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Step 1 Review > GI High Yield > Flashcards

GI High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

What organs are derived from the foregut?

A

Esophagus –> duodenum

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2
Q

artery of the foregut?

A

celiac

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3
Q

PNS innervation of midgut and foregut?

A

Vagus

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4
Q

PNS innervation of hindgut?

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

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5
Q

What organs are derived from the midgut?

A

Duodenum–> transverse colon

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6
Q

What organs are derived from the hindgut?

A

Transverse colon–> anal canal

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7
Q

Artery of the midgut?

A

SMA

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8
Q

Artery of the hindgut?

A

IMA

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9
Q

Opmaphalocele and gastrochisis result from a failure of what type of closure?

A

Lateral fold

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10
Q

Bladder exstrophy results from a failure of what type of closure?

A

caudal fold closure

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11
Q

“extrusion of abd contents through abdominal folds not covered by peritoneum”

A

gastroschisis

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12
Q

“persistance of herniation of abd contents into umbilical cord, sealed by peritoneum”

A

omaphalocele

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13
Q

What chromosomal abnormality is associated with duodenal atresia?

A

Trisomy 21

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14
Q

What causes atresia of jejunum, ileum and colon?

A

vascular accident

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15
Q

What presents with drooling, choking and vomiting with first feeding?

A

Tracheoesophageal anomalies

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16
Q

What is a clinical test for tracheoseophageal fistulas?

A

passing nasogastric tube into the stomach

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17
Q

“palpable ‘olive’ mass in epigastric region and nonbilous projectile vomiting at 2-6 weeks”

A

congeital pyloric stenosis

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18
Q

What causes congeital pyloric stenosis?

A

hypertrophy!

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19
Q

The liver is derived from what embryonic layer?

A

endoderm (of the foregut)

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20
Q

What is the pancreas derived from?

A

foregut (endoderm)

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21
Q

Which pancreatic duct contributes to teh pancreatic duct?

A

ventral bud

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22
Q

BOTH pancreatic buds contribute to the ________ of the pancreas

A

Head of the pancreas

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23
Q

Which pancreatic bud encircles the 2nd part of the duodenum?

A

ventral bud

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24
Q

“ventral and dorsal parts of the pancreas fail to fuse at 8 weeks”

A

pancreas divism

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25
Q

What does the spleen arise from?

A

mesentery of the stomach (mesoderm)

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26
Q

Which organs are retroperitoneal?

DAD PUCKER

A

Suprarenal glands
Aorta and IVC
Duodenum

Pancreas
Ureter
Colon (ascending and descending)
Kidneys
Esophagus
Rectum
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27
Q

What ligament encloses the portal triad?

A

Hepatoduodenal ligament

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28
Q

Which ligament encloses the gastric arteries?

A

Gastrohepatic

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29
Q

Which ligament encloses the gastroepiploic arteries?

A

gastrocolic

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30
Q

Which nerve plexus (Meissner or auerbach) aids in secretion of fluid?

A

Meissner (submucosal)

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31
Q

Frequency of the basal electic rhythm of:
1- stomach
2- duodenum
3- ileum

A

1- stomach: 3/ min
2- duodenum: 12/ min
3- ileum: 8-9/min

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32
Q

Where are brunner glands found? What is their function?

A

Duodenum

Secretes HCO3-

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33
Q

Where are peyers patches found?

A

Ileum

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34
Q

Where are crypts of Lieberkuhn found?

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum and colon

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35
Q

What section of the small intestine has the largets amount of goblet cells?

A

Ileum

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36
Q

What causes SMA syndrome?

A

Transferse portion (3rd portion) of te duodenum is entrapped between SMA and Aorta–> intestinal obstruction

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37
Q

Where is the “watershed” area between the SMA and IMA?

A

Splenic Flexure of colon

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38
Q

Which arteries lie on the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

Left and right gastric

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39
Q

Which arteries lie on the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

Left and right gastroepiploic

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40
Q

What artery do the short gastric arteries come off of?

A

splenic

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41
Q

Which branch of the celiac tree can supply the seophagus?

A

Left gastric

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42
Q

Which 2 vessels compose esophageal varices?

A

Left gastric (portal) and esophageal (systemic)

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43
Q

Which 2 vessels compose umbilical varices?

A

Paraumbilical (portal) and small epigastric veins of the anterior sbd wall (systemic)

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44
Q

Which 2 vessels compose rectal varices?

A

Superior rectal (portal) and middle and inferior rectal (systemic)

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45
Q

What defines the pectate line?

A

formed where the endoderm (hindgut) meets to ectoderm

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46
Q

Internal hemorrhoids are caused by which artery?

A

Superior rectal artery (branch of the IMA)

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47
Q

External hemorrhoids are caused by which artery?

A

inferior rectal artery (branch of internal pudendal artery)

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48
Q

Do external or internal hemorrhoids normally drain into the portal system?

A

Internal

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49
Q

Which hemorrhoids are painful… internal or external?

A

External (somatic innervation)

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50
Q

“painless jaundice”

A

tumors at the head of the panceras that cause

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51
Q

“GE junction is displaced upward through the diaphragm”

Hourglass stomach

A

Sliding hiatal hernia

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52
Q

“GE junction is normal but the fundus of the stoach protrudes into the thorax”

A

diaphragmatic hernia

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53
Q

Which inguinal ring are indirect inguinal hernia associated with?

A

deep inguinal ring–> follows the path of the descent of the testes

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54
Q

Hernia common in older men?

A

direct inguinal hernia

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55
Q

Which hernia is common infemales?

A

femoral hernia

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56
Q

Cell source of gastrin?

A

G cells

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57
Q

Cell source of smatostatin?

A

D cells

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58
Q

Cell source of CCK?

A

I cells

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59
Q

What is the “inhibitory” hormone of the GI system?

A

Somatostatin

60
Q

Cellular source of secretin?

A

S cells

61
Q

Which hormone works to increase pancreatic HCO3- secretion, increase bile secretion, and decrease gastric acid secretion?

A

Secretin

62
Q

Cellular source of GIP?

A

K cells

63
Q

Cellular source of motilin?

A

small intested

64
Q

What does motilin do?

A

produces migrating motor complexes

65
Q

What does motilin do?

A

produces migrating motor complexes

66
Q

Which cells produce intrinsic factor?

A

parietal cells

67
Q

Which cells produce gastric acid?

A

parietal cells

68
Q

What cells produce pepsin?

A

chief cells

69
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme activates the others? (cleave proenzymes to enzyme)

A

Trypsinogen/ trypsin

70
Q

How is trypsinogen activated

A

Converted by trypsin by enterokinase/ enteropeptidase (brush- border enzyme)

71
Q

How are glucose and galactose taken up from the lumen of the intestine?

A

SGLT1 (Na dependent)

72
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the RLS of bile synthesis?

A

Cholesterol 7alpha- hydroxylase

73
Q

Bile salts are bile acids conjugated to either….

A

glycine or taurine (so they are water soluble)

74
Q

What enzyme s responsible for metabolizing heme?

A

Heme oxygenase

75
Q

Which type of salivary gland tumor is the most common and also recurrs after resection?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

76
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary tumor that has both mucinous and squamous components?

A

mucoepidermoid tumor

77
Q

Which salivart gland usually involves the facial nerve?

A

mucoepidermoid tumor

78
Q

“benign cystic salivary gland tumor with germinal centers”

A

Warthing tumor

79
Q

“loss of auerbach plexus and failure of relaxation of LES”

A

achaasia

80
Q

Which infectious disease is associated with chagas disease?

A

achalasia

81
Q

“trachealization of the esophagus”

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

82
Q

Linear ulcers in the esophagus?

A

CMV esophagitis

83
Q

Punched out ulcers inthe esophagus?

A

HSV1 ensophagitis

84
Q

“dysphagie + Fe deficient anemia + esophageal webs”

A

Plummer vinson syndrome

85
Q

Curling ulcers are due to…

A

burns!

86
Q

Cushing ulcer is due to…

A

brain injury (increased vagal stimulation)

87
Q

“gastric hyperplasia (hypertrophied rugae), excess mucus production with resultant protein loss and parietal cell atrophy”

A

Menetriers disease

88
Q

Is intestinal adenocarcinoma of the stomach or diffuse adenocarcinoma of the stomach associated with H. pylori?

A

Intestinal type

89
Q

“signet ring cells found int he stomach”

A

difuse type adenocarcinoma

90
Q

Which ulcer type (gastric or duodenal) is assocated with decreased pain with feeding?

A

duodenal

91
Q

Gastric ulcer perforation lead to referred shoulder pain through whch nerve?

A

phrenic nerve

92
Q

HLA type associated with celiac disease?

A

HLA DQ2

HLA DQ8

93
Q

Immune cell types found in lamina propria of villi in celiac disease?

A

Lymphocytes–> Helper T cell mediated damage

94
Q

Inheritance pattern of lactase deficiency?

A

AR

95
Q

Test to differentiate pancreatic insufficiency from intestinal mucosal deficiencies?

A

D- xylose absorption test–> normal in pancreatic insufficiecny and decreased in intestinal mucosal defects

96
Q

Difference between tropical sprue and celiac sprue?

A

tropical responds to Abx

97
Q

“cobblestone mucosa, creeping fat, bowel wall thickening- string sign on barium swallow”

A

Crohn disease

98
Q

Which is mediated by Th1…ulcerative colitis or crohn?

A

Crohns

99
Q

Skin condition assocaited with CD and UC?

A

erythema nodosum

100
Q

Does IBS pain improve or worsen with defecation?

A

Improve

101
Q

“blind pouch protruding from the alimentary tract that communicates with the gut”

A

diverticulim

102
Q

What factors can increase the risk of diverticulosis (caused by false diverticula)?

A

increased intraluminal pressure and focal weakness in the colon

103
Q

What type of fistula can be seen in diverticulitis?

A

colovesical fistula…fistula with bladder

104
Q

What part of the esophagus are zenker diverticulum found in?

A

upper (it is a false diverticulum)

105
Q

“failure of the vitelline duct to involute”

A

Meckel diverticulum

106
Q

2 complications of meckel diverticulum?

A

Intussusception and volvulus

107
Q

Most common site of volvulus in infants and children?

A

Midgut

108
Q

Most common location of volvulus in elderly?

A

Sigmoid colon

109
Q

What is the most common site of intussuscpetion?

A

iliocecal junction

110
Q

“currant jelly stools”

A

Intussusception or acute mesenteric ischemia

111
Q

Hirschsprung disease is associated with what mutation?

A

RET gene mutation

112
Q

“intestinal hypomotility without obstruction”

A

ileus

113
Q

Where is APC gene located?

A

Chromosome 5

114
Q

“FAP + osteoma/sarcoma + hypertrophy of retinal pigment + impacted teeth”

A

Gardner syndrome

115
Q

“FAP + malignant CNS tumor”

A

Turcot syndrome

116
Q

“Hamartomas throughout the GI tract and hyperpigmentation on mouth, lips, genitals and hands”

A

Peutx- Jeghers Syndrome

117
Q

Which adenomatous polyps have higher malignant potentioal…tubular or villous?

A

Villous

118
Q

Most common location of colon cancer?

A

Rectosigmoid > ascending > descending

119
Q

Most common location of colon cancer?

A

Rectosigmoid > ascending > descending

120
Q

Tumor marker for colorectal cancer?

A

CEA tumor marker

121
Q

Adenoma- carcinoma sequence?

A

APC–> KRAS–> p53

122
Q

ALP is a marker for…

A

Cholestatic and obstructive hepatobiliary disease, HCC, infiltrative disorders, bone disease

123
Q

Cerulopasmin is decreased in….

A

Wilson disease

124
Q

If you have an elevated ALP how can you differentiate liver / biliary disease from bone diseaes?

A

gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)

125
Q

What organelle is targeted in Reye syndrome?

A

Mitochondria–> aspirin metabolites decrease beta oxidation by reversible inhibition of mitochondrial enzymes

126
Q

Mallory bodies?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

127
Q

Which zone in the liver is effected most in alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

Zone III (central vein)

128
Q

Common benign liver tumor?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

129
Q

What exposure are angiosarcoma of the liver associated with?

A

arsenic and vinyl chloride

130
Q

3 more common tumors to met to the liver?

A

GI, breast and lung

131
Q

“misfolded gene product protein aggregates in hepatocelluar ER”

A

A1AT defciency

132
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

Bilirubin deposition in brain (particulary the basal ganglia)

133
Q

“mildly decreased UDPGT conjucation and impaired bilirubin uptake”

A

Gilbert syndrome

134
Q

“grossly black liver due to defective liver excretion of CB”

A

Dubin- Johnson Syndrome

135
Q

Mutation seen in Wilson disease?

A

AR inherited defect in Cu excretion into bile by hepatocyte Cu trasporting ATPase (ATP7B) gene

136
Q

Treatment for Wilson disease?

A

Penicillamine or trientine

137
Q

HLA type associated with Hemochromatosis?

A

HLA- A3

138
Q

autoantibodies seen in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antbody (including IgM

139
Q

“beading/ onion skinning of bile dict”

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

140
Q

“fistula between gallbladder and small intestine leading to air in biliary tree and allowing the passage of gallstones into the intestinal tract”

A

gallstone ileus

141
Q

Which viris can cause cholecystitis?

A

CMV

142
Q

“autodigestion of pancreas by pancreatic enzymes”

A

acute pancreatitis

143
Q

Which viral infection is associated with acute pancreatitis?

A

mumps

144
Q

Hypo or hypercalcemia associated with acute pancreatitis?

A

Hypocalcemia

145
Q

Tumor marker of pancreatic adenoma?

A

CA 19-9

146
Q

Trousseau syndrome?

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma

Step 1 Review (62 decks)

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