Micro 2 High Yield Flashcards
1
Q
Which neisseria is intracellular?
A
N. gonorroeae
2
Q
Which neisseria ferments maltose?
A
N. meningococci
3
Q
What is the treatment for N. gonorrhea?
A
Ceftriaxone ( + azithromycin or doxycycline)
4
Q
What is the treatment for N. meningococci?
A
Ceftriaxone or penicillin G
5
Q
What type of deficiency leads to increased risk of infection with N. meningococci?
A
Deficiency in C5- C8
6
Q
T/F: H. flu can only be grown on chocolate agar plates
A
False…it can also grow on a regular plate with S. aureus due to the beta hemolysis
7
Q
How is mucosal H. flu treated?
A
Amoxicillin +/- clavulanate
8
Q
How is H. flu meningitis treated?
A
Ceftriaxone
9
Q
Which vaccine has a dipherthia toxic conjugation?
A
H. flue
10
Q
What 2 things does Legionella need in order to grow?
A
Fe and Cysteine
11
Q
How is legionella transmitted?
A
Aerosol transmission from environmental water source
12
Q
How does legionella present in immunoCOMPROMISED hosts?
A
Legionnaires disease–> Pneumonia + GI + CNS symptoms
13
Q
What are 2 risk factors for legionella?
A
Smoking
Alcoholics
14
Q
What is the treatment for legionella?
A
Fluoroquinolone
15
Q
What is a physical exam finding indicative of pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A
Fruity odor
16
Q
How does EPEC infections cause disease?
A
E. coli adhere to apical surfaces, flatten villi and prevent reabsorption
17
Q
Possible complications of EHEC?
A
HUS! Reactive arthritis
18
Q
What risk factors are associated with klebsiella infection?
A
Alcoholics
Diabetics
19
Q
“currant jelly sputum”
A
Klebsiella lobar pneumonia
20
Q
What gram (-) rod likes to grow at 42 C?
A
Campylobacter jejuni
21
Q
What are common complications of Campylobacter infections?
A
reactive arthritis
guillain barre syndrome
22
Q
Describe the infectious dose of C. jejuni? Shigella?
A
Very LOW for both
23
Q
What are the immune cells seen in Salmonella typhi infection?
A
Monocytes
24
Q
What are the immune cells seen in salmonella spp and Shigella?
A
PMNs
25
T/F: antibiotics shorten the course of a salmonella infection?
FALSE--> Prolong infection
26
What receptor does V. cholerae enterotoxin permanently activate?
Gs--> increase cAMP
27
Are yersinia enterocolitic motile? or nonmotile?
They are motile at 25C and nonmotile at 37C
28
What type of environment (acidic or alkaline) does H. pylori create?
Alkaline (urease +)
29
How is treponemia usually visualized?
Dark field microscopy
30
Name the 3 spirochetes:
Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema
31
How does leptospira typically present?
Influenza with GI symptoms
32
How is borrelia burgdorferi transmitted?
Ixodes deer tick
33
What are the 3 main initial symptoms of lyme disease?
1- erythema chronicum migrans
2- Flu like symptoms
3- facial nerve palsy
34
What are the 4 main later symptoms of lyme disease?
1- monoarthritis
2- migratory polyarthritis
Cardiac (AV nodal block)
Neurologic
35
How does primary syphilis present?
Painless chancre
36
What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?
1- maculopapular rash
| 2- condylomata lata
37
How is a syphilis diagnosis made in primary stage?
Dark field or VDRL
38
What are the signs of congenital syphilis?
```
1- facial abnormalities
2- snuffles
3- saddle nose
4- notched teeth, mulberry molarss
5- short maxilla
6- saber shins
7- CN VIII deafness
```
39
What are the symptoms of tertiary syphilis?
1- gummas
2- aortitiss vasa casorum destruction)
3- neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)
4- Argyll roberston
40
What can give a VDRL false positive?
Viral infection
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus and leprosy
41
"pleomorphic gram variable rod involved in bacterial vaginosis"
Gardnerella vaginalis
42
What are the signs and symptoms of gardnerella vaginalis?
Fishy smell
| Clue cells
43
How is gardnerella vaginalis treated?
Metronidazole
| Clindamycin
44
Describe the rash seen in RMSF (Rickettsia rickettsii)?
Starts at wrists then spreads out, sparing palms and soles
45
Describe the rash of typhus (R. typhi and R. prowazekii)?
starts centrall then spreads out, sparing palms and soles
46
What is the classic triad of RMSF?
Headache, fever, rash (vasculitis)
47
"monocytes with morulae (berry like inclusions) in cytoplasm"
Ehrlichiosis
48
What causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii--> does not require an arthropod vector
49
Why are chlaydia obligate intracellular pathogens?
Cannot make their own ATP
50
"chronic infection causing blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis in Africa"
C. trachomatis Types A, B, C
51
Chlamydial infection serotype that causes urethritis/ PID ectopic pregnangy, an neonatal pneumonia?
Types D-K
52
"small, painless ulcers on genitals--> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (buboes)"
C. trachomatis Types L1, L2, L3
53
Which pneumonia can cause cold agglutinins (IgM)?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
54
"mulberry shaped colonies"
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
55
What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Macrolides
Doxycycline
Fluoroquinolones
56
Fungi in missisippi and ohio riber valleys?
Histoplasmosis
57
"macrophages filled with fungi"
Histoplasmosis
58
What exposure is histoplasmosis associated with?
Bird/ bat droppings
59
Fungi in the Mississippi river and central america?
Blastomycosis
60
What exposure is associated with blastomycosis?
Beaver dams/ rotting wood
61
Broad based buds?
Blastomycosis
62
Fungi in the SW US/ Cali?
Coccidiodomycosis
63
What does coccidiodomycosis cause?
Pneumonia
| Meningitis
64
"spherule filled with endospores"
Coccidiomycosis
65
"budding yeast with 'captain's wheel' formation"
Paracoccidiodomycosis
66
Fungi in latin america?
Paracoccidiodomycosis
67
What fungi can cause tinea (dermatophytes)?
Micosporum, Tichophyton, Epidermophyton (dermatophytes)
68
What fungi can cause tinea versicolor?
Malassezia (yeast like fungus--> not a dermatophyte)
69
"spaghetti and meatballs" fungus?
tinea versicolor--> malassezia
70
What is treatment for tinea versicolor?
Selenium silfide
71
Name 4 opportunistic fungi?
1- Candida albicans
2- Aspergillus fumigatus
3- Cryptococcus neoformans
4- Mucor and Rhizopus
72
"pseudohyphase and budding yeast. germ tube + at 37C"
Candida alblicans
73
"septate branching hyphae at 45 degree angles or conidiophore with radiating chains of spores"
Aspergillus fumigatus
74
"Yeast with wide capsular halos and unequal budding in india ink stain"
Cryptococcus neoformans
75
What exposure is associated with with cryptococcus neoformans?
Pigeon
76
What identification test can be done for cryptococcus?
Latex agglutination test detect polysaccharide capsular antigen
77
What risk factors are associaed with mucor and rhizopus?
Diabetes and neutropenia
78
Where and how do mucor and rhizopus proliferate?
Fungi proliferate in blood vessel walls, penetrate cribiform plate and then enter the brain
79
"disc shaped yaest that forms of methenamine silver sain of lung tissue:
Pneumocystis jirovecii
80
What is the treatment and prophylaxis for pneymocystis?
TMO- SMX, pentamidine, dapsone
81
"dimorphic, cigar shaped budding yeast that lives on vegitation"
Sporothrix schenckii
82
How does sporothrix present?
Rose gardener's disease--> local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphadenitis)
83
How is giardia diagnosed?
Trophozoites or cysts in stool
84
Treatment for Giardia?
Metronidazole
85
"bloody diarrhea + liver abscess"
Entamoeba histolytica
86
How is Entamoeba histolytica (amebiasis) diagnosed?
Trophozoites or cysts in stool
87
Treatment for Entamoeba histolytica (amebiasis)?
Metronidazole, iodoquinol
88
"severe diarrhea in AIDS and mild in immunocompetent"
Cryptosporidium
89
How is Cryptosporidium diagnosed?
OOcysts in acid fast stain
90
How is Cryptosporidium treated?
nitazoxanide
91
"classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications"
Toxoplasma gondii
92
How is toxoplamsa transmitted?
Cysts in MEAT
Oocysts in CAT FECES
93
How is toxoplasma treated?
Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
94
"rapidly fatal menigoencephalitis with altered sense of smell"
Naegleria fowleri--> contracted by swimming in freshwater lakes (enter via cribiform plate)
95
"enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever, somnolence, coma"
Trypanosoma brucei
96
How is trypanosoma brucei contracted?
Tsetse fly
97
"fever and hemolytic anemia seen in NE US"
Babesia
98
How is babesia diagnosed?
Blood smear--> RBC haev Maltese cross or Ring form of the parasites
99
How is babesia treated?
Atovaquone + azithromycin
100
"dilated cardiomyopathy with apical atrophy, megacolon, megaesophagus"
Trypanosoma cruzi
101
How is T. cruzi transmitted?
Reduviid bug
102
What is the treatment for T. cruzi?
Benznidazole or nifurtimox
103
"spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia"
Leishmania donovani
104
"frothy, foul smelling, green discharge associated with a strawberry cervix"
trichomonas vaginalis
105
How is trichomaonas treated?
Metronidazole
106
"intestinal infection with possible obstruction at ileocecal valve"
Ascaris lumbricoides--> giant worm
107
How are the following treated:
```
Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongyloides stercoralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necantor americanus
Trichinella spiralis
```
Enterobius vermicularis--> bendazoles
Ascaris lumbricoides--> bendazoles
Strongyloides stercoralis--> ivermectin/ bendazoles
Ancylostoma duodenale--> bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
Necantor americanus--> bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
Trichinella spiralis--> bendazoles
108
Which nematoes are contracted via larvae penetration of the skin?
Stronglyoides atercoralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
109
What causes river blindness?
Onchocerca volvulus
110
What causes elephantiasis?
Wuchereria bancrofti
111
"swelling in skin, worm in conjunctiva"
Loa loa
112
Which neomatodes are contracted via ingestion?
Enterobius
Ascaris
Toxocara
Necantor
113
If you ingest larvae of taenia solium what type of infection do you get? What about ingesting eggs?
Larrvae--> intestinal infection
Eggs--> cystercosis/ neurocystericosis
114
How is taenia solium treated?
Praziquantel
115
Symptoms of diphyllobothrium latum infection?
vitamin B12 deficiency--> mealoblastic anemia
116
"hydatid cysts in the liver, causing anaphylaxis if antigens are released"
Echinococcus granulosis
117
How is achinococcus granulosis treated?
albendazole
