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Step 1 Review > Antbiotics Pharm High Yield > Flashcards

Antbiotics Pharm High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

AE of penicillin G and V?

A

hemolytic anemia

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2
Q

Name the penicillinase sensitive penicillins? (4)

A

Amoxicillin
Ampicillin
Penicillin G and V
Piperacillin/ ticarcillin

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3
Q

Name the antipsuedomonal penicillins?

A

Piperacillin and ticaricillin

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4
Q

Which 2 classes of antibiotics block the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes?

A

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, neomycin, streptomycin)

Tetracyclines

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5
Q

What 5 classes of antibiotics bond the 50S bacterial ribosomal subunit?

A

Chlorampenicol

Clindamycin

Linezolid

Macrolides

Streptogramins

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6
Q

What antibiotic inhibits mRNA synthesis?

A

Rifampin

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7
Q

Which antibiotics are folic acid synthesis inhibitors?

A

Sulfonomides and Tromephoprim

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8
Q

Which antibiotics are DNA topoisomerase inhibitors?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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9
Q

What can Amoxicillin and ampicillin be used on?

HHELPS

A

HHELPS:

H. influenzae
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Shigella
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10
Q

Narrow spectrum penicillins that are penicillinase resistant?

A

Dicloxacillin, nafcillin, oxacillin

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11
Q

AE of narrow spectrum penicillins?

A

Interstitial nephritis, hepatic metabolism

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12
Q

Function of clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactum?

A

Beta lactamase inhibitors

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13
Q

Use of 1st generation cephalosporins?

A

PEcK: Proteus, E. coli, and Klebsiella

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14
Q

Use of 2nd generation cephalosporins?

A

HEN PEck:

H. flu, enterobacter, Neisseria

Proteus, E. coli, and Klebsiella

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15
Q

Which cephalosporin can be used for pseudomonase?

A

Ceftazidime (3rd generation)

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16
Q

What are the 3 main diseases that ceftriazone is used for?

A

Meningitis

Gonorrhea

Disseminated Lyme Disease

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17
Q

What are the AE of cephalosporins?

A

Disulfram like

Hemolytic anemia (coombs +)

increase nephrotoxcity of aminoglycosides

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18
Q

Which carbepenem is broad spectrum beta lactamase?

A

Imipenem

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19
Q

What are carbapenems ALWAYS administered wit?

A

cilastatin–> inhibitor or renal dehydropeptidase I to decrease inactivation of drug in renal tubules

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20
Q

AE of carbepenems?

A

Skin rash and sseizures

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21
Q

What is aztreonam used for?

A

Gram (-) rods only!!!

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22
Q

What class of antibiotics is aztreonam synergistic with?

A

Aminoglycosides

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23
Q

What type of bugs dose vancomycin work on?

A

Gram (+) ONLY!!!

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24
Q

3 major AE of vancomycin?

A

NOT

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Thrombophlebitis

diffuse flushing (redman syndrome)

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25
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits tRNA binding at the A site?

A

Tetracyclines

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26
Q

Which antibiotics (2) lead to inhibition of translocation?

A

Macrolides and clindamycin

50S

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27
Q

Which antibiotic blocks peptidyl transferase?

A

Chloramphenicol (50S)

28
Q

What is required for aminoglycosides to work?

A

O2

29
Q

What are aminoglycosides used for?

A

Gram negative rod infections!!

30
Q

AE of aminoglycosides?

A

Nephrotoxicity, neuromuscilar blockade, ototoxicity, teratogen

31
Q

Mechanism of resistance to aminoglycosides?

A

acetylation, phosphorylation, pr adenulation

32
Q

AE of tetracyclines?

A

Discoloration of teeth, inhibition of bone growth, photosensitivity

33
Q

Mechanism of resistance to tetracyclines?

A

decreased uptake or increased efflux

34
Q

What is chloramphenicol used to treat?

A

H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, S. pneumoniae, Rickettsia rickettsii

35
Q

Which drug causes gray baby syndrome?

A

chlormaphenicol

36
Q

What is clindamycin used for?

A

anaerobic infection in aspiration pneumonias, lung abscesses, and oral infections

37
Q

Major AE associated with clindmycin?

A

C. diff colitis

38
Q

What are linezolid and tedizolid used for?

A

MRSA and VRE (GRAM + Only)

39
Q

What are the AEs of linezolid and tedizolid?

A

serotonin syndrome, BMS

40
Q

What do macrolides treat?

A

atypical pneumonias, chlamydia, B. pertussis

41
Q

AE of macrolides?

A

GI motility issues, prolonged QT interval

42
Q

Which AIDS illnesses can be prophylazed with trimethoprim?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii and toxoplasmosis

43
Q

AE of trimethoprim?

A

Megaloblastic anemia and granulocytopenia

44
Q

What do sulfonamdes treat?

A

nocardia, gram +, gram -, chlamydia

45
Q

AE of sulfonamides?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction, hemolysis (G6PD deficient), nephrotoxicity, photosensitivity

46
Q

AE of sulfonamides?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction, hemolysis (G6PD deficient), nephrotoxicity, photosensitivity

47
Q

What are the respiratory flruoroquinolones?

A

Levofloxacin and moxifloxacin

48
Q

What do fluoroquinolones treat?

A

Gram (-) rods of urinary and GI tracts (Pseudomonase, neisseria) and S. pneumo

49
Q

“lipopeptide that disrupts cell membrane of gram positive cocci”

A

Daptomycin

50
Q

Why can daptomycin NOT be used in respiratory infections?

A

inactivated by surfactant

51
Q

Why can daptomycin NOT be used in respiratory infections?

A

inactivated by surfactant

52
Q

AE of metronidazole?

A

Disulfram like reaction, HA, metallic taste

53
Q

AE of metronidazole?

A

Disulfram like reaction, HA, metallic taste

54
Q

DOC for pseudomonas?

A

Piperacillin and ticarcillin

55
Q

Which drugs treats anaerobic infections above the diaphragm?

A

Clindamycin

56
Q

What drug treats anaerobic infections below the diaphragm?

A

Metronidazole

57
Q

Which drug inhibits proteins synthesis by binding to 50S subunit and preventing formation of the initiation complex?

A

Linezolid

58
Q

“inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation”

A

macrolide

59
Q

“inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase”

A

trimethoprime

60
Q

“inhibit folate synthesis via inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase”

A

sulfonamides

61
Q

What can fluoroqinonoles NOT be taken with?

A

antacids

62
Q

Which antibiotic can cause tendon rupture in people over 60yo?

A

fluoroquinolones

63
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance to fluoroquinoloes?

A

chromosome encoded mutation in DNA gyrase

Plasmid mediated resistance

Efflux pumps

64
Q

What are the AE of daptomycin?

A

Myopathy

Rhabdomyolysis

65
Q

What is the mechanism of metronidazole?

A

forms toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA

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