Micro 3 High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

Which parasite causes:

biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which parasite causes:

Brain cysts and seizures

A

Taenia solium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which parasite causes:

hematuria, SCC of the bladder

A

Schistosoma haematombium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which parasite causes:

Liver (hydatid) cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which parasite causes:

Microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma, necator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which parasite causes:

Periorbital edema and myalgias

A

Trichinella spiralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which parasite causes:

Perianal prurtitis

A

Enterobius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which parasite causes:

Portal hypertension

A

Schistosoma mansoni, Shistosoma japonicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which parasite causes:

Vitamin B12 deficeincy

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is schistosoma contracted?

A

skin penetratoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which viral vaccines are live attenuated? (8)

A
Smallpox
Yellowfever
Rotavirus
VZV
Sabin polio virus
MMR
Influenza (intranasal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What viral vaccines are killed? (4)

A

Rabies
Influenza (injected)
Salk polio
HAV vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What viral vaccines are subunit vaccines? (2)

A

HBV

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which DNA virus has a ssDNA?

A

Parvoviridae (B19 virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which RNA virus has a dsRNA genome?

A

Reoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the (+)ssRNA viruses? (8)

A
Retrovirus
Togavirus
Flavivirus
Coronavirus
Hipevirus
Calicivirus
Picornavirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which DNA virus DOES NOT replicate in the nucleus?

A

Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which RNA viruses DO NOT replicate in the cytoplams?

A

Influenza virus

retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the NAKED DNA viruses?

A

PAPP

Papillomavirus, Adenovirus, Parvovirus, Polyomacirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the NAKED RNA viruses?

A

CPR Hep

Calcicivirus
Picornavirus
Reovirus
Hepevirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

A

Papilloma, polyoma, hepadna (hep B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Are herpesviruses naked or enveloped?

A

Enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Virus that causes keratoconjunctivitis?

A

HSV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which virus has owel eye inclusions?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which viruses show multinucleated giant cells on Tzank smear?
HSV-1 HSV-2 VZV
26
Which virus is heterophile (+)?
EBV
27
What type of virus is HBV?
Hepadnavirus
28
"aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease, 'slapped cheeks' rash in children"
Parvovirus B19
29
What are the two polyomaviruses?
JC virus--> PML BK virus--> targets kidney (posttransplant)
30
"flesh- colored papule with central umbilication"
Mollusicumm contagiosum (poxvirus)
31
Most common viral cause of temporal lobe encephalitis?
HSV-1
32
What are 2 complications of VZV?
Shingles | Post-herpatic neuralgia
33
What types of cells does EBV infect?
B cells (CD19+)
34
What are the atypical lymphyctes seen in EBV?
Reactive cytotoxic T cells
35
What is the monospot test?
Heterophile antibodies deteted by aggultination of sheep or horse RBCs
36
"High fever for several days that can cause seizures, followed by a diffuse macular rash"
HHV-6/ HHV-7 (Roseola)
37
Which RNA viruses are segmented?
Reoviris Orthomyxovirus Arenavirus Bunyavirus
38
What is the capsid symmetry of (+)ssRNA viruses?
Icosahedral
39
Which hepatitis virus is a picornavirus?
HepA
40
Which hepatitis virus is a hepevirus?
HEV
41
Which virus is a calcivirus?
Norovirus
42
Name the 5 picornaviruses?
PERCH ``` Poliovirus Echovirus Rhinovirus Coxsackievirus HAV ```
43
Which hepatitis virus is a flavivirus?
HCV
44
Family of rubella?
Togavirus
45
Which viruses have 2 copes of the genome?
retroviruses
46
What type of virus is hantavirus?
Bunyavirus
47
What type of virus are ebola/ marburg viruses?
Filoviruses
48
How are picornaviruses contracted?
Fecal- oral
49
Which picornavirus is acid labile?
Rhinovirus (destroyed by stomach acid)
50
What are the symptoms of yellow fever virus?
High fever, black vomitus, and jaundice
51
How does rotavirus cause disease?
billod destruction with atrophy leads to decreased absorption of Na and loss of K
52
What particle promotes influenza virus entry to cells?
Hemagglutinin
53
What particle allows for influenza progeny release?
Neuraminidase
54
What causes genetic shift?
reassortment
55
What causes genetic drift?
minor mutations
56
Where does rubella rash start?
Forehead
57
What do paramyxoviruses have that causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form mltinucleated cells?
F (fusion) protein
58
What are 2 symptoms of severe croup?
1- Pulsus paradoxus | 2- upper airway obstruction
59
Where does measles virus begin?
Behind the ears?
60
What are 3 possible complications of Measles?
1- SSPE (subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) 2- Encephalitis 3- Giant cell penumonia
61
What vitamin can reduce measles mortality in malnourished or vitamin deficient patients?
Vit A
62
What are the 3 common symptoms of mumps?
1- Parotid 2- Orchitis 3- Aseptic meningitis
63
Bullet shaped virus associated with Negri bodies found in purkinje cells of cerebellum and hippocampus?
Rabies
64
Which heoatitis viruses have an increased risk of HCC?
HBV, HCV, HDV
65
Which is more likely to become chronic...HBV or HCV?
HCV
66
What antibody indicates immunity to HBV?
Anti-HBs
67
What might be the sole positive marker of infection during the window period of HBV?
Anti- HBc (IgM)
68
What HBV associated particle indicates high transmissiblity and active viral replication?
HBeAg
69
What HBV associated particle indicates low transmissibility?
Anti- HBe
70
What does HIV env encode?
gp120--> attachment to host CD4+ T cells gp41--> fusion and entry
71
What does HIV gag encode for?
capsid protein
72
What does HIV pol endode for?
reverse transcriptase, aspartate prootease, and integrase
73
Coreceptor for HIV early and late?
Early- CCR5 Late- CXCR4
74
How is HIV diagnosed?
1- ELISA then 2- Weternblot
75
AIDS defining illnesses at what CD4 count?
76
Immunocompromised with AIDS at what CD4 count?
77
What are the AIDS diseases seen at CD4
Candida albicans (oral thrush) EBV (oral hairy leukoplaki) Bartonella henselae HHV-8 Cryptosporidium (chronic watery diarrhea) HPV (SCC of anus or cervix)
78
What are the AIDS diseases seen at CD4
Toxoplasma gondii (brain abscess) HIV dementia JC virus (PML) Pneumocystis jirovecii ("ground glass opacities")
79
What are the AIDS diseases seen at CD4
Aspergillus fumigatus (hemopytsis, pleurtic pain) Cryptococcus (meningitis) Candida albicans (esophagitis) CMV (retinitis, esophagitis, colitis, pneumonitis) Histoplasma capsulatum Mycobacterium avium- intracellulare