FT Capts 4

Question 1

Members should be familiar with the terminology used in ERP 3 to ensure efficient operations when required. Which term is incorrectly described?
Select one:
a. The Triage Transfer Point (TTP) is a designated location where medical triage takes place and patients are transferred to Orange, Yellow or Green Treatment Areas. Red-tag patients shall be immediately moved from the TTP to the Transportation Sector.
b. The Patient Removal Corridor is the location in which patients are removed from the scene via ambulances.
c. The Point of Impact (POI) is the immediate area around where the detonation occurred.
d. The Rescue Corridor is the geographical location in which patients are transferred from the Point of Impact (POI) to the Triage Transfer Point.

Answer 1

B
(Glossary) The Patient Removal Corridor is the geographical location in which patients are transferred from either the Triage Transfer Point (Red-tag only) or the Treatment Area to the Transportation Sector.
The correct answer is: The Patient Removal Corridor is the location in which patients are removed from the scene via ambulances.

Question 2

While discussing the proper procedures to take when members find firearms, ammunition and/or possible incendiary devices, Captain Green made several statements. Which one was correct?
Select one:
a. Members may only handle or move a firearm if they are former Police Officers or Fire Marshals.
b. Evidence may be handled by members if law enforcement personnel are delayed, as long as proper chain of custody procedures are followed.
c. Prompt notification shall be given to the IC, and the NYPD and Bureau of Fire Investigation shall be notified.
d. The IC may assign members to move evidence to secure it pending the arrival of law enforcement personnel.

Answer 2

C
(Sec. 3.1) A – Members shall not attempt to handle or move ANY firearm, ammunition or incendiary device. C – When consistent with safety, the IC shall assign members to SAFEGUARD evidence from a safe distance until the arrival of the NYPD or BFI. D – Evidence should only be handled by the NYPD or BFI. – mention Arson Bulletin.
The correct answer is: Prompt notification shall be given to the IC, and the NYPD and Bureau of Fire Investigation shall be notified.

Question 3

Capt. Jones was correct to order members of L-100 to take which action at a Suspicious Improvised Explosive Device (IED) when NYPD was not on scene?
Select one:
a. Enter nearby structures and buildings to search for additional explosive devices.
b. Establish a perimeter and evacuate people from exposed areas.
c. Establish the Incident Command Post, and if possible, a Staging Area, in line of sight of the device in order to maintain situational awareness.
d. Remind members that they shall not use HTs and cell phones within 300’ of the suspected device.

Answer 3

B
(Sec. 4.1.1) A – HT and Cell Phones should not be used within 150 feet of a suspected device. Apparatus, Post, and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 feet of a suspected device. C – Establish the ICP, and if possible, a Staging Area, OUT OF THE LINE OF SIGHT of the device and away from any secondary threats. D – Members SHALL NOT enter a structure or building to search for explosive devices.
The correct answer is: Establish a perimeter and evacuate people from exposed areas.

Question 4

Prior to the arrival of the assigned BC, Capt. Brennan is the IC at a suspicious IED with NYPD on scene. Choose the incorrect action taken by Capt. Brennan.
Select one:
a. He ordered members to evacuate persons from danger areas and stretch precautionary lines.
b. He consulted with the NYPD IC and ascertained if the device was still deemed “suspicious” or had been “confirmed”.
c. He informed members that in compliance with CIMS protocols, this incident was a “Unified Command” incident and members would operate under the command of the NYPD IC.
d. He ordered members to use ladders and force entry to gain access to non-involved occupancies.

Answer 4

C
(Sec. 4.1.2, AUC 276 Sec. 5.1) A “Suspicious Package” is NYPD Single Command, however Fire Department Personnel are to be under the complete control and jurisdiction of the FDNY IC at all times.
The correct answer is: He informed members that in compliance with CIMS protocols, this incident was a “Unified Command” incident and members would operate under the command of the NYPD IC.

Question 5

Using the information from Question #4, Capt. Brennan, acting as the IC, would be incorrect to take which action after the NYPD Bomb Squad confirmed the presence of an IED?
Select one:
a. Inform members that if an explosion occurs, stand up to avoid shrapnel that commonly is spread close to ground level.
b. Within the limits of safety, make contact with personnel from potentially affected buildings. Control valve locations for sprinklers, standpipes and utilities should be obtained.
c. Notify BFI.
d. Request resources to develop and support the Rescue Corridor and Patient Removal Corridor.

Answer 5

A
(Sec. 4.1.3) If an explosion occurs, stay down to minimize the effects of the NEGATIVE shock wave. Shock waves move around buildings.
The correct answer is: Inform members that if an explosion occurs, stand up to avoid shrapnel that commonly is spread close to ground level.

Question 6

At incidents involving detonated explosive devices, first arriving units shall take several actions to ensure their safety. Which is not one of them?
Select one:
a. Ensure that responding apparatus are not positioned in the immediate area of the Point of Impact.
b. Do not don SCBA facepieces unless there are indications of respiratory danger based on victim reaction (SLUDGEM) or meter readings.
c. Respond to the Point of Impact and Triage Transfer Point with Meters, Skeds, Tourniquets, Triage tags, and CFR equipment.
d. Conduct a thorough search of the Staging Area for secondary devices.

Answer 6

D
(Sec. 5.1.3) Request the NYPD to conduct all SEARCHES. FDNY members assigned to a Staging Area must conduct a thorough SURVEY of the area to ensure that all threats and suspicious objects are identified and mitigated. NOTE: Members of the FDNY are not trained to conduct a SEARCH for explosive devices. Members are to SURVEY (visual observation) the Staging Area but shall not conduct a SEARCH for devices.
The correct answer is: Conduct a thorough search of the Staging Area for secondary devices.

Question 7

When operating at the Point of Impact (POI) after a detonation, members shall conduct a rapid patient assessment in order to triage and remove as many critical victims as possible to the Triage Transfer Points. Which of the following choices is correct concerning this assessment?
Select one:
a. Open the victim’s airway by repositioning their head once to check for respirations.
b. Control all hemorrhaging of victims. Do not apply tourniquets due to the time constraints present.
c. If there are indications that the victim may be wearing a person-borne IED, immediately move onto the next victim after notifying all members on scene.
d. If the victim is in cardiac arrest, immediately begin CPR while simultaneously packaging the victim for removal.

Answer 7

A
(Sec. 5.2.3, 5.2.5, 5.3) B – Controlling MASSIVE hemorrhaging of a viable victim to save life. This may entail the use of a tourniquet. C – Immediately notify the IC, law enforcement and all first responders in the area, and EVACUATE FORTHWITH. This will ensure that a threat is not brought to a Triage Transfer Point. D – Made up- we would not get involved in advanced medical care because we want to limit operating time in the POI due to secondary device detonation while triaging and removing as many critical victims as possible to the Triage Transfer Point. The only assessment performed would be to Do A and Corrected Choice B.
The correct answer is: Open the victim’s airway by repositioning their head once to check for respirations.

Question 8

After victims are assessed at the Point of Impact (POI), all of the following are correct actions to take with the exception of which one?
Select one:
a. Non-life threatened patients shall be Yellow-tagged at the Triage Transfer Point and removed to a separate Yellow Treatment Area.
b. Critical patients shall be Red-tagged at the Triage Transfer Point and removed to a separate Red Treatment Area.
c. Urgent patients shall be Orange-tagged at the Triage Transfer Point and removed to a separate Orange Treatment Area.
d. Minor-injured, ambulatory patients (Green-tagged) shall be directed from the Point of Impact to the Green Treatment Area, remote from the Triage Transfer Point.

Answer 8

B
(Sec. 5.3) Critical patients shall be Red-tagged and IMMEDIATELY MOVED TO THE TRANSPORTATION SECTOR to be brought to a hospital for definitive care. Note: Red Treatment Areas will only be established by the Medical Group if transportation is delayed. Note Choice D – Green Tag patients do not go to the Triage Transfer Point. Note: All injured patients shall be transported from the incident as soon as possible unless they refuse medical attention.
The correct answer is: Critical patients shall be Red-tagged at the Triage Transfer Point and removed to a separate Red Treatment Area.

Question 9

Engine 100 arrived first to a large vehicle borne explosion. After determining that there was no Ladder Company on scene, Capt. James and Engine 100 took several actions. Which one was wrong?
Select one:
a. After completing their required duties, and determining that a Ladder Company was still not on scene, E-100 stood fast in a safe position while awaiting the arrival of a Ladder Company.
b. While members of E-100 stretched a precautionary line, Capt. James noticed there were no Ladder Companies on scene. Capt. James then entered the POI to obtain vital information that was relayed to the ECC to be transmitted over the Department radio.
c. Capt. James confirmed the location of the POI using plain language on the Department radio, specifying that an explosion had occurred.
d. After determining that there was no threat of fire, E-100 removed skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
e. E-100 stretched a precautionary 2 ½” hoseline, which may be used to knock down fires threatening victims if needed.

Answer 9

A
(Sec. 5.3.1) After completing A, B, C, and D and a Ladder Company was still not on scene, the 1st Arriving Engine Company shall enter the POI to conduct a rapid assessment.
The correct answer is: After completing their required duties, and determining that a Ladder Company was still not on scene, E-100 stood fast in a safe position while awaiting the arrival of a Ladder Company.

Question 10

Which victims should be tagged in the POI?
Select one:
a. None.
b. Red Tagged patients only
c. Black tag patients only.
d. Red, Orange, and Yellow Tagged patients only

Answer 10

C
(Sec. 5.3., 5.3.4) Only deceased victims (Black-Tag) should be tagged in the POI.
The correct answer is: Black tag patients only.

Question 11

The 2nd arriving Engine Company at an explosion would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Remove meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and report directly to the POI.
b. If no Ladder Companies are on scene, determine from the 1st Engine Company if assistance is needed with victim assessment and removal from the POI.
c. Establish water supply.
d. If Ladder Companies are on scene, assist in triage or utilize skeds to assist in removal to the various Treatment Areas of to the Transportation Sector.

Answer 11

A
(Sec. 5.3.2) Triage Transfer Point. They only report to the POI if no Ladder Companies are on scene and the 1st Engine needs assistance with victim assessment and removal from the POI.
The correct answer is: Remove meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and report directly to the POI.

Question 12

Capt. Mills, the 2nd arriving Engine Officer at a suspected IED explosion, is responsible for all but which choice while maintaining control at the Triage Transfer Point?
Select one:
a. He must remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a later arriving Engine Officer.
b. Supporting EMS operations.
c. Provide Patient Tracking Information.
d. Providing information and situational awareness to the IC until relieved.

Answer 12

A
(Sec. 5.3.2) A Battalion Chief
The correct answer is: He must remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a later arriving Engine Officer.

Question 13

After making proper radio notifications at an IED explosion on a Manhattan Street, the Officer of the 1st arriving Ladder Company entered the POI to determine all of the following with the exception of which choice?
Select one:
a. Initial Location of the Triage Transfer Point.
b. Preferred routes for evacuation and removal of victims (Rescue Corridor).
c. Initial Location of the ICP.
d. Number of IEDs.

Answer 13

D
(Sec. 5.3.4) Number of VICTIMS
The correct answer is: Number of IEDs.

Question 14

Quickly removing victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point is essential in order to save lives. Which choice is incorrect concerning this operation?
Select one:
a. If there are no EMS Units at the Triage Transfer Point, then a member of the 1st Arriving Ladder Company must remain with patients at this location until relieved by EMS personnel or a CFR unit.
b. If there are no EMS Units at the Triage Transfer Point, Engine companies shall proceed with triage of critical victims.
c. Patients may be left alone temporarily at the Triage Transfer Point if there are numerous patients at the POI and insufficient personnel on scene.
d. Skeds should be used to remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point.

Answer 14

C
(Sec. 5.3.1, 5.3.4) Patients MUST NOT be left alone at ANY location.
The correct answer is: Patients may be left alone temporarily at the Triage Transfer Point if there are numerous patients at the POI and insufficient personnel on scene.

Question 15

In cases where the distance to the Triage Transfer Point is too long or numerous victims need removal to the Triage Transfer Point, several tactics can be used. Which is incorrectly described?
Select one:
a. If numerous victims need removal from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point, and the FDNY IC is not on scene, the 1st Ladder Officer can directly request assistance from the 2nd Ladder Officer or 1st Engine Company (if not engaged in fire suppression).
b. If a Patient Relay Point is established by the 1st Ladder Company, the 2nd Ladder Company shall assist the 1st Ladder Company in removing victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point.
c. If numerous victims need removal from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point, the 1st Ladder Officer must notify the IC for assistance.
d. If the distance from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point is too long, the 1st Ladder Company may establish a Patient Relay Point where they will transfer each victim to the 2nd Ladder Company.

Answer 15

B
(Sec. 5.3.4) If a PRP is established, The 1st Ladder Company will transfer each victim to the 2nd Ladder Company. The 1st Ladder Company will return to the POI with empty skeds from the 2nd Ladder Company for retrieval of more victims. If a PRP has been established by the 1st Ladder Company, then the 2nd Ladder Company will continue victim removal from the PRP to the TTP. This process will be more effective and help limit the number of members operating in the POI.
The correct answer is: If a Patient Relay Point is established by the 1st Ladder Company, the 2nd Ladder Company shall assist the 1st Ladder Company in removing victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point.

Question 16

L-100 and L-200 are the first two Ladder Companies on scene following a detonated explosive device in the subway with numerous victims. An improper procedure to follow can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. Ladder 100 must set up the CORE relay.
b. Ladder 200 must conduct reconnaissance of the POI.
c. Ladder 100 will not bring skeds and other equipment to the platform.
d. Ladder 200 must set up the CORE relay.

Answer 16

D
(Sec. 5.3.4, 5.3.5) Ladder 100 – the 1st Ladder will do this.
The correct answer is: Ladder 200 must set up the CORE relay.

Question 17

Unless otherwise directed, where should the 2nd Ladder Company report to at a detonated IED incident on a city street?
Select one:
a. The Staging Area
b. The various Treatment Areas.
c. The Triage Transfer Point
d. The POI

Answer 17

C
(Sec. 5.3.5)
The correct answer is: The Triage Transfer Point

Question 18

The greatest harm of an IED is the explosive itself. Which choice is incorrect concerning the various types of IEDs and the actions to be taken?
Select one:
a. Because Improvised Incendiary Devices may cause fires that flashover much quicker than normal, members in full PPE may remove these devices from exposed positions with a shovel.
b. The profile of the contemporary suicide bomber is that there is no profile.
c. A possible indicator of a terrorist attack is a handler that appears out of place or looks nervous or fidgety.
d. When extinguishing activated incendiary devices, precautionary hoselines shall be stretched and members staged in a safe area out of line-of-sight of the device.

Answer 18

A
(Sec. 7.1.4) Because there is no reliable way to determine the difference between an IID and IED, members SHALL NOT handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary. The NYPD Bomb Squad shall be requested if a device is discovered.
The correct answer is: Because Improvised Incendiary Devices may cause fires that flashover much quicker than normal, members in full PPE may remove these devices from exposed positions with a shovel.

Question 19

Ladder 333, while operating at a water leak in Queens, suspects that the dwelling that they have entered is being used to manufacture drugs. Which choice is incorrect concerning this incident?
Select one:
a. L-333 consulted with Haz Mat and NYPD to verify that their clothing and equipment may be contaminated and/or evidence.
b. Members attempted to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.
c. The Officer notified the BC, DC, NYPD, BFI, and requested Haz Mat to respond.
d. Members shall immediately stop, and retrace their steps while backing out of the area, ensuring that they do not touch anything.

Answer 19

B
(Sec. 8.7.5) Members SHALL NOT attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving. Note: – In choice C it says NYPD (including the Bomb Squad when necessary).
The correct answer is: Members attempted to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.

Question 20

All members should be familiar with a “Challenge Situation” which may occur when an NYPD Officer confronts FDNY members to verify their identity during an active shooter incident. Which choice in correct concerning this situation?
Select one:
a. Turn slowly to face the NYPD Officer in order to improve communications.
b. Do not stop performing operations while engaged in a “Challenge Situation”.
c. Remain motionless (no sudden movements).
d. ID yourself as a member of the FDNY by stating “E-100 ECC”.

Answer 20

C
(ERP 3A Sec. 2.2) Remain MOTIONLESS (no sudden movements), Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by rank and name, and await command of law enforcement to resume current operations.
The correct answer is: Remain motionless (no sudden movements).

Question 21

While responding to a run for a possible fire in a Private Dwelling, E-100 is flagged down by a civilian who states that there is an armed individual in the Private Dwelling threatening people and attempting to start fires. NYPD is not on scene when E-100 arrives. Which action taken was wrong?
Select one:
a. The Officer immediately requested NYPD response.
b. The Officer selected a staging area behind a thick, concrete wall and notified the Dispatcher of the location.
c. The Officer instructed the ECC approach the reported address slowly, and drove past the building to perform reconnaissance.
d. The Officer notified the Dispatcher of the reported armed individual, and included that they received this information from a civilian while responding.

Answer 21

C
(ERP 3A Sec. 3.1)
The correct answer is: The Officer instructed the ECC approach the reported address slowly, and drove past the building to perform reconnaissance.

Question 22

When the potential for secondary threats is suspected, sensitive information should be transmitted via all of the following with the exception of which choice?
Select one:
a. The MDT
b. HT Channels 11 or 12
c. Cell phone
d. Encrypted Dispatch Channels CITYWIDE FIRE 3 or CITYWIDE FIRE 4

Answer 22

B
(ERP 3A Sec. 3.1.3, Comm. Manual Ch. 11 Add. 3 Sec. 2, 3) Encrypted Dispatch Channels HT-9 TAC/Secure (Primary) and HT-10 CMD SEC (Command). These are secure frequencies.
The correct answer is: HT Channels 11 or 12

Question 23

Captain James of L-100 took the following actions upon arriving as the 1st FDNY Unit at a scene with ongoing police activity due to aggressive deadly behavior. Which one was incorrect?
Select one:
a. After conferring with NYPD, he provided the information that was gathered from NYPD with on scene and incoming units via HT and the Dispatcher.
b. He made contact with NYPD, making sure to not enter a potential Warm or Hot Zone.
c. He alerted incoming units of the situation via the Dispatcher and HT.
d. He instructed the 1st arriving EMS Unit to take a position on the opposite side of the incident from L-100 to increase situational awareness.

Answer 23

D
(ERP 3A Sec. 5.1, 6.1) First fire and medical units on scene must co-locate to establish a FDNY Command Post.
The correct answer is: He instructed the 1st arriving EMS Unit to take a position on the opposite side of the incident from L-100 to increase situational awareness.

Question 24

A unit that has been assigned to an active shooter incident as a part of a Division Task Force will be designated by which suffix?
Select one:
a. D
b. A
c. T
d. K

Answer 24

D
(ERP 3A Sec. 7.2.1)
The correct answer is: K

Question 25

At an active shooter incident, which choice is correct concerning FDNY operations in the Cold, Warm and Hot Zones?
Select one:
a. FDNY members shall not operate in any known Hot Zone.
b. Units shall use time, distance and shielding to increase safety.
c. FDNY members shall only operate inside a Hot Zone when requested by NYPD.
d. FDNY Units shall stage in the Cold or Warm Zones, behind concealment.

Answer 25

A
(ERP 3A Sec. 7.3, 7.4, 7.5)
The correct answer is: FDNY members shall not operate in any known Hot Zone.

Question 26

A Captain who is part of a Rescue Task Force (RTF) should know which choice is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The FDNY Officer shall be in overall command of the RTF.
b. FDNY shall maintain unit integrity if possible.
c. The RTF may be limited to 7 FDNY members and NYPD protection.
d. The optimal team of a RTF consists of 1 Fire Officer, 1 EMS Officer, 2 EMTs, 3 FFs, and 4 NYPD SRG Officers.

Answer 26

A
(ERP 3A Sec. 11.2.2, 1.2.3, 11.2.3, 11.2.4)
The correct answer is: The FDNY Officer shall be in overall command of the RTF.

Question 27

RTF members would not bring which choice into the Warm Zone?
Select one:
a. Oxygen and defibrillators
b. Tourniquets and Triage Tags
c. Hemostatic agents and Occlusive dressings.
d. Skeds, Ballistic vests and helmets.

Answer 27

A
(ERP 3A Sec. 11.4.1, 11.4.2)
The correct answer is: Oxygen and defibrillators

Question 28

A Task Force would be operating correctly in which choice when operating in a Warm Zone?
Select one:
a. Medical treatment includes CPR and defibrillation of patients.
b. If a RTF member suffers any incapacitating injury in the Warm Zone, the RTF will continue operations and evacuate the injured member upon completing their tasks.
c. The RTF Leader, as the superior Officer, will always prioritize the medical actions of the RTF.
d. The task force shall enter and move in a Rolling “T” formation with the FDNY RTF Leader at the front of the formation.
e. The RTF Leader shall provide updates to the RTF Supervisor stationed at the Tactical Operations Command (TOC) that includes the number, location and status of patients, especially Red Tags.

Answer 28

E
(ERP 3A Sec. 11.6.1, 11.6.2, 11.7.2, 11.8.2)
The correct answer is: The RTF Leader shall provide updates to the RTF Supervisor stationed at the Tactical Operations Command (TOC) that includes the number, location and status of patients, especially Red Tags.

Question 29

Members of a RTF would be expected to be operating on all but which HT channel when operating in a Warm Zone?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 13
d. 2

Answer 29

D
(ERP 3A Sec. 11.5.2, Appendix A Sec. 3.1)
The correct answer is: 2

Question 30

While operating at a 3rd alarm, the IC instructs Capt. Jackson to identify a possible collapse zone due to an unstable cornice using “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape. Which one of Capt. Jackson’s thoughts is correct?
Select one:
a. The tape is carried on all FDNY apparatus.
b. The danger zone should not be entered, except when authorized by the Chief of Safety.
c. The danger zone should not be entered except to save life or authorized by the IC or Sector Chief.
d. The tape is yellow with red lettering.

Answer 30

C
(AUC 360 Sec. 1.1, 2.3)
The correct answer is: The danger zone should not be entered except to save life or authorized by the IC or Sector Chief.

Question 31

While performing salvage operations at an all hands fire, a member of Ladder 100 finds a cat in the fire apartment. The lone occupant of the apartment has been transported to the hospital, and L-100 is the only unit left at the scene. Which thought would be correct?
Select one:
a. The Officer shall notify the owner through NYCEM via the Borough Dispatcher.
b. Pet remains should not be covered prior to arrival of the Fire Marshals.
c. The Officer should contact the Animal Care Center (ACC) through the Borough Dispatcher if unable to reunite the cat with the owner.
d. The cat may not be secured with a neighbor or building rep. It must be reunited with the owner.

Answer 31

C
(AUC 361 Sec. 2.1, 2.2)
The correct answer is: The Officer should contact the Animal Care Center (ACC) through the Borough Dispatcher if unable to reunite the cat with the owner.

Question 32

EIFS is a lightweight, synthetic cladding system found on building exteriors. Which choice concerning these systems is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI).
b. At structural fires, the presence of EIFS decreases the potential for flashover.
c. When a fire penetrates the finish coat layer and exposes the insulating material, it will result in a flowing, flammable liquid fire.
d. EIFS fires often extend via a poorly maintained or damaged finish-coat layer.
e. EIFS consists of three layers: the innermost, insulation layer composed of foam plastic insulation (FPI); the middle, reinforcing fiberglass mesh; and the outermost, finish-coat layer.

Answer 32

B
(AUC 362 Sec 1.2, 1.3, 1.5, 1.7, 1.8) The energy-efficient, insulating properties of EIFS are designed to prevent heat from escaping the building. These properties can adversely affect firefighting operations by INCREASING the potential for flashover.
The correct answer is: At structural fires, the presence of EIFS decreases the potential for flashover.

Question 33

E-100, E-200, E-300, TL-400 and L-500 responded to a reported fire in a 3 story PD. On arrival, E-100 encountered fire venting from a 1st floor window and igniting the EIFS exterior. Which action taken was incorrect?
Select one:
a. Upon transmitting signal 10-75, E-100 special called an additional Engine and Tower Ladder.
b. TL-400 and L-500 used their Thermal Imaging Cameras on both the interior and exterior of the building to determine the extent of fire spread.
c. E-100 considered using the deck gun for a rapid attack and knockdown.
d. After confirming that a hoseline was not required to back up E-100, E-300 stretched a 2 ½” hand line for exterior extinguishment.

Answer 33

A
(AUC 362 Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.8) Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder shall be a TL if one is not assigned on the 1st alarm assignment.
The correct answer is: Upon transmitting signal 10-75, E-100 special called an additional Engine and Tower Ladder.

Question 34

Choose the correct statement concerning EIFS and the CIDS program.
Select one:
a. EIFS shall be included in CIDS only if its presence is not apparent.
b. All EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS.
c. The location of EIFS on a building shall only be included in CIDS if it is present on all sides of the building.
d. EIFS shall be entered into CIDS only if it is present in the rear of the building.

Answer 34

B
(AUC 362 Sec. 2.7) All EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS. The specific location of the EIFS should be outlined in the CIDS entry.
The correct answer is: All EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS.

Question 35

Which choice is incorrect concerning the reach of a ground based stream from the tip of the nozzle when extinguishing an EIFS fire from the exterior?
Select one:
a. 1 ¾” Handline with 15/16” tip – 70 feet.
b. Tower Ladder Monitor – 100 feet.
c. 2 ½” Handline with 1 1/8” tip – 40 feet.
d. 2 ½” Handline with 15/16” tip – 75 feet.

Answer 35

B
(AUC 362 Sec. 3.1) 135 feet.
The correct answer is: Tower Ladder Monitor – 100 feet.

Question 36

At a fire in a High Rise Fireproof MD, units have heavy fire on the EIFS exterior cladding on floors 30 to 31. The IC orders E-2 to use the cockloft nozzle to extinguish the exterior fire. Which choice concerning this operation should be corrected?
Select one:
a. They should use a 2 ½” handline.
b. After knocking down the fire on the 30th floor from the floor below, the cockloft nozzle must be repositioned to the 30th floor to extinguish fire on the 31st floor.
c. The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the window sill and operated at a slight angle toward the building.
d. One tip of the cockloft nozzle should be capped with a 1 ½” shut off.

Answer 36

B
(AUC 362 Sec. 3.2, 3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.3) The cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to TWO FLOORS.
The correct answer is: After knocking down the fire on the 30th floor from the floor below, the cockloft nozzle must be repositioned to the 30th floor to extinguish fire on the 31st floor.

Question 37

When an Officer notices an indicator of terrorist activity that is an imminent threat, they would be incorrect to take which action?
Select one:
a. Ensure member’s safety.
b. Give priority to the immediate completion of a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).
c. Notify the NYPD and Bureau of Fire Investigation forthwith.
d. Make immediate notification to the next level of command.

Answer 37

B
(AUC 363 Sec. 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4, 6.5) In these cases, a Suspicious Activity Report is SECONDARY but should be completed WHEN POSSIBLE.
The correct answer is: Give priority to the immediate completion of a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

Question 38

All members should be aware of the procedures in place when confronted with signs of terrorism and suspicious activity. Which one is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. If a member witnesses an act which by itself is criminal, such as theft indicative of terrorist activity, they should immediately notify the NYPD.
b. If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, they shall ensure member safety and life-saving measures to the public, and then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible.
c. If a member suspects an individual is engaging in terrorist activity, they should confront that individual while requesting assistance.
d. If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and request a BC to respond.

Answer 38

C
(AUC 363 Sec. 8.1, 8.2, 8.3, 8.4) Should NOT CONFRONT that individual.
The correct answer is: If a member suspects an individual is engaging in terrorist activity, they should confront that individual while requesting assistance.

Question 39

While inspecting a Bulk Oil plant during BI, the Capt. notices recent weld marks on the tanker portion of a tanker truck, and fresh paint on some portions of the vehicle. Which action taken should be corrected?
Select one:
a. The Capt. used the notes from the Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) Form to report accurate information via Diamondplate.
b. Upon return to quarters, the Capt. accessed the reporting system on Diamondplate.
c. The Capt. transmitted her suspicions of terrorist activity to the Dispatcher via the Department Radio via a “Mixer Off” message.
d. The Capt. used the Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) Form, carried on the apparatus, to capture critical information.

Answer 39

C
(AUC 363 Sec. 8.6.1, 8.6.2, 8.6.3, 8.7) Information regarding your suspicions should NOT be transmitted over the Department Radio unless there is an immediate threat to member safety.
The correct answer is: The Capt. transmitted her suspicions of terrorist activity to the Dispatcher via the Department Radio via a “Mixer Off” message.

Question 40

An incorrect action concerning Suspicious Activity Reporting can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. The reporting of suspicious activity must be based on a describable observation, behavior or action.
b. Companies will not keep the original or copies of the SAR Form in quarters.
c. The reporting Officer should send the original SAR Form through intra-departmental mail to BFI at 16 Hooper St. In addition, the Officer should call BFI.
d. Companies must make journal entries with full particulars in the company journal.

Answer 40

D
(AUC 363 Sec. 9.1) Companies must make journal entries of the incident, BUT GIVE NO PARTICULARS in order to preserve the integrity of any subsequent investigation.
The correct answer is: Companies must make journal entries with full particulars in the company journal.

Question 41

Upon checking the Unit Staffing Log, Captain Jones notes that E-100 is scheduled for Annual Education Day on December 1, when Groups 13-18 are scheduled to work. Capt. Jones notes the following entries in the Staffing Log:
FF Violet (Group 13) on Medical Leave
FF Red (Group 3) working mx for FF Green (Group 14)
FF 6th Grade Orange (Group 15) working. 
FF Purple (Group 16) working.
FF Blue (Group 17) working.
Group 18 – Open
Capt. Jones notes that FF Orange and FF Purple attended Education Day on August 15. Capt. Jones also notes that FF Blue attended Education Day on January 15. All of the other members have not attended Education Day in over 1 year.

Which members must Captain Jones notify that they are required to attend Education Day on December 1st?
Select one:
a. FF Green, FF Orange, FF Blue only
b. FF Violet, F Red, FF Orange, FF Purple and FF Blue.
c. FF Green, FF Orange only
d. FF Red, FF Orange, FF Purple, FF Blue only
e. FF Green only.

Answer 41

A
(1-2008 Sec. 3.2, 3.4, 3.5) FF Green, FF Orange, FF Blue. Look at All members: FF Violet (Gr. 13) – On ML – Doesn’t attend. Note – Reimbursement Leaves or School Attendance variances will not be granted to members without the approval of the Executive Officer of the Bureau of Training. FF Red – Does not attend – MUTUALS ON THE DAY OF EDUCATION DAY ARE PROHIBITED. FF Green – Attends – Mutuals on the day of Education Day are prohibited. FF Orange – Attends, even though FF Orange attended a periodic Education Day within 6 months of the scheduled date, FIREFIGHTERS 6TH GRADE SHALL ATTEND EDUCATION DAY WITH THEIR COMPANY WHEN SCHEDULED. FF Purple – Does not attend. Attended on August 15, which is within 6 months of December 1. Officers and FFs (OTHER THAN 6TH GRADE), who attended a periodic Education Day within 6 months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These members shall be included in the Division (Officers)/Battalion (FFs) staffing and detailed for the 9x6 tour. FF Blue – must attend. Attended more than 6 months ago, not excluded.
The correct answer is: FF Green, FF Orange, FF Blue only

Question 42

Which statement is correct concerning mutual restrictions and Education Day?
Select one:
a. Members may work the 6x9 tour prior to Education Day, but may not work the 6x9 tour following Education Day.
b. Members may not work the 6x9 tour prior to Education Day, but may work the 6x9 tour following Education Day.
c. Members shall not be permitted to work the 6x9 tour prior to, or the 6x9 tour following Education Day.
d. Mutuals on the day of Education Day are prohibited, unless they have been approved more than 5 days in advance by the Company Commander.

Answer 42

C
(1-2008 Sec. 3.1, 3.2) This corrects A and C. B - Mutuals on the day of Education Day are prohibited.
The correct answer is: Members shall not be permitted to work the 6x9 tour prior to, or the 6x9 tour following Education Day.

Question 43

While preparing the staffing for E-232, Capt. Irvin notes that the unit is scheduled for Annual Medical Examinations on Wednesday 9x6 tour. Capt. Irvin notes that the following members are scheduled to work on Wednesday 9x6 tour:
FF Pearson – Attended Annual Medical Exams in the current calendar year 8 months ago.
FF Jones – Attended Annual Medical Exams in the previous calendar year 9 months ago.
FF 6th Grade Newton – Attended Annual Medical Exams in the current calendar year 5 months ago.
FF 6th Grade Lett – Attended a 5th grade Medical Exam 1 month ago – Has not attended an Annual Medical Exam.
How many FFs should be included in the Battalion staffing and detailed for the 9x6 tour on Wednesday?

Select one:

a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4

Answer 43

B
(PA/ID 2-2008) FF 6th Grade Newton. Firefighters, including 6th grade FFs, who have attended a medical within 6 months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These FFs shall be included in the Battalion staffing and detailed for the 9x6 tour. All members, including 6th grade FFs, who have not had an annual medical during the prior 6 months, shall report to BHS when their group number is scheduled. FF Pearson – has not attended an Annual Medical in 6 months – must attend Medicals. Calendar year is irrelevant. FF Jones – has not attended an Annual Medical in 6 months – must attend Medicals. FF Lett – has not attended an Annual Medical in 6 months – must attend Medicals. 5th Grade Medicals shall not be considered annual medicals.
The correct answer is: 1

Question 44

While studying for Captain, a member of a study group made the following statements. Which one was wrong?
Select one:
a. After promulgation of the schedule, reimbursement leaves or school attendance variances shall not be granted to members scheduled to attend except with the approval of the Executive Officer of Health Services.
b. No records of Annual Medical Exams are required to be kept by units.
c. Units shall remain in service when the independent group number is scheduled for an Annual Medical Examination.
d. Mutual exchanges for the 6x9 tour prior to and immediately after the scheduled examination will not be granted.
e. Company Commanders shall ensure that members under their command are notified of their examination date. Assigned dates shall be recorded in the company day book and posted prominently for all members to view.

Answer 44

B
(PA/ID 2-2008) COMPANY COMMANDERS shall maintain a record in the Office Record Journal of all members examined and date examined.
The correct answer is: No records of Annual Medical Exams are required to be kept by units.

Question 45

Choose the incorrect point concerning the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy.
Select one:
a. A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet.
b. A hard copy of the policy may be obtained from a Supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit.
c. Any questions or suggestions regarding the policy should be addressed to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
d. The policy is limited to instances of violence between Fire Department members.

Answer 45

D
(PA/ID 1-2011 Sec. 1.1, 1.4, 1.5)
The correct answer is: The policy is limited to instances of violence between Fire Department members.

Question 46

A member would be correct to take which action(s) in the event of a workplace violence emergency?
Select one:
a. Immediately email the Administrative Battalion.
b. Immediately notify FDOC.
c. Call the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
d. Call 911 to report the emergency, and then report the emergency to their Supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

Answer 46

D
((PA/ID 1-2011 Sec. 1.6) First report the workplace violence emergency by calling 911, and then report it to their Supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
The correct answer is: Call 911 to report the emergency, and then report the emergency to their Supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

Question 47

A member approaches Capt. Smith in the office and presents an Order of Protection that they have secured against their former spouse. Capt. Smith would be incorrect in which thought concerning the Order of Protection?
Select one:
a. Employees are encouraged to report all violations of Orders of Protection to the NYPD and BFI.
b. The member is strongly encouraged to submit the Order of Protection to the Bureau of Fire Investigation, unless the person from whom protection is sought is an FDNY employee.
c. If the employee is a victim of domestic violence, a sex offense, or stalking and is concerned that the person from whom protection is sought may attempt to contact them at their work location, they may request an accommodation from EEO.
d. An employee, who has secured an Order of Protection and is concerned that the person from whom protection has been sought may attempt to contact them at their work location, should submit a copy of the Order to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

Answer 47

B
(PA/ID 1-2011 Sec. 9.1, 9.2, 9.3, 9.4) ESPECIALLY WHERE THE PERSON FROM WHOM PROTECTION IS SOUGHT IS A FD EMPLOYEE and/or likely to seek entry to the protected employee’s work location.
The correct answer is: The member is strongly encouraged to submit the Order of Protection to the Bureau of Fire Investigation, unless the person from whom protection is sought is an FDNY employee.

Question 48

An employee would be incorrect in which choice concerning the reporting of potential workplace violence, incidents of workplace violence, or imminent danger of workplace violence?
Select one:
a. Members may not submit a Workplace Violence Report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
b. Members who have been the victim of domestic violence, a sexual offense, or stalking are strongly encouraged to report the incident(s) to EEO.
c. Matters involving imminent danger to any employee may be reported verbally to the Supervisor and shall be documented on the Workplace Violence Report.
d. When a member believes there is a potential for physical violence, or has been the victim of workplace violence, they shall submit a Workplace Violence Report to their immediate Supervisor.

Answer 48

A
(PA/ID 1-2011 Sec. 10.1.1, 10.1.2, 10.2.1, 10.3.1, 10.4.1)
The correct answer is: Members may not submit a Workplace Violence Report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

Question 49

When an Officer receives a Workplace Violence Report or a verbal report, they would be correct to?
Select one:
a. Forward the report to BITS.
b. Forward the report to the EEO office.
c. Forward the report in a sealed envelope directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator, bypassing the chain of command.
d. Forward the report via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

Answer 49

D
(PA/ID 1-2011 Sec. 11.1.1)
The correct answer is: Forward the report via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

Question 50

Hazing and Bullying are strictly prohibited in the FDNY. Which choice is wrong concerning this policy?
Select one:
a. No FDNY employee may consent to be a victim of hazing / bullying.
b. Hazing/Bullying includes committee work, cleaning bathrooms, and preparing meals.
c. Hazing/Bullying can occur between a superior and subordinate, between peers, or may involve actions by junior personnel towards those more senior in rank.
d. Hazing can be, in part or wholly, verbal or psychological in nature.

Answer 50

B
(PA/ID 1-2013 Sec. 2.1, 2.4, 2.5, 3.1)
The correct answer is: Hazing/Bullying includes committee work, cleaning bathrooms, and preparing meals.

Question 51

Capt. Saturday was incorrect in which choice when a FF informed him that he was hazed by another member?
Select one:
a. He reported the incident in writing, up the chain of command, to the Chief of Department.
b. He advised the FF who was hazed of the services available to him that are provided by BHS and CSU.
c. After determining that the incident was a crime, he immediately reported it to the District Attorney.
d. He informed the member that was hazed that they can report the incident to BITS or EEO, either anonymously or giving their name and contact information.
e. After determining that the hazing violated the Department’s EEO policy, he reported it directly to the EEO Officer.

Answer 51

C
(PA/ID 1-2013) Department of Investigation.
The correct answer is: After determining that the incident was a crime, he immediately reported it to the District Attorney.

Question 52

When a member of Ladder 345 asks Capt. Hannon who they should notify if they want to create a Ladder 345 Facebook page, what should he tell the member?
Select one:
a. Company/Unit social media accounts are prohibited as per PA/ID 2-2013.
b. Permission is not needed as long as the member performs all functions related to the Facebook page while off duty.
c. Only the Chief of Department can approve this request.
d. The member needs to submit a Website/Social Media Registration Form to the Office of Public Information.

Answer 52

D
(PA/ID 2-2013 Sec. 3.1, 4.1.2, 5.2)
The correct answer is: The member needs to submit a Website/Social Media Registration Form to the Office of Public Information.

Question 53

Which statement is incorrect concerning the FDNY Social Media Policy?
Select one:
a. FDNY personnel are prohibited from posting photographs of themselves in uniform.
b. Employees are prohibited from revealing Department affiliations of other individuals without the express consent of that individual.
c. Members are prohibited from taking photographs, videotaping or recording audio while working unless authorized to do so by the Office of Public Information.
d. Employees participating in social media are subject to Department policies even when using social media while off duty and not at work.
e. Employees should never use their City e-mail addresses when participating in social media.

Answer 53

A
(PA/ID 2-2013 Sec. 5.2, 5.2.2, 5.2.5, 5.2.6, 5.2.9)
The correct answer is: FDNY personnel are prohibited from posting photographs of themselves in uniform.

Question 54

Who may authorize members to engage in social media contact with minors with whom they interact in the course of their FDNY employment?
Select one:
a. A Deputy Assistant Commissioner (or higher rank) or a Deputy Chief (or higher rank).
b. The Fire Commissioner only.
c. Nobody. This contact is strictly prohibited.
d. The Chief of Department only.

Answer 54

A
(PA/ID 2-2013 Sec. 5.2.8)
The correct answer is: A Deputy Assistant Commissioner (or higher rank) or a Deputy Chief (or higher rank).

Question 55

How often shall Battalion Commanders confer with every assigned Company Commander regarding maintaining a professional workplace?
Select one:
a. Weekly
b. Quarterly 
c. Annually
d. Monthly

Answer 55

B
(PA/ID 2-2017)
The correct answer is: Quarterly

Question 56

At a High Rise Incident, the 2nd arriving Engine Officer provides the communications link between the lobby and the fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector/Branch using the Post radio. Which choice is incorrect concerning this operation?
Select one:
a. Members shall not be within 2 feet from a transmitting Post Radio.
b. After establishing contact with the ICP on the Command Channel via the Post Radio, the 2nd Engine Officer shall contact all members in the fire area on the Command Channel via the Post Radio.
c. The 2nd Engine Officer will take the Post Radio to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the 1st handline is being stretched.
d. The 1st arriving BC shall give the Post Radio to the 2nd Engine Officer.

Answer 56

B
(Ch. 12 Sec. 2.9, 6.2.2, 6.2.3, 6.2.5) Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the 2nd Engine Officer shall establish contact with the ICP on the Command Channel via the Post radio, the Officer will verify that the Post radio is in place and gives their location to the IC. The 2nd Engine Officer will then use THEIR HT ON THE TACTICAL CHANNEL to announce to units in the fire area that a communications link with the ICP has been established.
The correct answer is: After establishing contact with the ICP on the Command Channel via the Post Radio, the 2nd Engine Officer shall contact all members in the fire area on the Command Channel via the Post Radio.

Question 57

Which choice correctly describes the actions to be taken when the 1st Battalion is delayed into the box and the 2nd Engine has already ascended to the upper floors at a High rise fire?
Select one:
a. The 1st Battalion shall give their Post radio to the member operating the Fire Service Elevator, and the 2nd due Engine Officer shall ensure that the Post Radio is obtained from this member.
b. The 2nd BC shall bring their Post Radio to the Fire Sector.
c. The 3rd Engine shall bring the Post Radio to the 2nd Engine Officer.
d. The 2nd Engine Officer shall send a member to the ICP to obtain the Post Radio upon arrival of the 1st BC.

Answer 57

A
(Ch. 12 Notes)
The correct answer is: The 1st Battalion shall give their Post radio to the member operating the Fire Service Elevator, and the 2nd due Engine Officer shall ensure that the Post Radio is obtained from this member.

Question 58

While operating at a High Rise Building and attempting to use the FDNY Programmed Leaky cable system, the Officer of Ladder 2 would know which of the following to be incorrect?
Select one:
a. Transmissions made from the base station will be carried by the cable to all areas of the building.
b. It can either operate on FDNY UHF HT Channels 1 through 8 or may utilize in-house radios.
c. Transmissions made by members on upper floors are captured by the cable are re-transmitted to all areas of the building.
d. It is a Simplex System.

Answer 58

C
(Ch. 13 Sec. 2.1.1) Transmissions captured by the cable are received by the base station radio but are not re-transmitted. Therefore, important messages that are needed to be heard by all members should be re-transmitted at the base station radio by the member monitoring transmissions.
The correct answer is: Transmissions made by members on upper floors are captured by the cable are re-transmitted to all areas of the building.

Question 59

Ladder 3 entered a High Rise Office Building to investigate an odor of smoke and was informed by the Fire Safety Director that the Building had a Duplex UHF radio repeater channel that was FDNY programmed. Which action should be corrected?
Select one:
a. The Officer activated the Auxiliary Radio Communications System (ARCS) at the Fire Command Station with a 1620 key.
b. The Officer notified the Dispatcher that the Building duplex UHF repeater system had been activated, and included the HT Channel being used.
c. The Officer instructed the LCC to staff the ICP and monitor the tactical and repeater channels.
d. Prior to leaving the lobby, the Officer performed a functional test of the ARCS.
e. The Officer switched her HT to Channel 13.

Answer 59

E
(Ch. 13 Sec. 3.1) Channel 11 or 12.
The correct answer is: The Officer switched her HT to Channel 13.

Question 60

Which choice concerning the use of ARCS by FDNY members is incorrect?
Select one:
a. All FDNY members, other than those designated to switch to the repeater channel, will remain on HT Channel 1.
b. When additional communications channels are used in conjunction with an ARCS, the FAST Truck will need to obtain an additional HT for each channel in use.
c. Grand Central Terminal and Penn Station radio repeater systems are always set in the ON position.
d. The use of the repeater system eliminates the need to establish a HT relay at subway and large transportation hubs, such as Penn Station.
e. The NYC Transit duplex repeater system is always ON.

Answer 60

D
(Ch. 13 Sec. 3.2.1, 3.2.3, 4) An effective HT relay (Channel 1 – Primary Tactical) must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not.
The correct answer is: The use of the repeater system eliminates the need to establish a HT relay at subway and large transportation hubs, such as Penn Station.

Question 61

While using the ARCS system while conducting a search in a PATH tunnel, Ladder 100 experiences unusual periods of radio silence. What would be a correct action to take?
Select one:
a. Immediately discontinue use of the ARCS.
b. Instruct a member to use the Reverse Channel on their HT to contact the IC.
c. Return to a location further back in the tunnel where communications were successful. If communications at this location are successful, notify the IC and continue using the ARCS channel.
d. Return to a location further back in the tunnel where communications were successful. If communications at this location are successful, switch the HT to Channel 1.

Answer 61

C
(Ch. 13 Sec. 5.1, 5.2)
The correct answer is: Return to a location further back in the tunnel where communications were successful. If communications at this location are successful, notify the IC and continue using the ARCS channel.

Question 62

All of the following can be used to facilitate communications between Fire and EMS resources with the exception of which choice?
Select one:
a. Using the Engine or Ladder apparatus Borough Dispatch radio to transmit on EMS-CW1 when the proper EMS borough frequency cannot be determined.
b. HT Channel 10 at fires
c. Relay information through the FD Dispatcher to the EMS unit assigned.
d. HT Channel 1
e. Using the Engine or Ladder apparatus Borough Dispatch radio to communicate critical information on the EMS borough sector frequency.

Answer 62

B
(Ch. 14 Add. 1 Sec. 1.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6) Very tight – When the use of HT Channel 1 is impractical, EMS/Fire Frequency Channel 10 may be used at NON-FIRE EMERGENCIES to facilitate communications. An example would be a MCI where a Medical Branch communication plan is implemented. HT 10 is the Encrypted Command Channel
The correct answer is: HT Channel 10 at fires

Question 63

When a Fire unit transmits on an EMS Borough or Citywide frequency, they shall include all of the following information with the exception of which choice?
Select one:
a. The address of the incident including cross streets.
b. The unit calling e.g. “Engine 3 to EMS”.
c. Relevant critical information.
d. The Box number.

Answer 63

D
(CH. 14 Add. 1 Sec. 2.7) DO NOT USE BOX NUMBER
The correct answer is: The Box number.

Question 64

Captain Cleary of Ladder 421 removed a victim from a fire on the 2nd floor of a Row Frame Building. Ladder 421 is the only unit on scene, and EMS has not yet arrived. Choose the incorrect choice concerning communication methods to contact EMS.
Select one:
a. If unable to contact EMS on the HT-1, contact the FD Dispatcher with full particulars to relay to EMS.
b. First attempt to contact EMS on HT-1
c. Use the Borough Dispatch radio on the Ladder apparatus to communicate critical information vital to patient care on “EMS CW 1” using plain speak language.
d. DARS radios cannot be used for direct communication with EMS citywide dispatch.

Answer 64

D
(Ch. 14 Add. 1 Sec. 3.6) Sec. 3.6 Note
The correct answer is: DARS radios cannot be used for direct communication with EMS citywide dispatch.

Question 65

While operating at a boat fire in a marina, FDNY members are attempting to communicate with NYPD Aviation and Harbor Units. They should know that all of the following would be correct concerning these communications except which one?
Select one:
a. They should use the TAC “U” Channel, which is Zone A Channel 13.
b. When an emergency alert tone is activated on a HT channel it will be audible on FDNY HTs on all channels in use.
c. The IC shall ensure the designated FAST Unit has the capability of monitoring all frequencies for emergency transmissions.
d. The TAC “U” Channel transmits at 5 watts.
e. When using an Interoperable (I/O) frequency they shall use plain language and refrain from using 10 codes or FD terminology.

Answer 65

B
(Ch. 14 Add. 2 Sec. 1.1, 2.1, 2.2, 3.3.2)
The correct answer is: When an emergency alert tone is activated on a HT channel it will be audible on FDNY HTs on all channels in use.

Question 66

While operating at a motor vehicle accident on the Grand Central Parkway, just over the NYC border in Nassau County, Capt. Jones, the highest ranking member on scene, attempted to use a UTAC HT Channel to contact units from Nassau County. Which action taken was incorrect?
Select one:
a. After making initial contact with her Nassau County counterpart, she designated the LCC to monitor the UTAC channel.
b. Upon completion of operations, she made sure not to use the UTAC channel to contact the Officer of E-200 who was proceeding in the opposite direction to discuss MUD scheduled for later that day.
c. She changed her HT channel to utilize UTAC Channel 42D.
d. She notified her Nassau County counterpart that FDNY had a “10-36-4” and a “10-80” was transmitted for leaking fuel.

Answer 66

D
(Ch. 14 Add. 4 Sec. 1.1, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.5)
The correct answer is: She notified her Nassau County counterpart that FDNY had a “10-36-4” and a “10-80” was transmitted for leaking fuel.

Question 67

While operating at a bus accident with numerous injuries in the Holland Tunnel, Capt. Lincoln decided to use a UTAC Repeater channel to communicate with responding NJ Fire Departments. Which action was incorrect?
Select one:
a. Capt. Lincoln contacted NYC OEM to activate the Repeater channel
b. When transmitting on the repeater channel, Capt. Lincoln pressed and held the Push to Talk button for ½ second before beginning to speak.
c. UTAC Channel 42 was used to communicate with the NJ Fire Departments.
d. The repeater channel was used outside the tunnel due to the repeater channels not being reliable for interior structural communications.

Answer 67

B
(Ch. 14 Add. 4 Sec. 2.2, 5.1) 2 seconds.
The correct answer is: When transmitting on the repeater channel, Capt. Lincoln pressed and held the Push to Talk button for ½ second before beginning to speak.

Question 68

An FDNY Summons may be issued in which choice?
Select one:
a. When smoking on a construction site is witnessed, instead of a Criminal Summons.
b. When a violation is observed at a Federal, State, or non-City government agency, such as the Port Authority.
c. When the inspecting member deems the violation to be an immediate hazard, and the owner is on scene.
d. When a violation is observed at a New York City Agency.

Answer 68

D
(Add. 1)
The correct answer is: When a violation is observed at a New York City Agency.

Question 69

A newly promoted Captain would be correct in issuing an FDNY Summons in which choice?
Select one:
a. The first priority in issuing an FDNY Summons against a building located at 34 Jones Street is to address it to “34 Jones Street”.
b. Upon discovering violations that fall under 9 separate Violation Codes at the same building, two FDNY Summons were issued.
c. When issuing an FDNY Summons to a building owned by a Corporation, the term “Owner Of” was used when preparing the Summons.
d. When issuing an FDNY Summons for a defective range hood unit to John’s Pizzeria, a tenant in a building, the Summons was addressed to “Owner of John’s Pizzeria”.
e. An FDNY Summons was issued to a tenant of Apt. 4J, on the 4th floor of a Multiple Dwelling, for their shopping cart blocking the public hall.

Answer 69

B
(Add. 1)
The correct answer is: Upon discovering violations that fall under 9 separate Violation Codes at the same building, two FDNY Summons were issued.

Question 70

While performing BI, Capt. Brands instructs a member of E-300 to issue a Violation Order (VO) at a grocery store. Which point concerning the VO was incorrect?
Select one:
a. If the VO is not corrected within the compliance time, the Officer may allow an extension if 75% of the required work has been completed.
b. Forthwith orders and orders with one other compliance date may not be written on the same order.
c. When a forthwith compliance time is ordered, do not use military time.
d. Compliance dates should fall on a scheduled BISP period.
e. When a preprinted order is not provided to correct a violation, an order shall be created, with the 1st violation starting with “SP-1”.

Answer 70

B
(Add. 2)
The correct answer is: Forthwith orders and orders with one other compliance date may not be written on the same order.

Question 71

A Criminal Court Summons should be served for several violations of the Fire Code. Which method of serving the Criminal Court Summons is incorrect?
Select one:
a. A summons may be issued to a City Agency when directed by the Bureau of Fire Prevention.
b. If a defendant refuses to take a summons or destroys it after being served, you must have it process served.
c. The summons should be personally served to the owner of the building or business. If that person can’t be located, serve a responsible person in charge of the premises.
d. The best way to serve a summons upon corporations and partnerships is to send them to the Bureau of Legal Affairs to be process served.
e. A summons may be served to a custodian or principal of a public school for a locked exit, or to a NYC Housing Authority manager or superintendent for a standpipe or sprinkler shut-down without prior FD notification.

Answer 71

B
(Add. 3 Sec. 4.1.1, 4.1.3, 9.1.3, 9.4.1)
The correct answer is: If a defendant refuses to take a summons or destroys it after being served, you must have it process served.

Question 72

Choose the incorrect point concerning the A-8 Fire Department Referral Report.
Select one:
a. An A-8 may be forwarded for a City Agency.
b. The same A-8 may be completed for a building with both a Fire Prevention referral and PTSU referral.
c. The A-8 shall be used for the referral of non-serious conditions.
d. Inspection and enforcement procedures in leased commercial spaces on Transit Authority property should proceed in the same manner as if the space was not on Transit Authority property.

Answer 72

B
(Add. 4 Sec. 1.1.1, 1.1.2, 1.1.3, 1.1.4) A separate A-8 must be completed if conditions require both a Fire Prevention referral and PTSU referrals.
The correct answer is: The same A-8 may be completed for a building with both a Fire Prevention referral and PTSU referral.

Question 73

Certain conditions encountered require a follow up evaluation by the NYC Dept. of Buildings (DOB). Choose the incorrect statement concerning these evaluations?
Select one:
a. If the on-scene Captain believes the condition is hazardous enough to require immediate action, they shall request an immediate DOB response.
b. If a company officer is unsure whether a DOB referral or DOB response is required, the administrative BC shall be called to the scene for an evaluation.
c. The DOB Referral Report is not to be used in situations requiring immediate action.
d. Referral reports shall be emailed through the chain of command to the BISP Unit.

Answer 73

A
(Add. 5 Sec. 1.1.1, 1.1.2, 1.2.2, 1.2.4) BC or DC
The correct answer is: If the on-scene Captain believes the condition is hazardous enough to require immediate action, they shall request an immediate DOB response.

Question 74

DOB Referral Reports are divided into two categories, Normal Priority referrals and High Priority referrals. Which choice is incorrect concerning these referrals?
Select one:
a. When there are several High Priority referral conditions at the same address, a single DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared.
b. A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared for each address or premise.
c. A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared when both a normal priority referral item and high priority referral item exist at the same address or premise.
d. Multiple normal referral items can be selected and submitted on a single report.

Answer 74

A
(Add. 5 Sec. 2.1, 3.1.1) Also mention BC taking photos.
The correct answer is: When there are several High Priority referral conditions at the same address, a single DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared.

Question 75

Captain Stevens made several statements concerning complaints. Which one was the only correct one?
Select one:
a. Upon receipt of a complaint for a location not within their administrative district, company Officers shall cause a prompt inspection, followed by a telephone call to the administrative unit.
b. In all cases of complaints within the unit’s administrative district, reports shall be forwarded and proper entries recorded in the company journal and RBIS portal by the Officer on Duty.
c. Complaints concerning smoke detectors and carbon monoxide detectors require an immediate investigation by the administrative unit.
d. When a complaint is received for a place of public assembly, the Officer shall ensure that an immediate investigation is conducted by the unit.

Answer 75

B
(Add. 6 Sec. 1.1, 1.2, 1.3)
The correct answer is: In all cases of complaints within the unit’s administrative district, reports shall be forwarded and proper entries recorded in the company journal and RBIS portal by the Officer on Duty.

Question 76

Capt. Carlson, a very knowledgeable Captain, would know that all of the following concerning complaints are correct with the exception of which one?
Select one:
a. If the investigation cannot be completed after the 72 hour time limit, the Officer shall notify the administrative Battalion and Division.
b. At least one attempt per day shall be made to complete the investigation within 72 hours.
c. Only Final reports shall be emailed through the chain of command.
d. Complaints shall be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within 24 hours after receipt.
e. The Officer shall fax an unendorsed copy of the A-17 (FINAL or INTERIM) to the BISP Unit immediately after conducting an investigation.

Answer 76

A
(Add. 6 Sec. 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5) Call the BISP Unit. Officers will be guided by BISP.
The correct answer is: If the investigation cannot be completed after the 72 hour time limit, the Officer shall notify the administrative Battalion and Division.

Question 77

Upon arrival at a smoke condition in a Private Dwelling, Capt. Lee notes that numerous NYPD personnel are on scene. After communicating with the ranking NYPD Officer on scene, it is determined that the occupant of the dwelling is armed with a pistol and had threatened to fire on NYPD prior to FDNY arrival. Choose the incorrect action taken.
Select one:
a. Capt. Lee notified incoming units of the active shooter via the Department radio without requesting a “Mixer off”.
b. Capt. Lee depressed the EAB on his HT and transmitted an Urgent message to alert units on scene of an active shooter.
c. Capt. Lee advised members that if they are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a prone position on the ground.
d. Members remained behind a stone wall, out of line-of-sight of the dwelling.
e. After determining that the occupant was armed, members designated the area a Warm Zone that could only be entered with permission of Capt. Lee.

Answer 77

E
(SB 89 Sec. 3.1) The area should be considered a HOT Zone and DO NOT operate.
The correct answer is: After determining that the occupant was armed, members designated the area a Warm Zone that could only be entered with permission of Capt. Lee.

Question 78

At a CFR-D response, Capt. Miller witnessed a member halt other members from stepping on a cracked, marble half landing. Lt. Miller would be incorrect in taking which action when including this incident in the “Pass it On Program”?
Select one:
a. He ensured that no units or individuals were identified as required.
b. He faxed the information using the circular format to the Bureau of Operations within 24 hours of the operation.
c. He forwarded a copy of the handwritten report to the Administrative Division through the chain of command.
d. He shall make an immediate telephone notification to the Administrative Division through the chain of command.

Answer 78

A
(SB 90 Sec. 1, 2, 2.1, 3, 4) ID of units or individuals would be appropriate in positive situations and inappropriate in others (injuries, accidents, etc.)
The correct answer is: He ensured that no units or individuals were identified as required.

Question 79

The FDNY Near-Miss Reporting System may prevent unsafe occurrences from happening again. Choose the incorrect point concerning this program.
Select one:
a. A Near-Miss may be sent through the bag without endorsements to the Chief of Safety.
b. The FDNY Near-Miss webpage can be accessed vie the Department’s Intranet Homepage.
c. The submission of a near-miss is anonymous.
d. Only Officers or Chiefs may submit a near-miss for inclusion in the program.

Answer 79

D
(SB 91 Sec. 1.4, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.8) Members of ALL RANKS are encouraged to participate in this program.
The correct answer is: Only Officers or Chiefs may submit a near-miss for inclusion in the program.

Question 80

When members discover clutter, they should communicate the degree of clutter (light, medium or heavy) and its impact on operations. Which choice concerning clutter is incorrect?
Select one:
a. “Light Clutter” has little to no effect on access, and does not affect searches.
b. The term “Collyer’s Mansion” may only be used for “Heavy Clutter”.
c. “Medium Clutter” may result in delayed searches and is typified by partially blocked entrances.
d. “Heavy Clutter” will result in complete blockage of entrances and severely delayed searches that may require extraordinary measures.

Answer 80

B
(SB 92 Sec. 2.3, 3.1, 4) The term “Collyer’s Mansion” shall no longer be used.
The correct answer is: The term “Collyer’s Mansion” may only be used for “Heavy Clutter”.