FT 8/31

Question 1

Filtered air respirators (APR’s) may be used in which one of the following non-fire related atmospheres?
Select one:
a. Asbestos incident 
b. Confined Space
c. Carbon monoxide
d. IDLH atmosphere

Answer 1

A
(TB SCBA—Add 2—3, 4)
The correct answer is: Asbestos incident

Question 2

02. Filtered air respirators (APR’s) should NOT be used in which one of the following atmospheres, even with continuous air monitoring?
Select one:
a. 23% oxygen level
b. Biological incident
c. Radiological fire 
d. 20% oxygen level

Answer 2

C
(TB SCBA—Add 2—3, 4)
The correct answer is: Radiological fire

Question 3

Scott 40mm adaptors and canisters shall be normally carried where?
Select one:
a. Member’s Bunker Gear
b. Housewatch area
c. Infection Control Compartment on the apparatus
d. Crew cab of the apparatus

Answer 3

C
(TB SCBA—Add 2—8.5)
The correct answer is: Infection Control Compartment on the apparatus

Question 4

Which point concerning carbon monoxide is inaccurate?
Select one:
a. Smoldering fires and fires partially extinguished produce large quantities of CO
b. Heavy concentrations of CO may be present when there is no smoke or only a light haze
c. CO is colorless, odorless, and tasteless
d. Exposure to 1.3% of CO will cause unconsciousness in a few minutes

Answer 4

D
(TB—SCBA—Add 3) (Few seconds)
The correct answer is: Exposure to 1.3% of CO will cause unconsciousness in a few minutes

Question 5

Which one of the following gasses has a noticeable almond odor?
Select one:
a. Phosgene
b. Hydrogen Cyanide 
c. Acrolein
d. Hydrogen Chloride

Answer 5

B
(TB SCBA—Add 3—Pg 2-3)
The correct answer is: Hydrogen Cyanide

Question 6

When cleaning and disinfecting the SCBA Regulator, it would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Ensure the inside of the regulator is thoroughly rinsed
b. Spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70% Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening
c. Direct the alcohol and water spray into the spray bar ports
d. Allow 10 minutes of contact time to disinfect the regulator prior to rinsing

Answer 6

C
(TB SCBA—Add 5—1.5, 1.6) (DO NOT direct the alcohol and water spray into the spray bar ports)
The correct answer is: Direct the alcohol and water spray into the spray bar ports

Question 7

An officer discussing the Pak-Tracker was incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. A member of the FAST Unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker near the FAST Unit’s assigned position
b. The Pak-Tracker does not possess the ability to be updated when a spare mask is put in service
c. The maximum range from the SCBA transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is 900 feet line of sight
d. The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres

Answer 7

D
(TB—SCBA—2.1, 3.1) (is NOT suitable)
The correct answer is: The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres

Question 8

When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, who will attempt to contact the member to determine if the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation?
Select one:
a. The member of the FAST Unit monitoring the Pak-Tracker
b. The EFAS FF
c. The Officer from the FAST Unit
d. The Incident Commander

Answer 8

C
(TB SCBA Add 8—4.3)
The correct answer is: The Officer from the FAST Unit

Question 9

To search with a Pak-Tracker, the hand held receiver should be held?
Select one:
a. Chest high, with the front of the unit pointed away the target
b. Waist high, with the top of the unit pointed away the target
c. Waist high, with the top of the unit pointed towards the target
d. Chest high, with the front of the unit pointed towards the target

Answer 9

C
(TB SCBA Add 8—7.6)
The correct answer is: Waist high, with the top of the unit pointed towards the target

Question 10

Which point regarding the use of the Pak-Tracker in the search mode is correctly stated?
Select one:
a. Always pause 5 - 6 seconds for a reading
b. Always move towards the highest relative signal strength displayed
c. When the signal strength rises above the 75% level, the row of LEDs will begin to light
d. Use the Pak-Tracker in a sweeping motion, very slowly in a vertical direction first

Answer 10

B
(TB—SCBA—Add 8—7.6, 7.7, 7.8, 7.9) (slowly in a horizontal first, 3 - 4 seconds, above the 50% level)
The correct answer is: Always move towards the highest relative signal strength displayed

Question 11

The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will usually pass through?
Select one:
a. Wood 
b. Metal
c. Brick
d. Concrete

Answer 11

A
(SCBA Add 8—7.10)
The correct answer is: Wood

Question 12

Which point concerning use of the Pak-Tracker is not stated correctly?
Select one:
a. The SCBA transmitter signal will be absorbed by the human body.
b. To locate an activated SCBA in a building from the street, point the Pak-Tracker at windows and doors to locate the maximum relative signal on the display
c. The member operating the Pak-Tracker must be at the front of the search team to prevent signal interference caused by other members being in the way.
d. The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will not usually pass through glass

Answer 12

D
(TB—SCBA—Add 8—7.10, 7.12, 7.14) (Will usually pass through glass)
The correct answer is: The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will not usually pass through glass

Question 13

You are an Officer in Ladder 99 who has just placed your unit’s Pak-Tracker out of service. In this situation, you should be aware that?
Select one:
a. Each Division has been issued a spare Pak-Tracker. You should contact the Division for a spare while awaiting replacement from MSU.
b. Each unit has been issued a spare Pak-Tracker. You should use that spare while awaiting replacement from MSU.
c. Each Borough has been issued a spare Pak-Tracker. You should contact the Borough for a spare while awaiting replacement from MSU.
d. Each Battalion has been issued a spare Pak-Tracker. You should contact the Battalion for a spare while awaiting replacement from MSU.

Answer 13

A
(TB—SCBA—Add 8—8.1)
The correct answer is: Each Division has been issued a spare Pak-Tracker. You should contact the Division for a spare while awaiting replacement from MSU.

Question 14

Technical decontamination will involve flushing contaminants with small quantities of water, perhaps with a decon solution or soap added. Which point below is incorrect when it comes Technical decon?
Select one:
a. All FDNY Engine Companies have the ability to provide Emergency Gross Decon procedures for responders and civilians.
b. To operate as a decon engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or trained acting officer, and at least three trained firefighters.
c. Decon Engine Personnel are not Haz-Mat Technicians and will not perform any mitigation or rescue.
d. The Decon Engine Officer will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.

Answer 14

D
(HM12 3.2, 4.2.1, 4.3.2, 4.3.2) The Battalion Chief will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.
The correct answer is: The Decon Engine Officer will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.

Question 15

SOC Support Ladders are equipped with a variety of meters to check whether decon was effective after a victim has showered. This process is known as?
Select one:
a. Decon Search
b. Decon Secondary
c. Technical Search
d. Decon Frisking

Answer 15

D
(HM 12 1.3).
The correct answer is: Decon Frisking

Question 16

You are a Lieutenant reviewing protocol for responses to assignments involving unknown substances when NYPD Is not on scene. Which statement below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Leave all HVAC zones on within the incident location.
b. Patients who are critical or unstable should receive emergency decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
c. Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected anthrax. Limit the number of responders in the area to decrease the risk of exposure.
d. If ambulatory, have patients walk away from the area of exposure to another room or location that is isolated from other persons.

Answer 16

A
(HM 16 2.1.2) Shut down HVAC zones within the incident location if necessary.
The correct answer is: Leave all HVAC zones on within the incident location.

Question 17

When a patient indicates that they were contaminated and they have visible powder or other substance on their skin or clothing. In this situation, you should have the patient remove their outer clothing if possible and then bag the patient’s clothing in a black plastic bag and leave the bag with a competent authority on scene.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 17

B
Bag the patient’s clothing in a clear plastic bag and leave with a competent authority on scene.
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 18

Units responding to alarms for an unconscious person or overdose where fentanyl is present or suspected should use care to avoid contact with the substance. From the choices below which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. If an overdose is strongly suspected, and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than 10/minute, administer intra- nasal Naloxone.
b. Treatment should never take place in the area of suspected exposure. Removal of the patient from the area and removal of product from the patient’s skin and clothing is paramount.
c. If after 15 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths/minute, administer a repeat dose of naloxone.
d. Members must utilize appropriate PPE to avoid dermal contact, inhalation and ingestion of the suspect substance.

Answer 18

C
(HM18 1.1, 4) If after 5 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths/minute, administer a repeat dose of naloxone
The correct answer is: If after 15 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths/minute, administer a repeat dose of naloxone.

Question 19

Which is an incorrect procedure for decontamination at a fentanyl incident?
Select one:
a. Areas of direct skin contact with any residue suspected of containing synthetic opioids should be immediately washed with copious amounts of water.
b. As soon as possible, skin surfaces must be additionally washed with soap and water. Shower immediately after a potential exposure.
c. If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be lightly wetted; sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off.
d. Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions is the preferred way to wash your hands, if available.

Answer 19

D
(HM18 5.1, 5.2) Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be avoided as they may enhance skin absorption of fentanyl analogues
The correct answer is: Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions is the preferred way to wash your hands, if available.

Question 20

The basic purpose of Energy Storage Systems (ESS) is to store energy so it can be used at a future time. When fighting a Lithium Ion ESS fire, members should be a minimum of\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ from any containers or cabinets and a minimum\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ from any container or cabinet exhaust fan openings.
Select one:
a. 75ft radius / 50 ft
b. 100 ft radius / 50 ft
c. 50 ft radius / 100 ft
d. 25ft radius / 100 ft

Answer 20

C
(HM 19 5)
The correct answer is: 50 ft radius / 100 ft

Question 21

When operating at an incident involving Energy Storage Systems where there is no fire or smoke showing and there is no rise in temperature from the container or cabinet on arrival, it would be correct to?
Select one:
a. Exhaust the container or cabinet using the exhaust override switch at the FDC.
b. Shut down the ESS
c. Transmit a 10-80 No Code
d. Stretch a precautionary handline and charge the FDC of the water extinguishing system of the container/ cabinet if available.

Answer 21

A
(HM19 5) (DO NOT charge the FDC, 10-80 Code 1, Do not shut down the ESS)
The correct answer is: Exhaust the container or cabinet using the exhaust override switch at the FDC.

Question 22

If there is fire or smoke showing from any ESS container or cabinet, members would be incorrect to think that they should?
Select one:
a. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 and turn on the ESS (ESTOP).
b. Engine Company shall connect to the FDC and charge the water extinguishing system
c. Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use wide fog application and maximum reach of streams if possible.
d. Look for a sign indicating water pressures and water flow rates at the FDC.

Answer 22

C
(Narrow fog or straight streams)
The correct answer is: Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use wide fog application and maximum reach of streams if possible.

Question 23

If the FDC is located closer than 50 feet from the nearest container or cabinet, then personnel shall only enter this area under the order of the?
Select one:
a. 1st Ladder Officer
b. Incident Commander 
c. 1st Engine Officer
d. ESS personnel

Answer 23

B
(HM19 5)
The correct answer is: Incident Commander

Question 24

Which is an incorrect point below regarding operations after fire has been extinguished at an Energy Storage Systems fire?
Select one:
a. A SME is required to be on scene within 2 hours.
b. FDNY personnel shall only enter a container if necessary, for final extinguishment.
c. No overhauling shall be performed by members at any ESS fire.
d. FDNY personnel may open container or cabinet doors after consultation with SME and only when the fire is extinguished.

Answer 24

B
(HM19 6) (FDNY personnel shall not enter any container)
The correct answer is: FDNY personnel shall only enter a container if necessary, for final extinguishment.

Question 25

At a Haz-Mat incident the innermost area of the scene is considered contaminated and it defined as the?
Select one:
a. Decontamination Zone
b. Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone
c. Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone
d. Support Zone/Cold Zone

Answer 25

C
(ERP 4.1)
The correct answer is: Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone

Question 26

During a Haz-Mat incident all decontamination activities occur in which zone?
Select one:
a. Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone
b. Support Zone/Cold Zone
c. Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone
d. Decontamination Zone

Answer 26

A
(ERP 4.3)
The correct answer is: Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone

Question 27

Which zone is considered uncontaminated?
Select one:
a. Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone
b. Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone
c. Support Zone/Cold Zone 
d. Decontamination Zone

Answer 27

C
(ERP 4.4)
The correct answer is: Support Zone/Cold Zone

Question 28

The Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone is identified by?
Select one:
a. Yellow Tape 
b. Yellow Rope
c. Red Tape
d. Red Tent

Answer 28

A
(ERP 4.3)
The correct answer is: Yellow Tape

Question 29

Bunker gear is classified as?
Select one:
a. Level D—CPC
b. Level C—CPC
c. Level B—CPC
d. Structural firefighter protective clothing Is not classified as chemical protective clothing.

Answer 29

D
(ERP 5.6)
The correct answer is: Structural firefighter protective clothing Is not classified as chemical protective clothing.

Question 30

The Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone is identified by?
Select one:
a. Red Rope 
b. Yellow Rope
c. Red Tape
d. Yellow Tape

Answer 30

C
(ERP 4.2)
The correct answer is: Red Tape

Question 31

Each designated riding position on fire apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC. The IC would be incorrect to authorize use of APR’s because?
Select one:
a. The oxygen level is between 5% and 15%.
b. The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant.
c. The air contaminant has been identified and monitoring is on-going.
d. The concentration of the material has been measured.

Answer 31

A
(ERP 7.3) (The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%)
The correct answer is: The oxygen level is between 5% and 15%.

Question 32

The primary objective of a CPC ladder company is to?
Select one:
a. Conduct contamination monitoring of victims after gross or technical decontamination.
b. Perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or exclusion zone.
c. Conduct air monitoring to identify safe zones.
d. Conduct mitigation of hazardous material spills

Answer 32

B
(ERP 9.9.1)
The correct answer is: Perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or exclusion zone.

Question 33

To ensure that the In-Rig EBF-4 application continues to work properly, and to ensure that all Officers are familiar with it, the In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet.
Select one:
a. Week at MUD
b. Saturday on the 9x6 tour
c. Sunday on the 9x6 tour 
d. Monday on the 9x6 tour

Answer 33

C
(AUC 346 6.6)
The correct answer is: Sunday on the 9x6 tour

Question 34

Which one of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the Electronic Riding List (EBF-4)?
Select one:
a. Members awaiting relief shall be included on the “Preliminary” EBF-4 pending the arrival of details.
b. A “Preliminary” EBF-4 should be submitted when a unit is awaiting further staffing for the tour.
c. Members working in another unit (e.g., mutual, detail, RSOT, MSOT) shall be placed on the EBF-4 of both the unit working in and their normally assigned unit.
d. The EBF-4 should be completed immediately after the start of the tour.

Answer 34

C
(AUC 346 2.1, 2.3.1) Members shall only be placed on the EBF-4 of the unit they are working in that tour.
The correct answer is: Members working in another unit (e.g., mutual, detail, RSOT, MSOT) shall be placed on the EBF-4 of both the unit working in and their normally assigned unit.

Question 35

In regards to the EBF-4, any time a unit or Battalion is displayed in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, that unit can be clicked on to obtain more details.
Select one:
a. Orange
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue

Answer 35

D
(AUC 346 3.2)
The correct answer is: Blue

Question 36

The EBF-4 identifies probationary firefighters by a?
Select one:
a. (PR) suffix after their name
b. (PR) prefix before their name 
c. (PROB) suffix after their name
d. (PROB) prefix before their name

Answer 36

B
(AUC 346 2.10)
The correct answer is: (PR) prefix before their name

Question 37

A unit assigned to respond with Positive Pressure Fans to an incident shall be designated the Ventilation Support Group. The officer shall be designated as the?
Select one:
a. Vent Group Officer
b. Vent Group Supervisor
c. Vent Group Leader 
d. Vent Group Director

Answer 37

B
(AUC 349 6.1)
The correct answer is: Vent Group Supervisor

Question 38

The optimal placement of the Positive Pressure Fan is \_\_\_\_\_ feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of \_\_\_\_\_ degrees.
Select one:
a. 6 - 8/ 80
b. 4 - 6/ 60
c. 4 - 6/ 80 
d. 6 - 8/ 60

Answer 38

C
(AUC 349 7.2)
The correct answer is: 4 - 6/ 80

Question 39

Research and field experience has proved that one Positive Pressure fan can provide the proper pressure in a stairwell up to \_\_\_\_\_\_ stories depending on conditions.
Select one:
a. 10 
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12

Answer 39

A
(AUC 349 7.3)
The correct answer is: 10

Question 40

When using Positive Pressure Fans, if the fire floor is above the 10th floor or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ floors below the fire floor.
Select one:
a. 5
b. 2
c. 4 
d. 3

Answer 40

D
(AUC 349 7.3)
The correct answer is: 3

Question 41

In order to relieve an attack or evacuation stairwell of an extreme smoke condition, after Positive Pressure fan operations have begun, the Vent Roof Group shall open the stair bulkhead door (burp the bulkhead), until smoke clears, approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_ seconds.
Select one:
a. 60 
b. 90
c. 45
d. 30

Answer 41

A
(AUC 349 7.5)
The correct answer is: 60

Question 42

Gasoline powered Positive Pressure Fans will not significantly reduce CO levels that are in the range of?
Select one:
a. Over 150 ppm
b. 100-150 ppm
c. 0-60 ppm 
d. 60-100 ppm

Answer 42

C
(AUC 349 8.2)
The correct answer is: 0-60 ppm

Question 43

Positive Pressure Fans shall be started weekly at MUD and allowed to run at full RPM for how many minutes?
Select one:
a. 5 
b. 20
c. 30
d. 10

Answer 43

A
(AUC 349 11.7)
The correct answer is: 5

Question 44

On buildings with sloped roofs, Photovoltaic (PV) arrays will generally be installed on what sides?
Select one:
a. North and east
b. South and east
c. South and west 
d. North and west

Answer 44

C
(AUC 351 Page 6)
The correct answer is: South and west

Question 45

Incipient fires involving PV electrical systems can be extinguished using?
Select one:
a. AFFF extinguisher
b. Water from a hoseline
c. Dry Chemical extinguisher 
d. Foam hoseline

Answer 45

C
(AUC 351 6.6)
The correct answer is: Dry Chemical extinguisher

Question 46

“DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape is used to identify a Danger Zone at an operation. The tape is red with black lettering and is carried by whom?
Select one:
a. Field Communications Unit and all Chief Officer vehicles
b. All FDNY units
c. All engines, ladders, squads, and rescue companies
d. Battalion and Division vehicles

Answer 46

D
(AUC 360 1.1)
The correct answer is: Battalion and Division vehicles

Question 47

Areas that have been designated as a “Danger Zone” should not be entered except to save life or if authorized by the IC or?
Select one:
a. Sector Chief 
b. SOC officer working in the area
c. Safety Chief
d. Operations Chief

Answer 47

A
(AUC 360 2.3)
The correct answer is: Sector Chief

Question 48

When discussing Exterior Insulation Finish Systems (EIFS), the component of primary concern during firefighting operations is?
Select one:
a. The outmost finish-coat layer
b. The innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI)
c. The middle reinforcing fiberglass mesh

Answer 48

B
(AUC 362 1.3)
The correct answer is: The innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI)

Question 49

When extinguishing a fire in a building with EIFS, the cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to how many floors?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2

Answer 49

D
(AUC 362)
The correct answer is: 2

Question 50

A unit using the cockloft nozzle to extinguish fire on the exterior of a building constructed with EIFS should extend the nozzle approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet from the windowsill and operate at a slight angle toward the building.
Select one:
a. 2
b. 3 
c. 5
d. 4

Answer 50

B
(AUC 362 3.2.3)
The correct answer is: 3