Bx Test 15

Question 1

In a Single Command structure, the IC is solely responsible within the confines of his or her authority for establishing incident management objectives and strategies. From the list below, choose the incident type where the FDNY does not have authority to implement objectives and strategies?
A: Boat in distress (if first to arrive)

B: Confined Space Rescue

C: Elevator Incident or Emergency

D: Ice Rescue

Answer 1

D

Explanation:
Water/Ice Rescue is solely NYPD…AUC 276 sec 5.1
FDNY: Auto extrication (first to arrive)
Boat in Distress (first to arrive)
Confined Space Rescue
Downed Tree
Elevator Incident or Emergency
Entrapment/Impalement
Fire
Structural Collapse
Also: NYPD is the IC for CBRN Haz-Mat incidents where crime or terrorism is suspected or has occurred…As soon as crime or terrorism is ruled out, then it becomes a Unified Command between NYPD and FDNY

Question 2

There are times when Fire units may transmit on EMS borough or citywide frequencies. Of the following choices, which would be an incorrect way of transmitting on these frequencies?
A: Identify yourself (e.g. “Engine 100 to EMS”)

B: Use the address of the incident, including cross streets; however do NOT use the Box Number.

C: Realize that for a fire or CFR response, the assigned medical resources will typically respond on their borough frequency (e.g. EMS Queens West, EMS Queens East, etc.)

D: Relay critical information. Understand that direct communication with the EMS borough dispatcher does not relieve units of their responsibility to maintain communications with the FD borough dispatcher as per existing Fire Department procedures.

Answer 2

C

Explanation:
Realize that a FIRE is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to EMS-CW1 and respond on that channel.
Comm 14 Add 1 2.6-2.8

Question 3

In a high-rise office building the third and fourth engine company will team up to stretch the second line. The second line may be stretched to: **1. Reinforce the position of the first line. **2. Protect the position of the first line. **3. Protect the search and evacuation of the floor above the fire. **4. Contain and confine fire spread on the floor above the fire. Which of the following is correct for the position of the second hoseline?
A: 1,2,3,4

B: 1,2,3

C: 1,2

D: 3,4

Answer 3

C

Explanation:
3. Protect the search and evacuation of the FIRE FLOOR.
4. Contain and confine fire spread AND/OR PREVENT FIRE WRAPPING AROUND THE CORE AND ENDANGERING OPERATION OF THE FIRST LINE.

NOTE: THE SECOND HOSELINE IS NOT STRETCHED TO THE FLOOR ABOVE IN A HIGH RISE OFFICE BUILDING.

THIS DIFFERS FROM HIGH RISE FIREPROOF MD WHERE SECOND LINE MAY BE STRETCHED TO FLOOR ABOVE.

High Rise Office: 9.5
Multiple Dwellings: 6.9.4

Question 4

Which is incorrect regarding hose that is required to be carried on all engine apparatus?
A: 1 length of 2” lightweight hose, maintained as a roll-up and kept with the 2” nozzle and 1” MST attached.

B: 3 lengths of 2 1⁄2” lightweight hose, maintained as roll-ups. One of these lengths must be kept with the 2 1⁄2” nozzle and 1 1/8” MST attached.

C: For companies staffed with 5 firefighters, 1 additional length of 2 1⁄2” lightweight hose must be carried, maintained as a roll-up.

D: 2” lightweight hose is colored red with a red stripe. 2 1⁄2” lightweight hose is green with a red stripe.

Answer 4

D

Explanation:

Eng Ops Ch 2 sec 9.3
2” lightweight hose is colored green with a red stripe.
2 1/2” lightweight hose is colored is white with a red stripe.

Question 5

Your first run out of FLSTP is to a person exhibiting bizarre behavior at the intersection of Allerton ave and Eastchester rd in the Pelham Gardens section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you take several actions. Choose the incorrect action you took.
A: Encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior, you immediately notified the dispatcher to request 10-48 for “Possible EDP.”

B: Where persons are threatening to jump from a window ledge, bridge, etc, your primary concern shall be for the safety of persons using sidewalks, streets, and roadways below

C: No overt action shall be taken by any member that might cause the person to carry out the suicide threat

D: No attempts to forcibly restrain the person shall be made unless there is a direct threat harm to members of the Department

E: Absent clear indications of fire or other imminent danger of a type which mandates immediate FD actions, forcible entry will be delayed until arrival of police personnel, and then done only at police request

Answer 5

A

Explanation:
10-47
AUC 271
Communications ch 8 p- 13
10-47 Police assistance is needed for crowd or traffic control, security, apprehension, etc.
10-48 FFs are being harmed and Police assistance is needed immediately

Question 6

All of the following fire dynamic concepts regarding fire development are correct with the exception of which choice?
A: Modern content fires are largely comprised of hydrocarbons and synthetics which rapidly consume the available oxygen in the air as they burn at a greater rate than legacy content fires.

B: Modern content fires quickly become ventilation limited fires due to their higher fuel load. An additional contributing factor is the energy efficient construction of buildings, which limit the amount of available oxygen within the fire area.

C: Modern content fires enter a delayed decay stage due to the prevalence of synthetic materials, producing heavy smoke and varying heat conditions.

D: The needed oxygen to support rapid fire expansion can be provided by improper ventilation tactics or if the windows fail. If indications of an early decay stage exist upon arrival, uncontrolled and/or uncoordinated ventilation can have tragic implications for both civilians and operating members.

Answer 6

C

Explanation:
Modern content fires enter an EARLY decay stage due to the LIMITED AVAILABLE OXYGEN, producing heavy smoke and varying heat conditions.
Vent 2.1

Question 7

Company apparatus may be utilized for the purpose of procuring required food. Units are to complete this procedure within ___ minutes and are limited to their first ___ response area.
A: 45; due

B: 30; due

C: 45; alarm

D: 30; alarm

Answer 7

A

Explanation:
Regulations Ch 13: 13.3.1E

Question 8

Members of Ladder 99 were talking about The Collapse Rescue Plan and they could not agree on which phase is implemented when after all other methods have been employed and persons are still missing, and their location is unknown. Which choice below is CORRECT?
A: Reconnaissance

B: Searching Voids

C: Select Debris Removal and Tunneling

D: General Debris Removal

Answer 8

D

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
D is Correct - After all other methods have been employed and persons are still missing, and their location is unknown, remove all rubble and systematically strip the area, without regard or preference for any particular location. GENERAL DEBRIS REMOVAL. 11.12

Question 9

Often at times, ladder companies respond to a variety of emergencies, including fallen trees. From the following choices, select the most correct procedure when a tree has fallen into electrical power lines.
A: Members of TL-100 set up a portable ladder against the tree and used the chain saw to start the cutting process

B: After the power company rendered the tree safe to be cut, members of TL-100 used the TL bucket in-conjunction with the chain saw and made sure the chain saw was started inside the basket before starting the cutting process

C: Since the tree has fallen into electrical power lines, before cutting TL-100 verified with the utility company that power has been removed then proceeded to cut using the chain saw in-conjunction with the basket

D: When operating the chain saw from TL-100’s basket, the member operating the chain saw was permitted to put one foot outside the bucket for stability

Answer 9

B

Explanation:
AUC 301
A- Chain saw is not permitted to be operated from a ladder. It may be operated from a TL…..sec 5.8
B- sec 5.8.1
C- Trees can conduct electricity. No cutting or moving is to be attempted until the utility company certifies that power has been removed AND wires have been disengaged from the trees….sec 5.6
D- Member is to keep both feet within the basket….sec 5.8.2

Question 10

As the Officer of the FAST Unit responding in to an “All Hands” fire, you should direct your member dedicated to monitoring the FAST radio and EFAS to grab which handle-talkie in the Chief’s vehicle?
A: No tape

B: Red tape

C: Green tape

D: Yellow tape

Answer 10

D

Explanation:
No tape – Chief and Aide Tactical radio
Red tape – Dispatch radio
Green tape– Auxiliary radio (to be used at the discretion of Chief)
Yellow tape – FAST radio
Comm 11 Add 6 1.3

Question 11

Which of the following portable ladders should be used to bridge fire damaged stairs?
A: 12-foot straight

B: 20-foot straight

C: 24-foot extension

D: 14-foot ‘A’ Frame

Answer 11

C

Explanation:
THE 20’ STRAIGHT MAY BE TOO SHORT

THE SHORTER NESTED LENGTH OF THE 24’ EXTENSION LADDER MAY ALLOW EASIER POSITIONING.

Portable Ladders 10.3.4

Question 12

Proper staffing at the beginning of the tour is the responsibility of every officer. Which of the staffing statements from the 0900 roll call below is CORRECT?
A: To start the tour as a CFR Engine, the company must have at least 1 CFR trained member in addition to a trained officer.

B: To start the tour as a SOC Support Truck, the company must have at least two trained members in addition to a trained officer.

C: To start the tour as a CPC Truck, the company must have at least three trained firefighters. A trained officer is not required.

D: To start the tour as a Communications Engine, the company must have at least three trained firefighters. A trained officer is not required.

Answer 12

D

Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE – ICS/ CFR/ CPC/ SOC SUPPORT
D IS Correct - ICS CH 2 Add 3 2.2.
A – At least 2 CFR trained firefighters. After the start of the tour, the staffing can drop to one trained firefighter and a trained officer to be in service… CFR CH 2 1.8 Note.
B – At least three trained members and a a trained officer - HM CH 10 4.1
C – The dispatcher will special call the necessary number of CPC units to ensure a trained officer and 5 trained firefighters. HM CH 5 5.4.2

Question 13

There are two types of bunker gear cleaning; routine & advanced. The advanced cleaning is done by an independent contractor approximately every six months for each company. When it comes to the advanced cleaning, the most correct procedure can be found in which choice?
A: If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit, that member is responsible for returning his/her gear to their assigned unit for the scheduled cleaning

B: If a member does not have an alternate set of clean bunker gear due to required laundering, member can obtain loaner gear by contacting Special Operation Command (SOC)

C: Officer on duty on the night tour proceeding pickup shall review the form provided via email by the Quartermaster. One copy is to be given to the cleaning contractor and the other copy is to be displayed in the company office for the benefit of covering officers, relocated units, etc.

D: If a company is operating at a fire or emergency at the time of pickup or delivery, a relocated company cannot supervise pickup or delivery. In this case, the cleaning contractor will pickup or drop off the next business day

Answer 13

C

Explanation:
AUC 310 add 2….new as of 3/29/2019
A- If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear will be cleaned with the gear of the unit to which the member is detailed. The member shall be added to that units cleaning roster…sec 3.2
B- Contact Haz-Mat Decontamination Support Unit (DSU)….sec 3.4
C- sec 3.6
D- Relocated unit can supervise pickup or delivery…sec 3.8

Question 14

Two members of a Staten Island Ladder Company were discussing taxpayer fires. Which term below was incorrectly defined?
A: An axial load is a force perpendicular to the supporting member; it is straight and true and evenly applied to the bearing structure.

B: An eccentric load is a force whose resultant is parallel to the supporting member and passed through the center of the mass. The load is evenly applied to the supporting or bearing member.

C: Impact loads are loads delivered, in a short time, on structural members and produce stresses on structural members that may not have been provided for in design and may cause collapse.

D: Lateral loads are exerted outwardly on a horizontal plane. These forces may take place during a collapse or an explosion; walls are not usually designed to withstand severe lateral loads.

Answer 14

B

Explanation:
An eccentric load is a force whose resultant is PERPENDICULAR to the supporting member but does NOT pass through the center of the mass. The load is NOT evenly applied to the supporting or bearing member.
Txpyr Glossary

Question 15

In cold weather, keep the aerial ladder hydraulic systems operating intermittently to prevent sluggishness or freezing; return the ladder to the bed as soon as possible to prevent icing; and try to position the ladder to avoid water spray. If ladder becomes coated with ice, try to avoid movement before defrosting. To remove ice, what is the first component of the ladder you should free from the ice?
A: Rungs and ladder rung locks

B: Trussing

C: Main beams

D: None of the above

Answer 15

A

Explanation:
ACRONYMN: “RON LIKES TWO MARTINIS”

1. Rungs and Ladder rung locks
2. Trussing
3. Main beams

Aerial Ladders 8.19

Question 16

All the following hydrant connections are to be used exclusively as a hydrant connection except ___________
A: A 35-foot length of 5” yellow synthetic

B: 4 1⁄2” semi-rigid suction

C: 3 1⁄2” hose

D: 3 1⁄2” soft suction

Answer 16

C

Explanation:

Eng Ops Ch 2 sec 10.1

Question 17

The most correct procedure, when forcing a door that opens inward using the Halligan and Axe, can be found in which choice?
A: The halligan tool is held with the hand at the hook end palm down and the other hand at the at the fork end palm up

B: Place the fork of the halligan tool approximately 12” above or below the lock

C: The FF holding the axe stands on the same side of the member holding the halligan tool in order to reduce the chance of striking the other FF

D: The member holding the halligan tool is the coordinator of the action, telling the axe FF when to strike

Answer 17

D

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Forcible Entry 2
A- The halligan tool is held with the hand at the hook end palm UP and the other hand at the at the fork end palm DOWN….sec 1.2.A.1
B- approximately 6” ……sec 1.2.A.2
C- Opposite side…..sec 1.2.B.2
D- sec 1.2

Question 18

At an underground, transit chemical attack incident, who of the following is responsible for “Site Access Control?”
A: First Ladder Team 1

B: Second Ladder Team 1

C: First Ladder Team 2

D: Second Ladder Team 2

Answer 18

D

Explanation:
First Ladder Team 1 - Evac & Hazard Assessment
First Ladder Team 2 - Backup
Second Ladder Team 1 - Evac to Gross Decon
Second Ladder Team 2 - Site Access Control
ERP Add 2 6.6

Question 19

There are occasions when the roof firefighter may attempt to use a removed bulkhead door to gain access to the roof of a bulkhead. When this technique is employed which statement below is incorrect?
A: The roof firefighter drove the hook end of the halligan into the roof.

B: She then positioned the door against the bulkhead at a 35 degree angle with the roof.

C: The halligan should be perpendicular to the bottom of the door for safety reasons.

D: After gaining access to and venting a high bulkhead, the roof firefighter should get off the same place where they gained access.

Answer 19

C

Explanation:
C. The halligan should be PARALLEL to the bottom of the door for safety reasons.

Ladders 3: 5.3.3 B & C

Question 20

New York City Transit has made a number of things available to us for use during underground operations. Which choice below regarding provided firefighting equipment is INCORRECT?
A: All under river tubes of the NYC Transit System are equipped with wet standpipe systems.

B: Gate valves with Fire Department threads are located at approximately 200’ intervals.

C: The standpipes are equipped with 2½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles.

D: Dry Chemical extinguishers at the power removal boxes are approximately 600’ apart.

Answer 20

C

Explanation:
AUC 207
C is Incorrect – The standpipes are equipped with 1½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles.
A,B,D are correct as written. Just note the difference in terminology between the AUC and Under River Rail Operations for choice B – AUC 207 says APPROXIMATELY 200’ intervals, while Under River says EVERY 200’ feet. – Gate Valves are standpipe connections, not to be confused with section valves which are 600’ apart.

Question 21

While operating as the FAST Unit at a 2nd alarm Taxpayer fire, you remain especially alert as earlier in the tour the Department sent out a 65-2 message indicating that portions of the HT system have malfunctioned and that units would have to rely on the internal 7-digit ID for identifying members making transmissions. You here a garbled message that may be an “Urgent” and see “1003004” transmitted that message. What does 1003004 indicate?
A: OV of Ladder 3

B: Chief of Division 4

C: Rescue 3 Hook

D: Rescue 4 Roof

Answer 21

C

Explanation:
Comm 11 Add 4 p4

Question 22

Engine 399 responded to a CFRD run where they located a patient but could not gain access to the apartment. Which of the following choices made by the officer at this box was INCORRECT?
A: The officer had the unit force entry and requested a PD response for security/safety.

B: The officer had the dispatcher notify the responding EMS units of the situation.

C: The officer had EMS maintain security pending the arrival of PD.

D: The officer turned the apartment security over to a responsible neighbor.

Answer 22

C

Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 2 4.8
C IS INCORRECT – The responsibility of safeguarding premises shall not be delegated to EMS personnel. This includes awaiting the arrival of PD. 4.8
A, B, D are Correct as written.

Question 23

You are first to arrive to a small flammable liquid spill that is on fire. You order your FFs to stretch and place a foam line into operation. You make several tactical decisions based on whether the spill is contained or flowing. You were correct in which choice?
A: For a spill that is contained you ordered your FFs to direct the foam stream behind the fire so that it can flow evenly throughout the spill

B: For a spill that is contained you ordered your FFs to work against the run of the spill, either directly or from the flanks, towards the source of the spill, directing a foam stream on the ground ahead of the fire in such a manner as to bounce the foam onto the fire

C: For a spill that is contained you ensured your FFs not to deflect the stream against something and allow the foam to slide down and work its way across the burning liquid as this is an ineffective method

D: One possible method to extinguish a spill that is contained is to order your FFs to direct the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion, allowing the foam to fall as gently as possible over the surface. This will cover the spill and reduce disruption at the blanket

Answer 23

D

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Foam sec 8.4
A- Contained: Direct a foam stream on the ground AHEAD of the fire in such a manner as to bounce the foam onto the fire
B- For flowing fires
C- You ensured your FFs TO deflect the stream against something and allow the foam to slide down and work its way across the burning liquid (this IS done for contained spills)
D- 2005 Lts exam

Question 24

What code should be transmitted if firefighters are being harmed and police assistance is needed immediately?

A: 10-47

B: 10-48

C: 10-44

D: 10-85

Answer 24

B

Explanation:
10-44 - Request for Ambulance (specify the reason and type, when possible.
10-47 - Police Response (needed for crowd or traffic control, security, apprehension, etc. The dispatcher shall be advised of the specific reason for the request.)
10-48 Police Response for Harassment (firefighters are being harmed and police assistance is needed immediately.)
10-85 - Fire Marshal requires emergency police assistance (specify reason).
Comm 8 10-48

Question 25

When operating at a gas emergency you should consider treating it as a major gas emergency if the leak is serious enough to consider shutting which of the following valves: *1. Master Meter Valve *2. Head of Service Valve *3. Curb/Service Valve.
A: 3 only

B: 2 or 3 only

C: 1 or 2 only

D: 1, 2 or 3

Answer 25

D

Explanation:
There are 6 valves that FD members can shut:
1. Appliance
2. Interior Gas Riser
3. Individual Meter
4. Master Meter
5. Head of Service
6. Curb/Service Valve

JUST REMEMBER IF SHUTTING “456” CONSIDER TREATING IT AS MAJOR GAS EMERGENCY

Natural Gas Page 25 2nd Bullet

Question 26

Which choice below about Extra Departmental Employment (EDE) is CORRECT?
A: All sixth grade firefighters are prohibited from working EDE

B: Members on light duty are prohibited from working EDE

C: All EDE must be approved by the Fire Commissioner

D: Members serving in Volunteer Departments must submit EDE form (BP-150)

Answer 26

D

Explanation:
PA/ID 12/67 – EXTRA DEPARTMENTAL EMPLOYMENT - 2009
D IS CORRECT 1.10
A – Sixth grade firefighters shall not engage in any EDE, profession, occupation or business, while attending Probationary Firefighting Training School. 1.6
B - While on light duty or limited service, members may engage in EDE only with the approval of the Fire Commissioner or the Commissioner’s designee. 1.4
C - Members may engage in extra-departmental employment (EDE) without the approval of the Fire Commissioner, except as noted herein (in the bulletin) 1.1

Question 27

You are in charge of a trenching operation to stop the spread of fire in a cockloft of a multiple dwelling. Choose the incorrect procedure used for a trenching operation.
A: The trench should be at least 3’ wide

B: No inspection holes shall be cut on the fire side of the trench

C: The trench should be cut at about 20 feet from the initial vent hole

D: A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and the trench opening. This line may be operated into the trench in a brief, sweeping, side to side motion to prevent fire from extending across the opening. Such operations should only be conducted after adequate precautions are taken to prevent injury to interior operating forces

Answer 27

B

Explanation:
Two or more inspection holes may be cut on the fire side of the trench
Multiple Dwellings 5.9.9

Question 28

While conducting searches at a fire in a large industrial facility in downtown Brooklyn, you identify a door with the NFPA 704 Diamond on it. There is a “2” in the yellow section which indicates?
A: Violent chemical change

B: Shock and heat may detonate

C: Hazardous

D: Deadly

Answer 28

A

Explanation:
Reactivity Hazard or Yellow Section
4 May Detonate
3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
2 Violent Chemical Change
1 Unstable if Heated
0 Stable
ERP p39

Question 29

When operating at the scene of a water rescue, a water safety unit has unsuccessfully attempted the “Reach” and “Throw” methods of rescuing the victim. You’re the company officer and you have the following thoughts about attempting the “Go” method. Which one is incorrect?
A: It is only under extreme life safety emergencies in which a member of a unit equipped with only a Water Safety Kit shall enter the water.

B: Members entering the water shall have their feet protected. A member can leave their shoes on. Bunker boots must not be worn.

C: Members must be properly tethered utilizing the Life Saving Rope or 75’ Throw Rope attached to the “O” ring on the back of the PFD using the snap hook.

D: If the tether line becomes tangled the firefighter can pull the quick release which will release the tether line.

Answer 29

B

Explanation:
B. Members entering water shall have their feet protected. Members may have no idea of the depth of the water or debris present until they enter it. Member can leave shoes on OR IF WEARING BUNKER GEAR STEP OUT OF PANTS REMOVE BOOTS FROM PANTS AND PUT BOOTS BACK ON.
** ODD THAT BUNKER BOOTS CAN BE WORN**

Water Rescue 2: 3.8.5

Question 30

At a radiological emergency, the IC allows members to conduct “general operations.” How long can members operate in the hot zone of an area with a dose-rate of 20 R/hr?
A: Members cannot operate

B: 15 minutes

C: 1 hour

D: 30 minutes

Answer 30

B

Explanation:
Since members can absorb a max dose of 5 Rems, at a location where 20 R/hr is the dose rate, they can operate for only a quarter of the time, or 15 minutes.
ERP Add 4 3.1.4 A, Table 3

Question 31

From the choices listed below, the most probable point of fire extension in a multiple dwelling can be found in which choice?
A: Vertical steel channels

B: Closets

C: Pipe recesses

D: Shafts of any type (dumbwaiter, elevator, etc)

Answer 31

A

Explanation:
Tight question
These are all possible points of vertical extension, but Vertical steel channels is the most probable. Closets are another very probable point
Multiple Dwellings sec 5.10
Also check out sec 5.6.3…..The officer who arrives first on the fire floor shall transmit to the IC “Whether fire is extending, and how it is extending

Question 32

Which taxpayer construction feature below is listed incorrectly?
A: Taxpayer features, which contribute to the instability of the structure, may not be obvious during fire operations because structural elements are covered by finishing material or obscured by smoke conditions.

B: The cockloft is usually a common area extending over all the stores in the structure and can vary in height from one to two inches. A large amount of exposed wood, such as roof boards, bridging and wood lath is present.

C: There are many types of roofs on taxpayers but the most common is constructed of wood joists covered with either tongue and groove boards or plywood.

D: Inverted, raised or reversed roof construction is used to create a pitch to provide drainage. Sometimes an inverted roof is constructed over an existing roof and forms an additional cockloft.

Answer 32

B

Explanation:
The cockloft is usually a common area extending over all the stores in the structure and can vary in height from FOUR INCHES to MORE THAN SIX FEET. A large amount of exposed wood, such as roof boards, bridging and wood lath is present.
C Note: The roof is then covered with combustible waterproofing material commonly called “tarpaper” or “built up roofing” which may be several layers thick. Sometimes a layer of tin is found under the tarpaper in old taxpayers. The roof joists may be supported at approximately 20-foot intervals, by exterior brick bearing walls, interior load bearing studded partitions, wood or steel girders supported by steel lally columns or wood columns.
Txpyr 3.1-3.3.2

Question 33

The Tower Ladder apparatus is equipped with four corner jacks and two hydraulically-extended outriggers (stabilizers). The outriggers, when fully extended, produce a solid foundation for the apparatus during operations involving the Tower Ladder bucket. Which statement below is incorrect regarding the stabilizer supports?
A: All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that must be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.

B: The “All Jacks” method is the preferred method for lowering when on uneven ground.

C: Jacks and outriggers must be lowered until every green light is illuminated on the Outrigger Control Panel prior to raising the boom.

D: If the apparatus is not level, lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.

Answer 33

B

Explanation:
B. The “All Jacks” method is the preferred method for lowering when on LEVEL ground.

** NEW BULLETIN RELEASED 10/1/2019** Tower Ladders Ch 1: 1.1 Pg 2

Question 34

The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, L99, TL500, L600F, B150, B200, D2…..All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story OLT type rowframe. From the following choices, which unit/position carried out their duties correctly?
A: After Roof FF has reached the roof, L99’s LCC teamed up with TL500’s LCC to VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders

B: After VEIS of the fire apartment, L99’s LCC used the Aerial ladder to VEIS the adjoining apartment

C: Even though rescues were being conducted in front of the building, L99’s OV FF ensured horizontal ventilation was conducted of the fire area since she was 1st due

D: After TL500’s OV FF dropped the Roof FF off on the roof, she waited for completion of roof size-up before re-positioning the basket.

Answer 34

B

Explanation:
Rowframes
A- Re-positioned the Aerial for this. When the fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd LCC (or another available member)…p-36
B- p-36
C- Except for assisting the LCC in front of the fire building when aerial or portable ladders are needed for rescue or removal, assignment is to ventilate the fire area from the exterior providing horizontal ventilation…..p-36
D- This is done when your first due. p-47

Question 35

Some high rise office buildings have fixed stairwell pressurization systems. When activated, these systems will cause positive pressurization of stairwells in the building. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these systems?
A: When operating in a building that has a fixed stairwell pressurization system that is activated, the IC shall continue operations with the system on. The IC shall continually evaluate the effects of the fixed stairwell pressurization system.

B: The fixed system should not be augmented by FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans. Augmentation can cause leakage which will reduce pressure in the stair shaft.

C: FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans can be used when the building does not have a fixed stairwell pressurization system, or the system is out of service for any reason. The use of FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans shall be initiated immediately upon identifying an absent, or out-of-service, fixed stairwell pressurization system.

D: Buildings that have a fixed stairwell pressurization system shall be entered into CIDS.

Answer 35

C

Explanation:
FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans can be used when the building does not have a fixed stairwell pressurization system, or the system is out of service for any reason. The use of FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans shall NOT be initiated until AUTHORIZED BY THE IC.
HROB 6.3.8 B, C

Question 36

Which of the following statements regarding private dwellings built with lightweight construction is incorrect?
A: In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within 5 to 10 minutes.

B: Collapse is always the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight materials.

C: Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than 25’ are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present.

D: It is critical that any member becoming aware of lightweight construction notify their company officer.

Answer 36

D

Explanation:
D. …notify the Incident Commander.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 1.7; 1.8; 1.9

Question 37

A unit leaving quarters for BISP can be identified in the company journal by which flagging column entry?

A: BISP

B: AFID

C: BI

D: RBIS

Answer 37

A

Explanation:
CJ p8

Question 38

For a fire in a vacant row frame building in a row of occupied frames, the 2nd hoseline shall be initially stretched where?
A: Backup the first line

B: Fire building

C: Most severe exposure

D: Through an exposure to the rear yard

Answer 38

A

Explanation:
2nd hoseline….If not needed to backup the 1st hoseline, it shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure
In this scenario:
1st line to most severe exposure
2nd line- If not needed to backup the 1st hoseline, it shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure
3rd line- stretched to fire building or to opposite exposure depending on where the 2nd line was stretched
4th line- as per IC
Rowframes sec 6.7

Question 39

Two Bronx firefighters discussing vacant building tactics identified the advantages of In-Line-Pumping at these fires. In which choice below were they incorrect?
A: Fast water on the fire.

B: Water supply limited to supply line layout and hydrant supply potential.

C: Shorter and faster hand line stretches.

D: Lower engine pressures required.

Answer 39

B

Explanation:
B - This is a disadvantage.
Advantages of In-Line Pumping: Acronym: FEELS ECC
Fast water on the fire.
Equipment on a pumper closer to the fire.
Exterior stream operation.
Lower engine pressures required.
Shorter and faster hand line stretches.
ECC in better position to observe operations and assist if necessary.
Vacant 3.1.1 B

Question 40

In Old Law Tenements, the infrequently used procedure, of going from front to rear apartments or vice versa through the common partition may be used as an escape route. To accomplish this a member shall take the following steps. Which one is incorrect?
A: Use the halligan, hook or axe. This is the order of preference but all can do the job.

B: Start low. Punch a hole slightly below waist level.

C: The tool is placed in a bay with the bottom anchored against the opposite side of the partition. The firefighter then pulls the tool towards themselves using short strokes to snap lath off on their side.

D: With the tool, the member knocks off the lath on the far side of the bay. Do not kick the lath off as this could result in the members leg becoming trapped.

Answer 40

D

Explanation:
D. WITH THE SOLE OF HIS/HER BOOT, THE MEMBER CAN KICK THE LATH OFF THE FAR SIDE OF THE BAY.

A BIT ODD THAT WE ARE TOLD TO KICK THE WALL. ALWAYS MAKE A NOTE OF ANYTHING OUT OF THE ORDINARY THAT YOU COME ACROSS IN OUR BOOKS
Ladders 3: 6.1.1; 6.1.2; 6.1.3; 6.1.4