed gas fires

Answer 18

A
Explanation:
Superior in combating methanol fires
Effective on gasoline, diesel, and compressed gas fires
Training Bulletins Purple K Dry Chemical Extinguisher sec 1

Question 19

The officer on duty shall ensure that equipment and clothing with minor contamination of blood or other bodily fluids are spot cleaned as soon as practical by a member trained to perform proper decontamination procedures. Which method mentioned below is incorrect?
A: Tech services will distribute packets of bleach and one gallon bleach solution spray bottles which will produce a mixture of one part bleach to ninety-nine parts water.

B: Officer shall ensure that the solution is prepared daily and the old solution discarded.

C: Soiled equipment and/or uniforms shall be decontaminated in the slop sink using the cleaner provided.

D: Boots and helmets are not to be immersed in the slop sink.

Answer 19

D
Explanation:
D. Boots and helmets are MAY BE immersed in the slop sink.

CFR CH 3: 15.2.1, 15.2.3, 15.3.4, 15.3.7

Question 20

You are the officer on duty in Engine 199 and following roll call, you recognize that one of your members is exhibiting unusual behavior. It’s not dangerous or urgent in nature, but enough for you to take notice. Which choice is CORRECT as the next action you should take?
A: Immediately telephone the medical office with full particulars requesting an examination.

B: Notify the Battalion on duty.

C: Because it’s after regular business hours, notify the emergency operations center via telephone (FDOC).

D: Place a request for a complete medical examination in a sealed envelope marked confidential and forward directly to the chief medical officer at BHS.

Answer 20

D
Explanation:
PA/ID 1/84 – UNUSUAL BEHAVIOR – LISTED ON NOE D IS CORRECT – 1,2,3 PG 1. A – If in the opinion of the officer, the behavior of any member is such as to present a danger to the member or to anyone else, an immediate phone call shall be made to BHS. 5 B – For dangerous behavior that requires immediate action. 5.1 C – For dangerous behavior that requires immediate action. Section 5
Only included this question because it is on the NOE. Choices A,B,C are for someone exhibiting dangerous behavior. D is for all others

Question 21

In a high rise office building, within the HVAC system, the activation of an approved combustion ionization detection device, or a combination of an approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic device, shall accomplish all of the following with the exception of?
A: Recall the elevators.

B: Sound the fire alarm signal on the fire floor and the floor above. In buildings built under the 2008 Building Code, the alarm will also sound on the floor below.

C: Stop the air supply into and the return air from the floor where activated, and activate the air exhaust fans and dampers in the smoke shaft or the pressurizing fans in the stair enclosure.

D: Unlock the doors on the locked fail safe system.

Answer 21

A
Explanation:
Note: Also, it will cause a fire alarm signal to be transmitted to the Fire Department via a central station and cause a fire alarm signal to be sounded at the fire command station, the mechanical control center and the regularly assigned location of the fire safety director.
HROB 7.2.5 B

Question 22

Although the goal is the same (extinguish the fire), operations for a fire in a compactor chute versus a fire in a compactor unit are different. Choose the incorrect operation at a compactor fire
A: For a fire in the compactor unit (no extension to the chute), the engine company stretched and operated a line in the compactor room

B: For a fire in the compactor unit the officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room

C: For a fire in the compactor chute, the engine will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire

D: For a fire in the compactor chute the officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room

Answer 22

A
Explanation:
First floor, and operates into chute to extinguish the fire
Training Bulletins Fires 7 sec 8

Question 23

An engine company is operating on-scene of a CFR response without an EMS unit when a civilian approaches and identifies herself as a physician and offers her assistance. The engine company takes the following actions. Which one is incorrect?
A: They asked her to produce proper identification.

B: If the units accepts assistance, they must notify the dispatcher that a physician is on the scene and request that EMS be notified.

C: The unit shall ask for the physicians NYS license include this number on the PCR.

D: CFR members must perform any patient care duties as directed by the physician.

Answer 23

D
Explanation:
D. CFR members must CONTINUE TO PERFORM WITHIN THEIR SCOPE OF PRACTICE AND NOT DO ANYTHING THEY ARE NOT TRAINED TO DO.

CFR CH 2: 4.12

Question 24

Single engine companies arrive alone at fire conditions in Brownstone and Row Frame buildings. Special Call guidelines can often fall on the first arriving units at a structural fire. Which Engine was CORRECT according to the guidelines set forth in the bulletin?
A: Engine 1 transmitted a 2nd alarm for fire on the 3rd & 4th floors of a 4-story Brownstone.

B: Engine 2 transmitted a 2nd alarm for heavy fire in the cellar and 1st floor (basement) of a Brownstone.

C: Engine 3 transmitted a 2nd alarm for heavy fire front to rear on the top floor of an OLT type Row Frame.

D: Engine 4 transmitted a 2nd alarm for heavy fire on the 2nd & 3rd floors of a 4-story Brownstone type Row Frame.

Answer 24

B
Explanation:
BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES
B IS CORRECT – Transmit a second alarm for HEAVY fire in the cellar and basement (1st floor) of a brownstone 4.4
A – Special call an additional engine and truck for two floors of fire. 4.4
C - When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder. 7.6A
D - When two or more floors are FULLY INVOLVED, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm MUST BE CONSIDERED. 7.6B

Question 25

Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding Mill Lofts?
A: Also known as Heavy Timber lofts, they range from 4 to 6 stories in height, having all 4 exterior walls load-bearing and constructed of brick, concrete block or stone. Exterior walls and interior columns are typically larger at lower levels.

B: Dimensions are commonly rectangular and range from 100-150 feet frontages to up to 200 feet in depth with an abundance of large operable windows. Interior non load-bearing walls will be of non-combustible materials.

C: Mill construction provides a large space of continuous floor area with minimal concealed spaces. High ceilings with vertical openings (chutes, freight elevators, conveyor belts, etc.) are characteristic of this type construction.

D: Fire tower stairs and elevators are placed in the inner core of the building. Automatic sprinkler and standpipe systems will not be found in these buildings.

Answer 25

D
Explanation:
Fire tower stairs and elevators are placed on the PERIMETER of the building. Automatic sprinkler and standpipe systems, AS REQUIRED BY LAW, are supplied by either a city water main or gravity tank located on the roof.
Loft 4.3

Question 26

Units are operating at a private dwelling fire constructed of lightweight materials. There is an occupant unaccounted for in the fire building. Due to this potential life hazard, the following tactics are implemented. Which one is incorrect?
A: The second hoseline was directed by the IC to a location remote from the first hoseline.

B: The IC special called an additional engine company to this operation.

C: A 2nd hoseline must backup the first hoseline.

D: If the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the first hoseline, then an exterior attack must be considered.

Answer 26

D
Explanation:
D. If the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the THE TWO HOSELINES, then an exterior attack must be considered.

Private Dwellings 4.2.1, 4.2.2

Question 27

Ladder 199 was wrapping up operations at the scene of a water leak and prior to departing the scene, the officer is approached by the resident who claims a large sum of money has gone missing from the dresser in the rear bedroom where the flood occurred. She also claims the members are responsible. Which is the only CORRECT action taken by the officer following this revelation?
A: The officer ordered all members to exit the apartment and return to the apparatus.

B: The officer interviewed the resident attempting to ascertain the last location of the missing money.

C: The officer gathered all of the information necessary to complete the BF-26 form from the resident.

D: The officer notified the chauffeur to have PD respond to the location.

Answer 27

C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 11
C IS CORRECT – 11.3.16
A - When allegations of lost, missing, or possibly stolen private property are received the Incident Commander must immediately direct a thorough search of the premises from which the property is missing. 11.3.16
B - The Incident Commander should not interview witnesses but must immediately make notifications when it is alleged that private property has been stolen or is missing from the scene of a Department operation. 11.3.16
D - If it is alleged that the property was taken by a Fire Department employee, notify the Inspector General’s office. 11.3.16A – PD if members not suspected. In all cases, have the dispatcher notify a Battalion Chief to respond.

Question 28

Proper identification of the material involved is essential in deciding on safe tactics to handle a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials. Of the following choices, which is not in compliance with the Department’s Haz-Mat policy?
A: Identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units.

B: Look for visible placards, labels, chemical names, symbols, etc. on the container, tank, drum, or vehicle. Often, the vehicle driver can supply the name of the material.

C: Manufacturers and transporters tend to play down the hazards, so try to check any information about the hazard obtained from these sources. It is advisable to rely on the more restrictive source as a safety precaution.

D: If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the driver of the vehicle’s name as well as his/her license number and state, which can be checked through the Battalion’s IPad for identification.

Answer 28

D
Explanation:
If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the TRANSPORTER’S NAME on the vehicle and the LICENSE PLATE NUMBER and STATE, which can be checked by POLICE DEPARTMENT computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted for identification of the contents. Note: A similar procedure can be used for railroad cars, using the railroad’s name and the number on the car.
HM 2 4.1-4.3, 4.6

Question 29

A proper bleeding of the hoseline is needed at fire operations. Which statement is incorrect regarding line bleeds?
A: At standpipe operations, a long bleed will be necessary to allow the control firefighter to properly set the operating pressure at the standpipe outlet.

B: Bleeding the line confirms water at the nozzle, allows air to escape the hoseline, and allows for the proper setting of the operating pressure.

C: A long bleed is necessary when a 2 1⁄2” hoseline is stretched from the apparatus.

D: Once the line is charged, the nozzle FF should ensure the line is properly bled before the attack begins

Answer 29

D
Explanation:
D. engine officer should ensure
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 8.2

Question 30

While responding to the scene of a surf rescue, the IC shall consider the following points. Which one is incorrect?
A: Request from the marine unit if the tide is incoming or outgoing.

B: Verify ETA of the marine unit.

C: Use of the 800 MHz radio.

D: Monitoring of the TAC-U Channel.

Answer 30

D
Explanation:
D. Monitoring of the NYPD SOD CHANNEL

CODE: “MUTE”

MONITOR NYPD SOD CHANNEL
USE OF 800 MHZ
TIDE
ETA OF MARINE UNIT

Water Rescue 4: 4.1

Question 31

With biological agents, what should be the last
item removed from a victim or responder during the decontamination process?
A: outer clothing

B: respiratory protective devices

C: footwear

D: undergarments

Answer 31

B
Explanation:
ERP Add 1 ch 1 6.3.9

Question 32

If Engine 200 is special called to a manhole fire as the “FireIce Unit”, you would be correct to expect the company to be displayed on the response ticket as?
A: E200I

B: E200F

C: E200M

D: E200P

Answer 32

A
Explanation:
Comm 2 p37

Question 33

Choose the incorrect procedure when operating at a tenement fire involving a shaft.
A: The engine company, after knocking down fire in a room exposing the shaft, must direct the nozzle stream into the shaft and knock down the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for additional knock down and final extinguishment

B: In most cases the draft created in the shaft will delay lateral extension in the apartments in the exposed building allowing time for occupants to use one of their means of egress or for members to find and remove them

C: While awaiting hoselines, members may, by the proper application of water with pots, pans, etc., either extinguish fire around shaft windows or delay the lateral extension

D: The exposed building must be searched after the fire floor in the fire building has been handled and before the floor above in the fire building has been handled.

Answer 33

D
Explanation:
The exposed building must be handled without detracting from our initial concentration on the two critical floors (fire floor and floor above) in the fire building.
Ladders 3 p- 30-32

Question 34

When using the Tower Ladder as a highpoint anchor which procedure below is incorrect?
A: Remove all members from the apparatus, turn the siren to the “on” position and place the apparatus to the “off” position.

B: The metal stokes basket should be utilized at all high point anchor operations.

C: Under no circumstances should a Tower Ladder be used as a crane to “lift” a patient.

D: The preferred location for the high point anchor is the landing pads of the bucket.

Answer 34

D
Explanation:
D. The preferred location for the high point anchor is UNDER THE BUCKET. UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES SHALL THE LANDING PADS OF THE BUCKET BE USED AS A HIGH POINT ANCHOR.

Tower Ladder Ch 5: 5.4

Question 35

Interoperable communications can be a great asset at Fire Department operations. UTAC channel 42D is the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region and can be found on which zone and channel on the handie talkie?
A: Zone B- CH 5

B: Zone B- CH 9

C: Zone C- CH 10

D: Zone A- CH 5

Answer 35

B
Explanation:
Comm 14 Add 4 1.1, 2

Question 36

When cutting a roof, how many cuts does it take to make a 3’x6’ “coffin cut”?
A: 6

B: 7

C: 8

D: 9

Answer 36

B
Explanation:
Remember, cut #2 is the “knock out”
Ladders 3 p-54

Question 37

Where an employer does not know or cannot reasonably estimate the concentration of contaminants in the work environment, it is assumed that the atmosphere is Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH). Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this policy?
A: When a fire progresses past the incipient stage, the fire area must be considered an IDLH atmosphere. Every member entering the IDLH atmosphere must be equipped with personal protective equipment and a self-contained breathing apparatus.

B: No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the member teams-up with at least one other member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.

C: Each member of the search team shall know the company identity and assigned position of the other members of the search team. Handie-talkies or other electronic communication devices are not acceptable to replace visual or voice contact.

D: It is mandatory that both members of the team within the IDLH have a handie-talkie and be able to contact a handie-talkie-equipped member of the Safety Team outside of the IDLH atmosphere.

Answer 37

D
Explanation:
AT LEAST ONE of the members of the team within the IDLH must have a handie-talkie and must be able to contact a handie-talkie-equipped member of the Safety Team outside of the IDLH atmosphere.
MMID Ch 1 1.2

Question 38

There are many potential causes of collapse at a taxpayer fire. Which one is listed incorrectly?
A: The presence of water-absorbent materials such as rags, paper, clothing, etc. which increase floor loads when wet and which may push out walls by expansion from the absorbed water.

B: A static load, which has a much greater effect than the same weight carried as an impact load.

C: Vibration or movement in or near a weakened building.

D: Water, ice or snow loads on the roof.

Answer 38

B
Explanation:
An IMPACT LOAD, which has a MUCH GREATER effect than the same weight carried as a STATIC (STATIONARY) LOAD.
Txpyr 4.2.4 E-H

Question 39

The cockloft nozzle may also be used to extinguish fire vertically inside of a building or vertically on the outside of a building. Which is an incorrect extinguishment method for the cockloft nozzle?
A: When used in a vertical application to extinguish fire above, the 1⁄2” OST facing downward may be removed and capped with a shut-off.

B: Removing the 1⁄2” OST on one side may be beneficial to acquire greater reach and can be used at stubborn cockloft fires.

C: The cockloft nozzle may also be used to extinguish fire in an EFIS building by placing the nozzle so that the OST’s are in a vertical position.

D: The cockloft nozzle may also be used to extinguish fire in a vertical shaft by placing the nozzle so that the OST’s are in a vertical position.

Answer 39

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 7 add 1 sec 2.3
B. When used in a vertical application to extinguish fire above, the 1⁄2” OST facing downward may be removed and capped with a shut-off, if deemed necessary. This is the only time the 1⁄2” OST may be removed.

Question 40

What code should be transmitted when an Engine is treating a child with 1st degree burns, received from flame from a stove, and EMS designates the child a “yellow tag,” on a CFRD response?
A: 10-37 Code 3

B: 10-37 Code 4

C: 10-45 Code 3

D: 10-45 Code 4

Answer 40

C
Explanation:
Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code SHALL be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for THERMAL burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a FLAME.
The officer transmitting signal 10-45 for this type of burn injury SHALL request the response of a Battalion Chief to the scene.
Where doubt exists as to which signal to transmit, a Battalion Chief SHALL be requested to respond to the scene.
Comm 8 p11