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Step 1 Review > Repro Path High Yield > Flashcards

Repro Path High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 signs of Klinefleter syndrome?

A

1- Testicular atrophy
2- Gynecomastia
3- Long Extremitie
4- Inactivated X chromosome (Barr Body)

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2
Q

What are the levels of the following in Klinefelter syndrome:

Inhibin
FSH
Testosterone
LH
Estrogen
A

Inhibitin- decreased

FSH- increased

Testosterone- decreased

LH- increased

Estrogen- increased

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3
Q

What cardiac defect is associated with turner syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aorta

Preductal coartication

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4
Q

What renal abnormality is assoiated with Turner syndrome?

A

Horseshoe kidney

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5
Q

What are the levels of the following hormones in Turner syndrome:

Estrogen
LH
FSH

A

Estrogen- decreased

LH- increased

FSH- increased

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6
Q

How can someone with Turner’s get pregnant?

A

OOcyte donation and exogenous estradiol/ progesterone administration

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7
Q

How can 47, XXY result?

A

Nondisjunction event in mapternal meiosis II)

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8
Q

What causes female psuedohermaphroditism?

A

Excessive and inappropriate exposure to androgenic steroids during early gestatino

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9
Q

What causes male psuedohermaphroditism?

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

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10
Q

What deficiency results in maternal virilization during pregnancy?

A

Aromatase deficiency (excess testosterone because can’t convert to estrogen)

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11
Q

“normal appearing female with scant sexual har, rudimentary vagina and NO Uterus or fallopian tubes”

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (46, XY)

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12
Q

“inability to convert testosterone to DHT leading to ambiguous external genitalia until puberty”

A

5alpha- reductase defciency

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13
Q

“defective migration of GnRH cells and formation of olfactory bulb”

A

Kallman Syndrome

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14
Q

Give an example of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

A

Kallman syndrome

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15
Q

Partial or complete mole:

46, XX or 46, XY

A

complete

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16
Q

Partial or complete mole:

Extremely high hCG

A

Complete

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17
Q

Partial or complete mole:

2 sperm in 1 egg

A

Partial

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18
Q

Partial or complete mole:

Enucleated egg + single sperm (that then duplicates)

A

Complete

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19
Q

Partial or complete mole:

Increased risk of choriocarcinoma

A

Complete

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20
Q

Partial or complete mole:

Fetal parts

A

Partial

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21
Q

Partial or complete mole:

honeycombed uterus/ snowstorm on ultrasound

A

Complete

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22
Q

What 4 drugs can treat gestational HTN?

A

1- alpha Methyldopa
2- Labetolol
3- Hydralazine
4- Nifedipine

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23
Q

What causes preeclampsia?

A

Abnormal placental spiral arteries–> endothelial dysfunction, vasoconstriction, ishcemia

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24
Q

What causes preeclampsia?

A

Abnormal placental spiral arteries–> endothelial dysfunction, vasoconstriction, ishcemia

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25
Q

“new onset HTN with either proteinuria or end organ dyfunction”

A

Preeclampsia

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26
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Preeclampsia + maternal seizures

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27
Q

What is HELLP?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets

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28
Q

What are 5 major risk factor for placental abruption?

A 
Trauma
Smoking
Cocaine use
HTN
Preeclampsia
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29
Q

What layer of the placena is defective in placental accreta/ increta/ percreta?

A

Defctive decidual layer

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30
Q

“placenta prentrates into the myometrium”

A

Placenta increta

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31
Q

“placenta attaches to myometrium but does NOT penetrate it”

A

Placental accreta

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32
Q

“placenta penetrates through myometrium and INTO uterine serosa (invades uterine wall)”

A

Placenta percreta

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33
Q

What is placental previa?

A

Implantation of the placenta in a lower uterine segment

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34
Q

What is a symptom of placental previa?

A

Painless 3rd trimester bleeding

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35
Q

What is a vasa previa?

A

Fetal vessels run ver the cervical os leading to vessel rupture, exsaguniation, and fetal death

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36
Q

Painful third trimerster vaginal bleeding?

A

Placental abruption

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37
Q

Assoicated with Polyhydramnios or Oligohydramnios?

maternal diabetes

A

Polyhydramnios

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38
Q

Assoicated with Polyhydramnios or Oligohydramnios?

placental insufficiency

A

Polyhydramnios

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39
Q

Most common gynecological tumors in the US?

A

Endometrial> Ovarian> cervial

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40
Q

Worst prognosis of gynecological tumors in the US?

A

Ovarian> cervical> endometrial

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41
Q

What causes Vaginal SCC?

A

High risk HPV…but it is usually secondary to cervical SCC

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42
Q

What is a cell marker for Sarcoma botryoides?

A

Desmin (+)

43
Q

What types of HPV are associated with cervical SCC?

A

HPV 16 and 18

44
Q

Is cervcal SCC reversible?

A

Yes, if caught in the SIN stages (cervical carcinoma in situ)

45
Q

What is the #1 risk factor for cervical SCC?

A

multiple sexual partners

46
Q

Describe the ratio of LH: FSH in PCOS?

A

Increased

47
Q

Why is there an increased risk of endometrial cancer in PCOS?

A

Due to unopposed estrogen from repeated anovulatory cycles

48
Q

What is the most common ovaria mass in young women?

A

Follicular cysts

49
Q

What is a cell marker for ovarian cancer?

A

CA 125

50
Q

What is the most common ovarian neoplasm?

A

Serous cystadenoma

51
Q

“mass containing all 3 germ layers”

A

Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst)

52
Q

“ovarian tumor that resembles transitional cells of the bladder”

A

Brenner tumor

53
Q

“triad of ovarian fibroma, ascites, hydrothorax”

A

Meigs syndrome

54
Q

What hormone can thecomas produce?

A

Estrogen

55
Q

"”aggressive malignant ovarian tumor contains fetal tissue, neuroectoderm”

A

immature teratoma

56
Q

What is the most common malignant stromal tumor of the ovaries?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

57
Q

What hormones do granulosa cell tumors produce?

A

Estrogen

Progesterone

58
Q

Tumor markers of dysgerminoma?

A

hCG and LDH

59
Q

Marker for Choriocarcinoma?

A

hCG

60
Q

Marker for Yolk sac tumors?

A

AFP

61
Q

Whhat is a common histological finding of yolk sac tumors?

A

Schiller- Duval Bodies (resemble glomeruli)

62
Q

“mucus secreting SIGNET cell adenocarcinoma of the ovaries”

A

Krunkenberg tumor (GI met to the ovaries

63
Q

What is an endometrial polyp?

A

well circumscribed collection of endometrial tisue withint he uterine wall that MAY contain smooth muscle cells

64
Q

benign smooth muscle tumor of the endometrium

A

Leimyoma (fibroid)

65
Q

Why do leimyomas in the uterus have waxing and waning symptoms?

A

Beause they are sensitive to estrogen

66
Q

“extension of endometrial tissue (glandular) into uterine myometrium”

A

Adenomyosis

67
Q

What preceeds endometrial carcinoma?

A

Endometiral hyperplasia

68
Q

Most common breast tumor in pre-menopausal women?

A

Fibroadenoma

69
Q

Where are breast fibroadenomas located?

A

Stroma of the breast

70
Q

Where are intraductal papillomas located?

A

Lacterferous sinus (typically beneath the areola)

71
Q

Which benign breast tumor has an increased risk of malignancy?

A

Intraductal papilloma and phyllodes tumor

72
Q

Where are phyllodes tumors located?

A

Stroma

73
Q

What drugs creat gynecomastia in men?

A 
Spironolactone
Digoxin
Cimetidine
Alcohol
Ketoconazole
74
Q

What quadrant of the breast are malignant tumors more commonly located?

A

Upper outer quadrant

75
Q

Where in the breast is DCIS located?

A

Major duct

76
Q

What is the subtype of DCIS with ductal, central necrosis?

A

Comedocarcinoma

77
Q

Where is invasive ductal carcinoma most likely located?

A

in the major duct

78
Q

Where is invasive ductal carcinoma most likely located?

A

in the major duct

79
Q

“invasive carcinoma of the breast with orderly rows of cells”

A

invasive lobular

80
Q

What causes the orderly row like appearahce of cells in invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast?

A

Decreased E- cadherin expression

81
Q

What causes the inflammatory invasive breast cancer?

A

Dermal lympocytic invasion by breast carcinoma–> neoplastic cells block lymphatic drainage

82
Q

What causes the inflammatory invasive breast cancer?

A

Dermal lympocytic invasion by breast carcinoma–> neoplastic cells block lymphatic drainage

83
Q

“abnormal curvature of the penis due to fibrous plaque within tunica albuginea that can cause pain and anxiety”

A

Peyronie disease

84
Q

“painful sustained erection lasting >4 hours”

A

Priapism

85
Q

How is priapism treated?

A

corporal aspiration, intracavernosal phenylephrine, or surgical decompression

86
Q

“cancer of glans that presents as erythroplakia”

A

Erythroplasia of Queyrat–> Penile SCC

87
Q

“presents on penile shaft as leukoplakia”

A

Bowen disease–> SC of the penis

88
Q

“carcinoma in situ of unclear malignant potential, presenting as reddish papules on the penis”

A

Bowenoid papulosis

89
Q

Why is there impaired spermatogenesis in cryptochidism?

A

Because sperm develop best at temperatures

90
Q

“dilated veins in pampiniform plexus due to increased venous pressure”

A

Varicocele

91
Q

“dilated veins in pampiniform plexus due to increased venous pressure”

A

Varicocele

92
Q

“scrotal swelling in infants, due to incomplete obliteration of processus vaginalis”

A

Congenital hydrcele

93
Q

Are the majority of testicular cancers germ cell or non-germ cell?

A

Germ cell!!

94
Q

What are 2 risk factors for testicular germ cell tumors?

A

1- cryptorchidism

2- Klinefelter syndrome

95
Q

When are seminomas seen?

A

After the thrid decade in life! NEVER in infancy

96
Q

What is the cell marker for yolk sac tumors?

A

AFP

97
Q

What age are yolk sac testicular tumors seen?

A
98
Q

What are the cell markers for teratoma?

A

hCG and AFP

99
Q

“malignant,hemorrhagic mass with necrosis in the testicle”

A

Embryomal carcinoma

100
Q

What are the 3 types of non-germ cell tumors?

A

1- Leydig cell
2- Sertoli cell
3- Testicular Lymphoma

101
Q

What is the most common non germ cell testicular cancer?

A

Testicular lymphoma

102
Q

What zone has undergone hyperplasia in BHP?

A

Periurethral

103
Q

What type of bone mets are seen in prostate cancer?

A

Osteoblastic metastases

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