FT 7/20

Question 1

When stretching a foam handline with the 125 gpm foam eductor, the eductor is to be operated?
Select one:
a. At the pumper outlet or no more than 2 lengths from the pumper
b. Two lengths from the pumper
c. At the pumper outlet only
d. One length from the pumper

Answer 1

C
(TB Foam Add 3—2.1)
The correct answer is: At the pumper outlet only

Question 2

When stretching a foam handline with the 125 gpm foam eductor, the guidelines for proper hose stretched is incorrectly indicated in which choice?
Select one:
a. When stretching 1 ¾” hose, not more than 6 lengths may be utilized
b. When using 2 ½” hose. an increaser and reducer are required
c. When stretching 2 ½” hose, not more than 10 lengths may be utilized
d. When combining stretches of 1 ¾” and 2 ½”, not more than 12 total lengths shall be utilized

Answer 2

D
(TB Foam Add 3—2.1) (The stretches are not to be combined)
The correct answer is: When combining stretches of 1 ¾” and 2 ½”, not more than 12 total lengths shall be utilized

Question 3

When stretching a foam handline with the 125 gpm foam eductor, the ECC should supply the foam line with \_\_\_\_ psi?
Select one:
a. 240
b. 180
c. 200 
d. 220

Answer 3

C
(TB Foam Add 3—2.1)
The correct answer is: 200

Question 4

In order to produce an aerated foam blanket, the nozzle should be operated with the tip in the?
Select one:
a. Aerated position
b. Seated position
c. Flush position
d. Extended position

Answer 4

D
(TB Foam Add 3—2.1)
The correct answer is: Extended position

Question 5

Regarding the Go-Gauge needle it would be correct to state?
Select one:
a. The go-gauge should be in the “Green” position when operating, as this indicates proper foam proportioning
b. If the needle is in the “Red” position, the chauffeur will need to supply more pressure
c. It has three indicators—Red, Yellow, and Green
d. When the needle is in the “Red” position, the officer and nozzle team will immediately notice a difference in foam production

Answer 5

A
(TB Foam Add 3—1.4, 2.1) (two indicators - green + red, a problem exists, May not immediately notice)
The correct answer is: The go-gauge should be in the “Green” position when operating, as this indicates proper foam proportioning

Question 6

When foam operations are completed, the hose line and nozzle shall be flushed out?
Select one:
a. At least 10 minutes
b. Until clean water flows through the nozzle
c. At least 15 minutes
d. At least 5 minutes

Answer 6

B
(TB Foam Add 3—2.1)
The correct answer is: Until clean water flows through the nozzle

Question 7

In order to flush out the eductor and pickup tube, the engine chauffeur would be correct to go to idle on the pumper, reduce pressure at the outlet and press the?
Select one:
a. Red flush button on the eductor for 30 seconds
b. Green flush button on the eductor for 30 seconds
c. Green flush button on the eductor until fresh clean water flows through the pickup tube
d. Red flush button on the eductor until fresh clean water flows through the pickup tube

Answer 7

D
(TB Foam Add 3—2.1)
The correct answer is: Red flush button on the eductor until fresh clean water flows through the pickup tube

Question 8

When stretching a foam handline it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have minimal effect on foam production, but could cause the go-gauge to approach the red
b. Members should avoid opening and closing the foam nozzle as this interrupts the educting process and causes an intermittent flow of foam
c. If the go-gauge enters the red position, this indicates a flow problem that the ECC will need to correct
d. Sufficient AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate containers should be placed near the nozzle

Answer 8

D
(TB Foam—Evol 1—2.4) (Concentrate is placed at the pumper)
The correct answer is: Sufficient AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate containers should be placed near the nozzle

Question 9

At a 3rd alarm, Tower Ladder 99 is ordered to place the Modified Angus Foam Cannon on its Tower Ladder Stang to operate at a large flammable liquid fire. In this situation, it would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. Approximately 1000 gpm of water is needed to supply the Foam Cannon
b. Foam concentrate should be supplied to the FIMM pumper through 1 ¾” hose and be pumped at a minimum of 50 psi over the hydrant pressure
c. The basket of the Tower Ladder shall be staffed with 2 firefighters
d. A FIMM pumper is required and it must utilize a 4 ½” back-flow prevention valve
Feedback

Answer 9

C
(TB Foam Evol 3—2.1—2.5) (Basket shall be unstaffed)
The correct answer is: The basket of the Tower Ladder shall be staffed with 2 firefighters

Question 10

When supplying the Modified Angus Foam Cannon on a Tower Ladder Stang at an operation, it would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The Foam Tender is preferred over a Foam Tanker to supply concentrate
b. The base of the Tower Ladder must be supplied with at least 250 psi
c. If the FIMM pumper is supplying a relay pumper, the relay pumper needs to have a supply pressure of 100 psi
d. The FIMM pumper and if necessary, a relay pumper must both operate in the volume position

Answer 10

C
TB Foam Evol 3—2.8, 2.9, 2.11) (80 psi)
The correct answer is: If the FIMM pumper is supplying a relay pumper, the relay pumper needs to have a supply pressure of 100 psi

Question 11

When using the “Through the Lock” method to gain entry with a locked door, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. Before pulling the lock cylinder, check the position of the keyway, as the keyway is always the 6 o’clock position when using the 5 o’clock to 7 o’clock principle
b. Fox Locks will require a square key tool to open
c. Police locks will require a square key tool to open
d. Police locks are easily recognizable by the location of the lock cylinder in the center of the door

Answer 11

D
(TB FE 1—4.2, B—5-6) (Fox locks)
The correct answer is: Police locks are easily recognizable by the location of the lock cylinder in the center of the door

Question 12

When using a power saw to cut through an American Lock Series 2000 lock, members should cut through the lock about?
Select one:
a. 2/3 of the distance up from the bottom of the lock
b. 1/2 of the distance up from the bottom of the lock
c. 2/3 of the distance up from the keyway
d. 1/3 of the distance up from the keyway

Answer 12

C
(TB FE 1—6.1 C)
The correct answer is: 2/3 of the distance up from the keyway

Question 13

Regarding multi-lock doors, which point would be most correct?
Select one:
a. The lock is always centered in the door
b. By sliding paper or cardboard under the door along the bottom, you will be able to determine if the lock is engaged
c. The lock is easily recognized by a small plate covering the lock
d. The lock has three bars that enter the door jam when the lock is engaged

Answer 13

B
(TB FE 1—9.1) (lock is not necessarily centered, Large plate covering the lock, lock has 4 bars)
The correct answer is: By sliding paper or cardboard under the door along the bottom, you will be able to determine if the lock is engaged

Question 14

To force a door that has a multi-lock that is engaged, members should cut a triangle in the ________?
Select one:
a. Lower quadrant of the door on the doorknob side
b. Lower quadrant of the door on the hinge side
c. Upper quadrant of the door on the hinge side
d. Upper quadrant of the door on the doorknob side

Answer 14

A
(TB FE 1—9.1)
The correct answer is: Lower quadrant of the door on the doorknob side

Question 15

Which point about security gates is stated incorrectly?
Select one:
a. Electrically operated doors are not equipped with an auxiliary chain hoist
b. Manually operated doors are readily recognized by the absence of any raising mechanism housing at drum level and the presence of lift handles attached to the bottom bar
c. Electrically operated doors are readily identified by a large metal housing, adjacent to either side of the drum
d. Mechanically operated doors are easily recognized by the gear and chain mechanism located at the top of the door alongside the drum with approximately one foot of chain remaining visible

Answer 15

A
(TB FE 1—10.1) (are All equipped with the auxiliary chain hoist)
The correct answer is: Electrically operated doors are not equipped with an auxiliary chain hoist

Question 16

When forcing a door using the axe and halligan, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. The fork should be canted slightly towards the floor or ceiling to initially drive in a single point of the fork
b. The bevel side of the fork end should be next to the door to afford a greater spread and eliminate the possibility of losing the purchase obtained
c. The fork end of the halligan tool should be placed approximately 6” above or below the lock, initially at a 45 degree angle
d. The member holding the halligan tool is the coordinator of the action, telling the axe firefighter when to strike

Answer 16

C
(TB FE 2—1.2) (20 degree angle)
The correct answer is: The fork end of the halligan tool should be placed approximately 6” above or below the lock, initially at a 45 degree angle

Question 17

Regarding the Police Lock, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. On the inside of the door, the lock has a metal rod extending down into a metal receptacle in the floor
b. The ring holding the tumbler in place will protrude about 1/8” on the public hall side of the door
c. Conventional forcible entry will be difficult as this lock offers great resistance
d. The metal receptacle in the floor is about 2’ from the door

Answer 17

B
(TB FE 2—1.4 B) (will be almost flush with the door, Rim locks protrude 1/8”)
The correct answer is: The ring holding the tumbler in place will protrude about 1/8” on the public hall side of the door

Question 18

When forcing a door at the hinge side with the fork end of the halligan, it would be most correct to drive the fork end of the halligan tool?
Select one:
a. Above the upper hinge and above the lower hinge
b. Above the upper hinge and below the lower hinge
c. Below the upper hinge and above the lower hinge
d. Below the upper hinge and below the lower hinge

Answer 18

C
(TB FE 2—1.5)
The correct answer is: Below the upper hinge and above the lower hinge

Question 19

An incorrect point concerning HT recordings can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. To request HT audio, Officers or units must send an email from an FDNY address to the HT Recorder Unit.
b. Requests for recordings for an incident that an Officer’s unit did not operate at will be approved by the Bureau of Operations only if there are valid reasons.
c. Recording shall be kept in a designated secure location in the company office.
d. Company Officers can request a recording of HT transmissions on any HT channel.

Answer 19

D
(Ch. 9 Add. 1 Sec. 8.1, 8.2) (Only of Primary and Secondary Tactical channels.)
The correct answer is: Company Officers can request a recording of HT transmissions on any HT channel.

Question 20

When contacted by the Roll Call Officer, and Officer would be correct to account for which members?
Select one:
a. All members of their unit.
b. Only the members of their unit under their immediate supervision.
c. Only the members of their unit within sight or hearing without using the HT.
d. All members of their unit who they can contact via HT.

Answer 20

C
(Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 1.4)
The correct answer is: Only the members of their unit within sight or hearing without using the HT.

Question 21

The Roll Call Officer can access an updated printout from any apparatus by doing all but which choice?
Select one:
a. Then press “Next”
b. First press the “Incident History” button, ensuring that the date and box is entered.
c. Then press “Send”
d. Then press “Print”

Answer 21

B
(Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 4.1) (“Incident Summary” button – The date, box, etc. does NOT need to be entered)
The correct answer is: First press the “Incident History” button, ensuring that the date and box is entered.

Question 22

Captain Smith has been designated the Roll Call Officer (RCO). Which thought or action below should be corrected?
Select one:
a. He ensured he was assisted by another member who recorded the members by position as they replied.
b. He remembered that every Battalion and Division vehicle had a pad of pre-printed Emergency Roll Call forms.
c. He remembered that each incident would determine which companies should be called first.
d. Captain Smith and the designated member assisting and filling out the preprinted form were located at the Command Post.

Answer 22

D
(Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.6) (located Away from the ICP)
The correct answer is: Captain Smith and the designated member assisting and filling out the preprinted form were located at the Command Post.

Question 23

If a Company Officer does not answer when called by the RCO, the RCO should next call all but which member(s)?
Select one:
a. The IC
b. The Nozzle or Back-up FF if it is an Engine officer
c. A firefighter operating with that Officer
d. The Can or Irons FF if it is a Ladder officer
e. Another company operating in the immediate area of that Officer.

Answer 23

A
(Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 4.10) (If the members or units in Choice B, C, D, or E are unable to account for the Officer and the Officer still has not responded to the roll call, the RCO must then notify the IC)
The correct answer is: The IC

Question 24

Certain “Mayday” or “Urgent” transmissions require a roll call to be conducted. An Officer would be incorrect to make a HT transmission during this roll call in which choice?
Select one:
a. When the Officer has to transmit a “Mayday” or “Urgent” message.
b. When the Officer has critical information concerning the Mayday/Urgent or the on-going operation.
c. When the Officer needs to contact a member via HT to account for them as required in a roll call.
d. When called by the RCO.

Answer 24

C
(Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 5.1) (Officer will only account for their members within sight or hearing without using the HT)
The correct answer is: When the Officer needs to contact a member via HT to account for them as required in a roll call.

Question 25

When an Emergency Roll Call is being conducted, an Officer responding to the Roll Call would be correct to state all but which of the following?
Select one:
a. Specifically what members (by position) they have accounted for.
b. When working in a Ladder company that has responded with 4 FFs, state the riding position that has been eliminated.
c. The location of all members of their unit.
d. The number of FFs they responded with.

Answer 25

C
(Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 1.4, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4.1)
The correct answer is: The location of all members of their unit.

Question 26

How shall the EFAS trained member of L-100, designated at roll call to monitor EFAS, communicate on the HT when assigned as the Fast Unit?
Select one:
a. “FAST EFAS to Command”
b. “EFAS to Command” 
c. “L-100 OV to Command”
d. “EFAS L-100 FAST to Command”

Answer 26

B
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 2.3)
The correct answer is: “EFAS to Command”

Question 27

Upon arrival at an incident, after transmitting a 10-84 via the MDT, how many times must Officers key their HT Mic in order to “check in” and have their members be recognized by EFAS?
Select one:
a. Four times.
b. Three times
c. Twice 
d. Once

Answer 27

D
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 3.1.4)
The correct answer is: Once

Question 28

The member who last transmitted is always shown at the bottom of the “RADIO STATUS” screen on the EFAS screen.
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 28

A
(shown at the top)
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 29

When a member activates their EAB, their company, position and name will be listed in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in both the “RADIO STATUS” and “MAYDAYS” areas.
Select one:
a. Green
b. Red 
c. Blue
d. Yellow

Answer 29

B
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 5.1.1)
The correct answer is: Red

Question 30

When a member activates their Emergency Alert Button, the MDT will automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing all but which choice?
Select one:
a. Time
b. Name 
c. Company
d. Position

Answer 30

B
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 5.1.2)
The correct answer is: Name

Question 31

When a member has resolved an Emergency Alert and the HT is reset, the member’s highlighted identity line will change to \_\_\_\_\_\_ in the “RADIO STATUS” area, and will change to \_\_\_\_\_\_ in the “MAYDAYS” area.
Select one:
a. White, Yellow 
b. Black, Black
c. Blue, Green
d. Green, White

Answer 31

A
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 5.1.3)
The correct answer is: White, Yellow

Question 32

While drilling on EFAS Capt. Sanderson made several statements. Which one was wrong?
Select one:
a. EMS members with an assigned fireground HT that activates the Emergency Alert function will show up on EFAS with their EMS Unit, position and name as entered in the EBF-4.
b. When assigning a member a Verbal MAYDAY on EFAS, the member’s HT wattage is not increased to 5 watts, and the member will not receive the Emergency Alert Tone “Beacon”.
c. The EFAS start-up time is delayed 1 minute to allow Starfire to connect when the vehicle ignition is turned on.
d. EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 16, and it can monitor several channels at one time.

Answer 32

D
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 3.1.1, 5.1.5) (Defaults to Tactical Channel 1. It can monitor any of the 16 Channels, but can only monitor ONE channel at a time)
The correct answer is: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 16, and it can monitor several channels at one time.

Question 33

Choose the incorrect point concerning Electronic Roll Calls utilizing EFAS. _____

Select one:

a. Beginning with the most severely exposed unit, when the remote mic is keyed 3 times the riding position will change from yellow to green.
b. Members who do not key their HT remote mic will change to red.
c. When “Begin Roll Call” is depressed, unaccounted for positions of “Assigned Units” will appear in yellow.
d. Unstaffed positions are grey, and do not need to be accounted for.

Answer 33

B
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 7.1.3, 7.1.4, 7.1.5, 7.1.6, 7.1.7) (Members who do not key their HT remote mic will remain in YELLOW)
The correct answer is: Members who do not key their HT remote mic will change to red.

Question 34

Which feature of the under-river tubes is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. In most cases, the tunnel-to-tube-transition is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river.
b. Most tubes have no access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.
c. The tunnel-to-tube transition is where the round underground tunnel section connects to the square under-river tube.
d. Under-river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels.

Answer 34

C
(UR 2.2.2, 2.4) (The tunnel-to-tube transition is where the SQUARE underground tunnel section connects to the ROUND under-river tube.)
The correct answer is: The tunnel-to-tube transition is where the round underground tunnel section connects to the square under-river tube.

Question 35

Which point below regarding the standpipe systems in under river tubes is incorrect?
Select one:
a. 2 ½ inch outlets are located every 200 feet throughout under river tubes.
b. Most under river standpipes in the NYCT system are dry.
c. Siameses are usually located at the emergency exits closest to the river.
d. Section valves are located approximately 600 feet apart.

Answer 35

B
(UR 2.7.1) (All under-river standpipe systems in NYCT are wet)
The correct answer is: Most under river standpipes in the NYCT system are dry.

Question 36

In under-river tubes, phones are designated by blue lights and are found near the emergency power removal boxes, approximately \_\_\_\_\_ feet apart.
Select one:
a. 660
b. 750
c. 600 
d. 800

Answer 36

C
(URR 2.9.4)
The correct answer is: 600

Question 37

When evacuating victims from an under-river tube which passengers are evacuated first?
Select one:
a. Ambulatory victims
b. Red tag victims requiring disentanglement/extrication
c. Black tag victims
d. Red tag non-ambulatory victims

Answer 37

A
(URR 7.1)
The correct answer is: Ambulatory victims

Question 38

When evacuating victims from an under-river tube which of the following passengers should be evacuated first after all ambulatory victims are removed?
Select one:
a. Yellow tag victims requiring disentanglement/extrication
b. Red tag non-ambulatory victims
c. Red tag victims requiring disentanglement/extrication
d. Yellow tag non-ambulatory victims

Answer 38

B
(URR 7.1)
The correct answer is: Red tag non-ambulatory victims

Question 39

What is the primary method to remove non-ambulatory victims from an under-river tube?
Select one:
a. Skeds
b. Rail Cart 
c. Victim Removal Relay Teams
d. Rescue Train

Answer 39

B
(URR 7.3)
The correct answer is: Rail Cart

Question 40

In an under-river tube, members can relay column numbers to help identify the incident location. The column numbers are black letters on a \_\_\_\_\_ background.
Select one:
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. White
d. Red

Answer 40

A
(URR Add 1 Pg 2)
The correct answer is: Yellow

Question 41

In an under-river tube, members can relay signal numbers to help identify the incident location. The signal numbers are black letters on a \_\_\_\_\_ background.
Select one:
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. White 
d. Green

Answer 41

C
(URR Add 1 Pg 2)
The correct answer is: White

Question 42

Loft buildings may be built of all of the following construction classes except which one?
Select one:
a. Class 5 
b. Class 1
c. Class 6
d. Class 2

Answer 42

A
(Lofts 1.1) (Also built of Class 3)
The correct answer is: Class 5

Question 43

A sidewalk vault may extend downward to all sub-levels of an older cast-iron loft. What is an indicator of a “full” vault?
Select one:
a. Small segmented fixed glass orbs (deadlights)
b. Large piece of granite stone covering the sidewalk to curb line.
c. Wrought-iron I-beams
d. Cast-iron structural members

Answer 43

B
(Lofts 5.1)
The correct answer is: Large piece of granite stone covering the sidewalk to curb line.

Question 44

Iron window shutters were mandated by law on loft buildings with plain glass windows situated less than \_\_\_ feet horizontally from another building or less than \_\_\_ feet vertically from the roof of an adjoining building.
Select one:
a. 15; 25
b. 15; 30
c. 30; 50 
d. 25; 50

Answer 44

C
(Lofts 5.1.9)
The correct answer is: 30; 50

Question 45

Which of the following properties of cast-iron columns is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. The statement that all cast-iron columns exposed to fire will shatter when cooled by a hoseline is a myth.
b. Cast-iron columns are not designed to withstand an eccentric load.
c. When properly cast, these structural members will withstand a great deal of thermal stress.
d. If any cast-iron column is cooled by a hoseline it can contract disproportionately leading to potential failure.

Answer 45

D
(Lofts 5.1.10) (If ANY IMPROPERLY CAST cast-iron column is cooled by a hoseline it can contract disproportionately leading to potential failure)
The correct answer is: If any cast-iron column is cooled by a hoseline it can contract disproportionately leading to potential failure.

Question 46

When subjected to the heat from a fire for long periods of time, cast-iron columns can fracture and fail. In this situation, which point below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When cast iron columns are heated, their strength loss is cumulative
b. When cast iron columns are cooled their strength loss is sometimes regained.
c. A structural cast-iron column unable to move will crack
d. Iron fibers (like steel) when heated elongate or extend to the column

Answer 46

B
(Lofts 5.1.10 F) (Strength loss is NEVER regained)
The correct answer is: When cast iron columns are cooled their strength loss is sometimes regained.

Question 47

At 1,100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast-iron loses \_\_\_\_\_ of its original strength.
Select one:
a. 50%
b. 42%
c. 58% 
d. 60%

Answer 47

C
(Lofts 5.1.10 F)
The correct answer is: 58%

Question 48

Steel tension cables or rods can fail at \_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees Fahrenheit?
Select one:
a. 1200
b. 1000
c. 900 
d. 800

Answer 48

D
(Lofts 5.3.8)
The correct answer is: 800

Question 49

Which of the following statements regarding segmental arch floors in loft buildings is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Segmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area.
b. Wrought-iron rods run from beam to beam to counter the outward thrust of the arch, which was exerted on the beams.
c. They may be found in the newer Cast-iron loft buildings as well as some Mill construction.
d. All parts of the floor arch system are under tension.

Answer 49

D
(Lofts 5.2.1) (All parts of the floor arch system are IN COMPRESSION)
The correct answer is: All parts of the floor arch system are under tension.

Question 50

At Cast-iron and Mill Loft buildings, it would be incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. The second engine is responsible at cellar fires to stretch a supply line to the sprinkler system if the first engine has not supplied the system
b. Segmental arch floors exposed to fire can spall violently and possibly fail when struck by water from a hoseline below
c. Initial hoselines should be 2 ½”
d. The second engine is responsible at lower floor fires to ensure a supply line is stretched to the sprinkler system

Answer 50

D
(Lofts 6.1.1, 6.1.8,6.2.1 B, 6.2.2 C) (The third engine)
The correct answer is: The second engine is responsible at lower floor fires to ensure a supply line is stretched to the sprinkler system