Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 Review > Micro 2 High Yield > Flashcards

Micro 2 High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

Which neisseria is intracellular?

A

N. gonorroeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which neisseria ferments maltose?

A

N. meningococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment for N. gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone ( + azithromycin or doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment for N. meningococci?

A

Ceftriaxone or penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of deficiency leads to increased risk of infection with N. meningococci?

A

Deficiency in C5- C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: H. flu can only be grown on chocolate agar plates

A

False…it can also grow on a regular plate with S. aureus due to the beta hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is mucosal H. flu treated?

A

Amoxicillin +/- clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is H. flu meningitis treated?

A

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which vaccine has a dipherthia toxic conjugation?

A

H. flue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 2 things does Legionella need in order to grow?

A

Fe and Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is legionella transmitted?

A

Aerosol transmission from environmental water source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does legionella present in immunoCOMPROMISED hosts?

A

Legionnaires disease–> Pneumonia + GI + CNS symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 2 risk factors for legionella?

A

Smoking

Alcoholics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment for legionella?

A

Fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a physical exam finding indicative of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Fruity odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does EPEC infections cause disease?

A

E. coli adhere to apical surfaces, flatten villi and prevent reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Possible complications of EHEC?

A

HUS! Reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What risk factors are associated with klebsiella infection?

A

Alcoholics

Diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

“currant jelly sputum”

A

Klebsiella lobar pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What gram (-) rod likes to grow at 42 C?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are common complications of Campylobacter infections?

A

reactive arthritis

guillain barre syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the infectious dose of C. jejuni? Shigella?

A

Very LOW for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the immune cells seen in Salmonella typhi infection?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the immune cells seen in salmonella spp and Shigella?

A

PMNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: antibiotics shorten the course of a salmonella infection?

A

FALSE–> Prolong infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What receptor does V. cholerae enterotoxin permanently activate?

A

Gs–> increase cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Are yersinia enterocolitic motile? or nonmotile?

A

They are motile at 25C and nonmotile at 37C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of environment (acidic or alkaline) does H. pylori create?

A

Alkaline (urease +)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is treponemia usually visualized?

A

Dark field microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name the 3 spirochetes:

A

Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does leptospira typically present?

A

Influenza with GI symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is borrelia burgdorferi transmitted?

A

Ixodes deer tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 main initial symptoms of lyme disease?

A

1- erythema chronicum migrans
2- Flu like symptoms
3- facial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 4 main later symptoms of lyme disease?

A

1- monoarthritis
2- migratory polyarthritis
Cardiac (AV nodal block)
Neurologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does primary syphilis present?

A

Painless chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?

A

1- maculopapular rash

2- condylomata lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is a syphilis diagnosis made in primary stage?

A

Dark field or VDRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the signs of congenital syphilis?

A 
1- facial abnormalities
2- snuffles
3- saddle nose
4- notched teeth, mulberry molarss
5- short maxilla
6- saber shins
7- CN VIII deafness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the symptoms of tertiary syphilis?

A

1- gummas
2- aortitiss vasa casorum destruction)
3- neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)
4- Argyll roberston

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can give a VDRL false positive?

A

Viral infection
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus and leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

“pleomorphic gram variable rod involved in bacterial vaginosis”

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of gardnerella vaginalis?

A

Fishy smell

Clue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is gardnerella vaginalis treated?

A

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe the rash seen in RMSF (Rickettsia rickettsii)?

A

Starts at wrists then spreads out, sparing palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the rash of typhus (R. typhi and R. prowazekii)?

A

starts centrall then spreads out, sparing palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the classic triad of RMSF?

A

Headache, fever, rash (vasculitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

“monocytes with morulae (berry like inclusions) in cytoplasm”

A

Ehrlichiosis

48
Q

What causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii–> does not require an arthropod vector

49
Q

Why are chlaydia obligate intracellular pathogens?

A

Cannot make their own ATP

50
Q

“chronic infection causing blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis in Africa”

A

C. trachomatis Types A, B, C

51
Q

Chlamydial infection serotype that causes urethritis/ PID ectopic pregnangy, an neonatal pneumonia?

A

Types D-K

52
Q

“small, painless ulcers on genitals–> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (buboes)”

A

C. trachomatis Types L1, L2, L3

53
Q

Which pneumonia can cause cold agglutinins (IgM)?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

54
Q

“mulberry shaped colonies”

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

55
Q

What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Macrolides
Doxycycline
Fluoroquinolones

56
Q

Fungi in missisippi and ohio riber valleys?

A

Histoplasmosis

57
Q

“macrophages filled with fungi”

A

Histoplasmosis

58
Q

What exposure is histoplasmosis associated with?

A

Bird/ bat droppings

59
Q

Fungi in the Mississippi river and central america?

A

Blastomycosis

60
Q

What exposure is associated with blastomycosis?

A

Beaver dams/ rotting wood

61
Q

Broad based buds?

A

Blastomycosis

62
Q

Fungi in the SW US/ Cali?

A

Coccidiodomycosis

63
Q

What does coccidiodomycosis cause?

A

Pneumonia

Meningitis

64
Q

“spherule filled with endospores”

A

Coccidiomycosis

65
Q

“budding yeast with ‘captain’s wheel’ formation”

A

Paracoccidiodomycosis

66
Q

Fungi in latin america?

A

Paracoccidiodomycosis

67
Q

What fungi can cause tinea (dermatophytes)?

A

Micosporum, Tichophyton, Epidermophyton (dermatophytes)

68
Q

What fungi can cause tinea versicolor?

A

Malassezia (yeast like fungus–> not a dermatophyte)

69
Q

“spaghetti and meatballs” fungus?

A

tinea versicolor–> malassezia

70
Q

What is treatment for tinea versicolor?

A

Selenium silfide

71
Q

Name 4 opportunistic fungi?

A

1- Candida albicans
2- Aspergillus fumigatus
3- Cryptococcus neoformans
4- Mucor and Rhizopus

72
Q

“pseudohyphase and budding yeast. germ tube + at 37C”

A

Candida alblicans

73
Q

“septate branching hyphae at 45 degree angles or conidiophore with radiating chains of spores”

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

74
Q

“Yeast with wide capsular halos and unequal budding in india ink stain”

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

75
Q

What exposure is associated with with cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Pigeon

76
Q

What identification test can be done for cryptococcus?

A

Latex agglutination test detect polysaccharide capsular antigen

77
Q

What risk factors are associaed with mucor and rhizopus?

A

Diabetes and neutropenia

78
Q

Where and how do mucor and rhizopus proliferate?

A

Fungi proliferate in blood vessel walls, penetrate cribiform plate and then enter the brain

79
Q

“disc shaped yaest that forms of methenamine silver sain of lung tissue:

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

80
Q

What is the treatment and prophylaxis for pneymocystis?

A

TMO- SMX, pentamidine, dapsone

81
Q

“dimorphic, cigar shaped budding yeast that lives on vegitation”

A

Sporothrix schenckii

82
Q

How does sporothrix present?

A

Rose gardener’s disease–> local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphadenitis)

83
Q

How is giardia diagnosed?

A

Trophozoites or cysts in stool

84
Q

Treatment for Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

85
Q

“bloody diarrhea + liver abscess”

A

Entamoeba histolytica

86
Q

How is Entamoeba histolytica (amebiasis) diagnosed?

A

Trophozoites or cysts in stool

87
Q

Treatment for Entamoeba histolytica (amebiasis)?

A

Metronidazole, iodoquinol

88
Q

“severe diarrhea in AIDS and mild in immunocompetent”

A

Cryptosporidium

89
Q

How is Cryptosporidium diagnosed?

A

OOcysts in acid fast stain

90
Q

How is Cryptosporidium treated?

A

nitazoxanide

91
Q

“classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications”

A

Toxoplasma gondii

92
Q

How is toxoplamsa transmitted?

A

Cysts in MEAT

Oocysts in CAT FECES

93
Q

How is toxoplasma treated?

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

94
Q

“rapidly fatal menigoencephalitis with altered sense of smell”

A

Naegleria fowleri–> contracted by swimming in freshwater lakes (enter via cribiform plate)

95
Q

“enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever, somnolence, coma”

A

Trypanosoma brucei

96
Q

How is trypanosoma brucei contracted?

A

Tsetse fly

97
Q

“fever and hemolytic anemia seen in NE US”

A

Babesia

98
Q

How is babesia diagnosed?

A

Blood smear–> RBC haev Maltese cross or Ring form of the parasites

99
Q

How is babesia treated?

A

Atovaquone + azithromycin

100
Q

“dilated cardiomyopathy with apical atrophy, megacolon, megaesophagus”

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

101
Q

How is T. cruzi transmitted?

A

Reduviid bug

102
Q

What is the treatment for T. cruzi?

A

Benznidazole or nifurtimox

103
Q

“spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia”

A

Leishmania donovani

104
Q

“frothy, foul smelling, green discharge associated with a strawberry cervix”

A

trichomonas vaginalis

105
Q

How is trichomaonas treated?

A

Metronidazole

106
Q

“intestinal infection with possible obstruction at ileocecal valve”

A

Ascaris lumbricoides–> giant worm

107
Q

How are the following treated:

Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongyloides stercoralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necantor americanus
Trichinella spiralis
A

Enterobius vermicularis–> bendazoles

Ascaris lumbricoides–> bendazoles

Strongyloides stercoralis–> ivermectin/ bendazoles

Ancylostoma duodenale–> bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate

Necantor americanus–> bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate

Trichinella spiralis–> bendazoles

108
Q

Which nematoes are contracted via larvae penetration of the skin?

A

Stronglyoides atercoralis

Ancylostoma duodenale

Necator americanus

109
Q

What causes river blindness?

A

Onchocerca volvulus

110
Q

What causes elephantiasis?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

111
Q

“swelling in skin, worm in conjunctiva”

A

Loa loa

112
Q

Which neomatodes are contracted via ingestion?

A

Enterobius
Ascaris
Toxocara
Necantor

113
Q

If you ingest larvae of taenia solium what type of infection do you get? What about ingesting eggs?

A

Larrvae–> intestinal infection

Eggs–> cystercosis/ neurocystericosis

114
Q

How is taenia solium treated?

A

Praziquantel

115
Q

Symptoms of diphyllobothrium latum infection?

A

vitamin B12 deficiency–> mealoblastic anemia

116
Q

“hydatid cysts in the liver, causing anaphylaxis if antigens are released”

A

Echinococcus granulosis

117
Q

How is achinococcus granulosis treated?

A

albendazole

Step 1 Review (62 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions