Bx Test 31

Question 1

Two members of a Queens Ladder Company discussing Ventilation Procedures corrected a third member that made which incorrect statement?
A: When ventilation tactics are properly controlled, communicated and coordinated, there is an increase in the survivability of trapped civilians and an increase in the safety of members as they search for the fire and/or victims by controlling flow paths.

B: Ventilation tactics that are properly controlled, communicated and coordinated, will facilitate an effective operation by controlling fire development, and limiting the spread of fire, heat and smoke conditions within the fire area and throughout the entire structure.

C: Conducting ventilation remote from the immediate fire area can have a negative impact on civilians and members caught in the flow path.

D: Uncoordinated ventilation can intensify fire conditions and has the potential to create a ventilation-induced flashover. However, this does not apply to situations where fire is already venting out of window(s) remote from your location.

Answer 1

D
Explanation:
Uncoordinated ventilation can intensify fire conditions and has the potential to create a ventilation-induced flashover. THIS ALSO APPLIES to situations where fire is already venting out of window(s) remote from your location. Where door control was lost on the fire floor, members have been severely and fatally injured.
Vent 6.1

Question 2

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding deployment of the Personal Safety System (PSS)?
A: This system should only be used after all other means of self rescue have been exhausted. Locate and clear a window suitable for exit.

B: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted. In addition to all other required information relayed for a trapped member, include that you are in the process of deploying the Personal Safety System.

C: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified.

D: If conditions permit, anchoring the hook into the window sill or interior side wall is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system, preferable to tying off to a substantial object.

Answer 2

D
Explanation:
If conditions permit, TYING OFF TO A SUBSTANTIAL OBJECT is the PREFERRED method of anchoring the personal safety system.
Evol 24 3

Question 3

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the wearing of department uniforms?
A: Shorts may be worn under bunker gear on responses during the months of May 1 thru October 31.

B: Shorts may not be worn for AFID, to Education Day, to Training at the Bureau of Training, or Complaint investigation.

C: Shorts shall not be worn for CFRD responses, ERS No Contact, or Class E alarms unless worn under bunker gear.

D: Shorts may be worn by Chief and Company officers, and firefighters.

Answer 3

C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS – CHAPTER 29
C IS CORRECT – 29.6.4
A – Shorts are an optional part of the uniform year round. 29.6.4
B – Units called to the Bureau of training and Satellite training locations may wear shorts. 29.6.4
D – Shorts may be worn by Company Officers and Firefighters. 29.6.4

Question 4

Procedures for removing passengers from an elevator can be broken up into three categories; primary; secondary; and emergency. From the list below, choose the incorrect procedure in relation to the category.
A: Checking electrical contacts is considered a primary removal procedure and can be completed without turning off the elevator power

B: Instructing a stuck passenger to exert physical pressure on the elevator door towards the open position is considered a secondary removal procedure. If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to depress or lift the roller on sliding hoistway type doors

C: Top hatch removal is considered an emergency removal. During this method, a portable straight ladder is lowered to the elevator roof where a maximum of two firefighters are permitted. A small portable ladder is then lowered into the elevator for removal

D: Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic or as a last resort during emergency removal procedures

Answer 4

B
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Emergency 1 p- 3-10
Primary- There are 2. Checking electrical connections and activating Firemen Service (without turning off elevator power)
Secondary- If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to lift the locking arm on sliding hoistway type doors, or to depress or lift the roller on hinge type hoistway doors
Emergency - Power to the stuck elevator must be off when you use emergency removal procedures ** Whenever secondary or emergency removal procedures are used, power removal is essential. Dispatch 2 members to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car. The machinery room may be located at the top of the shaft, at the bottom of the shaft or two levels above the highest floor serviced by the elevator

Question 5

Engine company officers should develop a physical communication system with the nozzle firefighter for use when voice communications cannot be heard. The following system of touch signals can be used in conjunction with verbal commands to relay orders. Which is incorrect?
A: open or close the nozzle – one or two slaps on the back or shoulder.

B: advance hoseline – tap on the back or SCBA.

C: direction of stream – tug on the arm or nozzle, either left or right.

D: stop line advance – pull back on shoulder, bunker coat, or SCBA.

Answer 5

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 9.7
B. steady push on the back or SCBA.
There are 5 touch signals. The 5th is for an emergency withdrawal – 4 slaps on the shoulder and pull in direction of retreat.

Question 6

Captain Smith, currently covering in a Haz Mat Technician Unit (HMTU), made an incorrect comment in which choice below regarding these specially trained units?
A: At Haz-Mat mass casualty incidents, the HMTUs may be assigned to victim removal, first aid, and/or decontamination.

B: At incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on victim removal.

C: A HMTU is capable, within the limitation of their training and equipment, to operate as an independent Haz-Mat Team in the control and mitigation of an incident.

D: Entries by HMTU members into contaminated areas shall be made only when appropriate positions (e.g. Entry, Backup, etc.) are filled and a decontamination station is established. This may necessitate awaiting the arrival of a second HMTU to staff the decontamination station.

Answer 6

B
Explanation:
At incidents involving an “unusually large number of victims,” the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on DECONTAMINATION.
HM 8 5.2, 5.3, 5.6, 6.3

Question 7

Of the following choices, which tools shall be taken by the second ladder company inside team at a 10-77 in a Class 2 high rise fireproof multiple dwelling:**1) Axe or Maul, **2) Axe and no option of taking the Maul, **3) Search Rope, **4) Carbon Monoxide Meter, **5) KO Curtain.
A: 1,3,4 & 5, only

B: 1,3,& 4, only

C: 2,3,4 & 5, only

D: 2,3 & 4, only

Answer 7

A
Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures, Multiple Dwelling Fires.
A,B,C,D-sec 8.8.7. There are minor differences in tool assignments for HRFPMDs, LRFPMDs & Class 2 HRMDs.

For 2nd ladder inside team:

Sec. 6.15.2 HRFPMDs-axe only (no option for maul), search rope and no KO curtain.

Sec. 7.8.2 LRFPMDs-axe or maul, no search rope, & KO curtain

Sec. 8.8.7 Class 2 HRMDs-axe or maul, search rope, & KO curtain.

Question 8

REHAB-MD 5-STY 20X60 CLASS-3 – 2 APT’S PER FLR – FRONT & REAR FIRE ESCAPES – NO EXT ENT TO CELLAR – GUARD DOGS IN CELLAR – RAZOR WIRE FENCE ON ROOF. There is a medium fire condition in the cellar of this multiple dwelling and the assigned companies will arrive on the scene. Which tactical choice is CORRECT regarding a fire in this building?
A: The first line shall be stretched to the interior cellar entrance stairs and advanced down into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

B: Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Incident Commander.

C: The second line shall be stretched to the rear entrance and advanced into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

D: All horizontal ventilation of the cellar and first floor shall be controlled by the first arriving ladder company officer.

Answer 8

A
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A IS CORRECT - The first line should not be advanced down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or rear of the building, unless the fire is minor. 4.2.1 CIDS STATES NO EXTERIOR ENTRANCE
B – Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the ladder officer working in the fire area (fire floor). 4.2.2
C – There is no cellar entrance to the building.
D – All horizontal ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the ladder officer in the area to be vented (Fire Floor, Floor above, etc). IT’S NOT BOTH. 4.2.2

Question 9

Upon receipt of a recall signal, all affected units out of quarters, other than units operating at a fire or emergency, shall ___________. Relocated units shall be guided by instructions received from dispatchers.
A: return to quarters after immediately, unless on BISP or Hydrant inspection

B: return to quarters immediately

C: return to quarters as soon as practical

D: return to quarters within the hour

Answer 9

B
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 18.12.1

Question 10

Engine 399 and Ladder 199 are leaving quarters, 10-8 to head to multi-unit drill. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding MUD & their drill at a vacant building in their response area?
A: Prior to leaving quarters, the member on housewatch will make an entry for the company leaving quarters proceeding to MUD.

B: Multi-unit drills shall be of at least one and one-half hours duration and conducted between the hours of 0730 hours and 2000 hours.

C: Prior to conducting any training exercise on private property, a request for training form TR-1 and a letterhead report shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the Bureau of Operations, Planning.

D: Prior to the conclusion of drill, the officers on duty with participating units shall be responsible for proper supervision of an operating test and inspection of each mask carried.

Answer 10

C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CROSS REFERENCE – CHAPTERS 22 & 13
C IS CORRECT – 22.5.7
A – Members record responses, all other movement is recorded by the officer.
B – MUD shall be at least one and a half hours between 0630 and 2000 hrs. 22.5.3
D – Mask tests shall be conducted immediately prior to the start of MUD 22.5.3

Question 11

During the winter months operations must be altered due to the weather. Of the choices listed below, choose the incorrect operation at the scene of a fire or emergency during the winter.
A: Place additional water extinguishers in rear compartments of the apparatus in case of frozen hydrants

B: During intermittent line operations, nozzles shall be cracked slightly to prevent freezing, discharging water so as to avoid unnecessary damage

C: Do not raise aerial ladder unless absolutely necessary, and retract ladders at the earliest opportunity

D: Ladder companies shall have shovels available as needed for roof operations

E: Engine companies shall have shovels available for the clearing of hydrants

Answer 11

A
Explanation:
Place water extinguishers in cab of apparatus or heated area
AUC 200 sec 4.4

Question 12

Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure Chart to monitor and record the psi of the hydrant nearest quarters. The most correct time of year this shall be done can be found in which choice?
A: First full week in May

B: Last full week in May

C: First full week in June

D: Last full week in June

Answer 12

A
Explanation:
This chart shall be posted at the HouseWatch area throughout the summer season
AUC 205 add 2

Question 13

When using an elevator during fire operations, precautionary stops shall be conducted to ensure the elevator is working properly. Choose the incorrect tactic for precautionary stops.
A: Elevator should be stopped every 5 floors to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made

B: Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the in the elevator shaft

C: The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button

D: Inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign should be done at the last precautionary stop only

Answer 13

D
Explanation:
Inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign should be done at the FIRST and LAST precautionary stop
Training Bulletins Emergencies 1 sec 6.1.10

Question 14

The Inflatable Soft Landing Mat is a training safety device to protect members sliding down ropes when training at firehouses. The mat shall be used in a responsible manner and under the supervision of company officers. Select the incorrect use for the Inflatable Soft Landing Mat.
A: The mat shall not be used at a remote site

B: The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of two stories

C: The landing mat may be positioned at any suitable location around the perimeter of the firehouse, including the sidewalk apron

D: If the mat is to be used in front of quarters, the apparatus must be removed and parked in a safe position outside

Answer 14

B
Explanation:
The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of THREE stories
Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data Sheet 4 sec 3 and sec 4

Question 15

The most correct procedure when cleaning and disinfecting the SCBA regulator can be found in in which choice?
A: Remove the breathing regulator from the facepiece by rotating the regulator 1/4 turn counter clockwise

B: Once the regulator is removed, depress the manual shut-off, close the purge knob by turning fully counter clockwise.

C: After purge knob is closed, spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70 percent Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening

D: Alcohol and water should be applied to the regulator surface, exhalation port, and directly into the spray bar ports

Answer 15

C
Explanation:
A- Clockwise
B- Clockwise
D- Alcohol and water should only be applied to the regulator surface and exhalation port. Alcohol and water should NOT be directed into the spray bar ports
Training Bulletins SCBA add 5

Question 16

At a fire on the top floor and cockloft of a 4-story Brownstone type row frame without a rear fire escape, and the first arriving ladder company is a tower ladder, the second arriving ladder responsibilities are many. Which member of this 2nd arriving ladder company operated INCORRECTLY?
A: The inside team operated on the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure.

B: When no longer needed at the aerial, the LCC operated in the opposite exposure for VEIS of the top floor and examination of the cockloft.

C: After checking the rear, the OV teamed up with the LCC for exposure examination or proceeded to the roof.

D: The Roof firefighter operated on the roof of the most severe exposure for examination and ventilation.

Answer 16

D
Explanation:
BROWNSTONES AND ROWFRAMES
D IS INCORRECT – The 2nd roof position is on the roof of the fire building for Assist in ventilation of fire building and necessary exposures. When the fire is on the top floor and in the cockloft, both roof firefighters work together to vent roof with the saw. 5.8.1 pg 43
A – 5.8.1 pg 42
B – 5.8.1 pg 42
C – 5.8.1 pg 43 & 2.7 #1 pg 20

Question 17

Ladder companies in Battalion 99 are 1084 at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. Several laddering decisions were made during the early stages of this fire. Which one was CORRECT?
A: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial to the roof at an extreme angle so that it barely touched the building. It was extended 4 feet above the roof.

B: The 2nd arriving OV placed the first portable ladder to the first fire escape balcony alongside the drop ladder to assist with the number of people coming down the fire escape.

C: The 2nd arriving LCC positioned the Tower Ladder top basket railing level with the fire escape so members could load an unconscious 1045 victim in the bucket.

D: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial on the 3rd floor fire escape balcony, less than 6” above the railing.

Answer 17

C
Explanation:
LADDERS BULLETINS – PORTABLES – AERIALS – TOWER LADDERS
C IS CORRECT – Tower Ladders 3.3
A - When placing the ladder to the roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is at least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building. Lad 2 - 7.13
B - A portable ladder should be raised to the first balcony at a point opposite the drop ladder. Portable Ladders 10.1
D – Aerial Ladders are not placed on Fire escapes. 3.3.1 Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.

Question 18

ou are the officer on duty on Memorial Day Weekend and firefighter Walker calls to advise you that he has been selected for Jury Duty Service following his call-in period. You run down a bunch of things he should be aware of. Which one is INCORRECT according to the PA/ID?
A: You are responsible for working 6x9 Friday and Saturday tours and before holidays, and 9x6 tours on Saturday, Sunday, and Holidays.

B: If jury duty service starts prior to the beginning of your vacation, the vacation leave will be postponed.

C: You are not permitted to work any mutual exchange of tours from 1800 on the date immediately prior to the first day of service until released from Jury Duty Service.

D: Members scheduled to work on Memorial or Veteran’s day that are excused for Jury Duty are not entitled to Comp Time reimbursement.

Answer 18

A
Explanation:
PA/ID 1/96 – JURY DUTY LEAVE
A IS INCORRECT – Saturday 6x9 tours and night tours before holidays. (Not Fridays) 7.1
B – 8.3
C – 6.2.1
D – 7.2

Question 19

Firefighter Jones was discussing sexual harassment and the EEO Complaint Process with several of her fellow firefighters and the filing process came up. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the filing process for sexual harassment complaints?
A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly through BITS at HQ.

B: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated to the officer who will forward the complaint to the EEO Office.

C: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated through the chain of command to the EEO Officer.

D: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated my mailing a letter to the EEO Office.

Answer 19

C
Explanation:
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO
C IS INCORRECT – The chain of command from the member to the EEO officer is bypassed when the member utilizes the complaint process 10.1
A – 5.4
B – 5.2.5
D – 5.2.2

Question 20

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to the FDNY policy for NYC Transit Subway Stations.
A: A red globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location, and that the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24 hour day

B: A green globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day. There may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location. In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate

C: Information pertaining to the station can be found in a see-through folder, which will be readily available at the full time token booth of every station

D: When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative Battalion Chief

Answer 20

D
Explanation:
When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the FDNY Resource Center. In addition, officer shall file a police report and complete a Lost Property Report. Forward to FDNY Resource Center
AUC 207 add 3

Question 21

The incorrect SCBA policy can be found in which choice?
A: Members are not to utilize any FAST Pak for civilians

B: Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited

C: When a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or is malfunctioning the company officer shall inform the IC or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established. Member shall be accompanied to a safe area by another member who is using a SCBA

D: The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC

Answer 21

A
Explanation:
For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit or utilize a spare SCBA
AUC 220

Question 22

You respond to a call for fumes on the 3rd floor of a Brownstone. On arrival, your CO meter alerts you to the presence of 160ppm of CO in the building. The occupants had a CO detector but the batteries were removed so they were unaware of the hazard. Which code should you transmit?
A: 10-38 Code 1

B: 10-38 Code 2

C: 10-38 Code 3

D: 10-38 Code 4

Answer 22

D
Explanation:
Code 4 because, regardless of the ppm, there was NO DETECTOR ACTIVATION
10-38 - Any type of Carbon Monoxide Response
Code 1: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Investigation (low battery, defective detector, unwarranted alarm, etc.)
Code 2: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident (CO Meter Reading of 1-9ppm)
Code 3: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Emergency (CO Meter Reading of greater than 9ppm)
Code 4: No Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (Specify) e.g.: no detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.
Comm 8 p11

Question 23

Which is not a correct consideration at taxpayer store and cockloft fires?
A: On newer type taxpayers, there may be vents or store signs attached to the front of the building that cover openings into the cockloft. Streams can be operated into these openings to extinguish fire.

B: The first hoselines should be positioned between any people and the fire. A path of egress should be left unimpeded for evacuating people, if possible.

C: For a fire that is traveling rapidly along a row of occupancies in a taxpayer, it may be best to skip occupancies and stretch lines into alternate occupancies ahead of the fire. The bypassed stores will be covered by subsequent lines.

D: A hoseline may be required on the roof to protect personnel and exposures once the roof is opened.

Answer 23

A
Explanation:
Taxpayer 7.3.2
On older type taxpayers, there may be vents or store signs attached to the front of the building that cover openings into the cockloft. Streams can be operated into these openings to extinguish fire.

Question 24

If a local community leader stops by the firehouse for an inquiry, you would be most correct to ensure which entry is made in the flagging column?
A: VST

B: VIS

C: VISIT

D: V

Answer 24

B
Explanation:
VIS - Visit by Non-Member
CJ p8

Question 25

Hydrants are equipped with a curb valve. The curb valve key is turned _________ full turns to shut the valve. There will not be a noticeable decrease in water flow until about 12 full turns are made.
A: clockwise 17

B: clockwise 18

C: counterclockwise 17

D: counterclockwise 18

Answer 25

C
Explanation:
Eng ops Ch 3 add 4 sec 2.4.3

Question 26

When filling out a PCR at a CFR run, if a patient is unable to verbalize his or her “Chief Complaint” because the patient is unresponsive, the “documenter” Firefighter shall write which of the following?
A: Nothing - Leave it blank

B: Not applicable

C: Patient unresponsive

D: Patient unable

Answer 26

C
Explanation:
CFR-D Chapter 5 sec 4.9
Enter the patient’s statement of the problem in his or her own words, (e.g., “My chest hurts”). If the patient is unresponsive write Patient “unresponsive”

Question 27

Question 27:
Depending on the situation, the engine officer may have several options available for stretching hoseline. In the event that multiple methods are available, the following is the priority order of methods for stretching hoselines _____________.
A: Interior stairs, Fire escape, Rope, Portable ladder, Aerial ladder

B: Interior stairs, Rope, Fire escape, Aerial ladder, Portable ladder

C: Interior stairs, Fire escape, Rope, Aerial ladder, Portable ladder

D: Interior stairs, Rope, Fire escape, Portable ladder, Aerial ladder

Answer 27

D
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 5.7.1

Question 28

What is the MAXIMUM Transportation Index (TI) you can expect 1 meter away from a “Yellow II” label?
A: 50 mR/hr

B: 1 mR/hr

C: 10 mR/hr

D: 0 mR/hr

Answer 28

B
Explanation:
White I - 0.5 mR/hr on surface; N/A TI
Yellow II - 50 mR/hr on surface; 1 mR/hr TI
Yellow III - 200 mR/hr on surface; 10 mR/hr TI
ERP Add 4 p33

Question 29

The Personal Harness and Personal Safety System (PSS) is provided to every FF below the rank of DC to enable a FF to remove themselves from an untenable position above grade. All of the following concerning the PSS system are correct except?
A: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted

B: If conditions permit, tying off to a substantial object is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system

C: Select a suitable substantial object such as at least one wall stud

D: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified

Answer 29

C
Explanation:
Evolution 23 page 1
Select a suitable substantial object, e.g., steam riser, radiator, TWO wall studs, door frame, etc

Question 30

Your unit responds to a call for a Li-ion-ESS container with smoke showing on arrival. Which action is in accordance with Department procedures for this incident?
A: Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the FDC or inside the electrical room if the ESS is supplying a building.

B: The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, but not charge the water extinguishing system.

C: Do not exhaust the container. Most containers do not have an exhaust system place.

D: Transmit a 10-80 no code radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.

Answer 30

A
Explanation:
The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, AND CHARGE the water extinguishing system.
EXHAUST the container using the exhaust override switch at the FDC. CABINETS may not have exhaust systems.
Transmit a 10-80 CODE 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.
Note: Also…. Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use narrow fog or straight stream application and maximum reach of streams if possible.
HM 19 5

Question 31

The information that’s written in the left quadrant of the Search Assessment Marking System can be found in which choice?
A: Company

B: Time and Date

C: Personal Hazards

D: Number of live and/or expired victims

Answer 31

A
Explanation:
Collapse Operations add 2 sec 4
A- Left
B- Top
C- Right
D- Bottom

Question 32

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding “Ventilation for Extinguishment?”
A: Ventilation for Extinguishment is the controlled and coordinated ventilation tactic which facilitates the Engine Company’s extinguishment of the fire. This tactic must coincide with the application of water on the seat of the fire.

B: This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the Engine Company is extinguishing the fire. The member on the exterior may be in position prior to hoseline placement and must coordinate their actions to prevent premature ventilation.

C: Once in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the Engine Company Officer.

D: To properly coordinate Ventilation for Extinguishment between the interior and exterior operating forces, all members must monitor handie-talkie transmissions to ensure proper communications prior to performing ventilation.

Answer 32

C
Explanation:
Once in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER.
Vent 11.1-11.3

Question 33

A “Taxpayer” is improperly defined in which choice below?
A: The term “Taxpayer” is not defined or recognized in the building code; the term originally referred to the practice of real estate investors who, while holding land for speculation, resorted to minimal investment in construction to produce income to offset the cost of taxes. These structures were usually of cheap and flimsy construction with little or no fire retarding features.

B: A taxpayer building is commonly taken to mean a business structure one or two stories in height of Class 3 construction (exterior firewalls with wooden interior structural members).

C: Taxpayer areas vary from 20’ x 50’ to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being approximately 100’ x 100’. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of greater heights on three sides.

D: Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with reliant, fire resistive partitions and multiple fire stops in the cocklofts.

Answer 33

D
Explanation:
Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with WEAK, NON-FIRE RESISTIVE PARTITIONS and NO FIRE STOPS in the cocklofts.
Taxpayer 2.1, 2.2

Question 34

The basket of the tower ladder can be positioned _______ above the street level and the tower ladder stream can be directed into the store or stores. This allows a heavy stream to be moved into position quickly which can be readily moved from store to store.
A: three to four feet

B: two to three feet

C: a foot or two

D: preferably less than a foot

Answer 34

C
Explanation:
Taxpayer 8.1.20

Question 35

On the MV-104 form, if more than ____ drivers, vehicles, bicyclists, pedestrians or other
pedestrians are involved in an accident, you must use additional report forms.
A: 2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 6

Answer 35

A
Explanation:
SB 56 Add 7 2.10

Question 36

During a seemingly routine operation, things can become quite complex when it’s been determined a hazardous material is involved. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: If during the operation it is determined that a hazardous material is present, a hazard assessment must be made to determine if a release of the hazardous material has occurred. An attempt to identify the material and its hazards should become a top priority.

B: If it is determined that the material has been released and members do not have the proper PPE, units must withdraw from the area. A defensive posture should begin with the transmission of a 10-80 signal with the appropriate code and hazard and risk assessments should continue until Haz-Mat resources arrive to begin offensive operations in the appropriate level of PPE.

C: Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should never be attempted.

D: When the probability is high that a victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or a potential explosion may also make the risk unacceptable.

Answer 36

C
Explanation:
Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should be CAREFULLY EVALUATED before being attempted.
ERP 10.4, 10.5, 10.7.2, 10.7.3

Question 37

While operating at a train derailment, the IC orders your unit to perform a hazard assessment for hazardous materials. You would be correct to look for which type of shipping papers?

A: The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the conductor.

B: The “waybill” carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.

C: The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the master.

D: The “waybill” carried by the operator.

Answer 37

B
Explanation:
HM 2 4.4

Question 38

At a fire in a high rise office building, the first arriving officer shall establish the ICP. In the event that he or she leaves the ICP before the arrival of a Chief Officer, he or she shall designate a member to staff the ICP, preferably?
A: Chauffeur of the first arriving Ladder Company.

B: Chauffeur of the first arriving Engine Company.

C: OV FF of the first arriving Ladder Company.

D: Roof FF of the first arriving Ladder Company.

Answer 38

A
Explanation:
This member shall note the units entering and leaving the lobby and their destination.
HROB 6.3.4 A

Question 39

Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding communications between Fire and EMS?
A: When a CFR unit arrives at a CFR response and an EMS unit is on-scene, the Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 200 to EMS”).

B: If the CFR unit is on-scene first, EMS will initiate contact with the CFR unit (e.g. “EMS 15 Adam to Engine 200”).

C: When Fire units are unable to contact EMS via HT Channel 1, information may be relayed through the FD dispatcher to the EMS unit assigned.

D: A fire is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to Ch 10 and respond on that channel

Answer 39

D
Explanation:
A fire is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to EMS-CW1 and respond on that channel
Comm 14 Add 1 2.1-2.6

Question 40

The newly issued Motorola HTs have the ability to recall and view the last ______ transmissions.
A: 10

B: 15

C: 20

D: 25

Answer 40

B
Explanation:
Comm 11 3.5.3