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Step 1 Review > Neuro Pharm High Yield > Flashcards

Neuro Pharm High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

How does epinephrine treat glaucoma?

A

decrease aqueous humor production

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2
Q

How does bromocriptine treat glaucoma?

A

decrease aqueous humor production

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3
Q

How do timolol, betaxolol and carteolol treat glaucoma?

A

decrease aqueous humor production

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4
Q

How does acetazolamide treat glaucoma?

A

decrease aqueous humor production via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

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5
Q

What are the direct cholinomimetics used for glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine

Carbachol

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of pilocarpine and carbachol?

A

increase outflow of aqueous humor (constrict ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshworl)

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7
Q

What are the indirect cholinomimetics used for glaucoma?

A

Physostigmine

Echothiopate

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of physostigmine and echothiopate for glaucoma treatment?

A

increase outflow of aqueous humor (constrict ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshworl)

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9
Q

How does latanprost treat glaucoma?

A

increase outflow of aqueous humor

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10
Q

Which opiod is used for diarrhea?

A

Lopiramide or diphenoxylate

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11
Q

Which receptors do opioids agonize? What does their action lead to?

A

mu receptors

open K+ channels, close Ca2+ channels–> decrease synaptic transmission

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12
Q

Which opioid is used as a cough suppressant?

A

dextromethorphan

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13
Q

Which opioids are used in heroine addicts as maintenance drugs?

A

Methadone

Buprenorphine + nalaxone

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14
Q

What are the major AEs of opiods?

A

Respiratory depression

Constipation (no tolerance)

Miosis (no tolerance)

CNS depression

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15
Q

Which drug is a kappa opioid receptor agonist and a mu opioid receptor partial agonist?

A

Butorphanol

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16
Q

What are the benefits of butorphanol?

A

produces analgeia without as much respiratory depression

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17
Q

What drug is a weak opiod agonist but also inhibits 5-HT and NE reuptake?

A

Tramadol

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18
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of ethosuximide?

A

blocks thalamic T type Ca2+ channels

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20
Q

What are the AE of ethosuximide?

A

FGHIJ

Fatigue
GI distress
Headache
Itching
Stevens Johnson
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21
Q

What is the DOC for acute status epilepticus?

A

Benzos! (dazepam and lorazepam)

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22
Q

What s the mechanism of Benzos?

A

Increase GABA a action

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23
Q

What are the 3 first line treatments for Tonic clonic treatments?

A

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Valproic Acid

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24
Q

What is the 1st line choice for status epilepticus prophylaxis?

A

Phenytoin

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25
Q

What is the mechanism of phenytoin?

A

Increase Na channel inactivation

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26
Q

Which antiepileptic is eliminated via zero order kinetics?

A

Phenytoin

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27
Q

What are the AEs of phenytoin?

A

gingival hyperplasia, hirsutim, SLE like syndrome

INDUCTION of P450

Stevens Johnson syndrome

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28
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for simple AND complex partial seizures?

A

Carbamazepine

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of carbamazepine?

A

increase Na channel inactivatoin

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30
Q

What is the AE of carbemazepine?

A

agranulocytosis, liver tox

INDUCTION of P450

SIADH

Steven Johnson syndrome

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31
Q

What is the mechanism of valproic acid?

A

Increase Na channel inactivation

increased GABA concentratoin by inhibiting GABA transaminase

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32
Q

What are the AE of valproic acid?

A

Hepatotox, tremor, NO USE IN PREGNANCY

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33
Q

What is gabapentin used for?

A

Partial seizures

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34
Q

What is the mechanism of gabapentin?

A

inhibits volt gated Ca channels, designed as GABA analog

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35
Q

What is used for post hepatic neuralgia pain?

A

gabapentin

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36
Q

What is used for post hepatic neuralgia pain?

A

gabapentin

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37
Q

What is phenobarbital used for?

A

Patial and tonic clonic seizures

38
Q

Mechanism of phenobarbitol

A

Increase GABA a action

39
Q

What are the AEs of phenobarbitol?

A

INDUCTION of P450, sedation, tolerance

40
Q

What is the DOC for seizures in neonates?

A

phenobarbitol

41
Q

Which antiepileptic can cause kidney stones?

A

Topiramate

42
Q

What is lamotrigine used for?

A

All except status epilepticus

43
Q

What is the mechanism of lamotrigine?

A

Blocks volt gated Na channels

44
Q

Which antiepiletic drugs can cause steven johnson reaction?

A

Ethosuximide

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Lamotrigine

45
Q

Which drug increases the duration of Cl- channel opening?

A

Barbiturates

46
Q

Who are barbs contraindicated in?

A

people with porphyria

47
Q

How do barbiturates interact with P450?

A

INDUCES

48
Q

Which drug fascilitates GABA a action by increaing frequncy of Cl- channel opening?

A

Benzo

49
Q

Of the following benzo’s, which DO NOT have active metabolites and also have a shorter half life?

Diazepam
Alprazolam
triazolam
lorazepam
oxazepam
midazolam
temazepam
A

ATOM

Alazopram
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam

50
Q

What is the antidote for benzos

A

Flumazenil

51
Q

What is the action of zolpidem, zaleplon, eszopiclone?

A

specific to BZ1 subtype

52
Q

How does potency of anesthetic and lipid solubility relate?

A

the more lipid soluble, to more potent and the longer the action time

53
Q

What are the following drugs:

Halothane
Enflurane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Methoxyflurane
N2O
A

Inhaled anesthetics

54
Q

What is the response of cerebral blood flow to inhaled anesthetics?

A

Increase

55
Q

What is a possible serve/ life threatening response to inhaled anesthetics?

A

Malignant hyperthermia–> fever and severe muscle contractions

56
Q

What is the treatment for inhaled anesthetics?

A

Dantrolene

57
Q

What is thiopental used for during surgery?

A

induction and short term surgical procedures

58
Q

What is midazolam used for?

A

endoscopy

59
Q

What is ketamine used for?

A

acts as dissociative anesthtics

60
Q

What is the mechanism of ketamine?

A

Blocks NMDA receptor

61
Q

What is propofol used for?

A

Sedation in ICU rapid anesthesia induction, short procedures

62
Q

How can you tell an ester from an amide local anesthetic by name?

A

Amides have two “i’s” in the name

63
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

Block Na channels by binding to specific receptors on inner portion of channel

64
Q

What type of Na channels do local anesthetics prefer?

A

Actvated Na channels

65
Q

Which factor predominates in action of local anesthtics…size or myelination?

A

Size!

So small myeliated and unmyelinated will be blocked before large myelinated and unmyelinated

66
Q

What is the order of types of fibers blocked by locals?

A

1- pain
2- temp
3- Touch
4- pressure

67
Q

Which local can cuase methemoglobinemia?

A

Benzocaine

68
Q

What local can cause severe cardiovascular toxicity?

A

Bupivacaine

69
Q

What are the 2 phases of depolarizing NM blockers (succinylcholine)?

A

Phase I (prolonged depolarization

Phase II (repolarized but blocked)

70
Q

Can succinylcholine blockage be revered?

A

Phase II can be revered by cholinesterase inhibitors

71
Q

What is the action of:

tubocurarine
pancuronium
vecuronium

A

Nondepolarizing NM block–> competive antagonist of ACh receptor

72
Q

What is the action of:

tubocurarine
pancuronium
vecuronium

A

Nondepolarizing NM block–> competive antagonist of ACh receptor

73
Q

What is the mechanism of dantroline?

A

Prevents the release of Ca from teh sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

74
Q

What is the mechanism of baclofen?

A

Inhibits GABA B receptors at spinal cord lvel

75
Q

What is baclofen used for?

A

muscle spasms

76
Q

What is the mechanism of cyclobenzaprin?

A

centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant, related to TCAs

77
Q

What are the drugs used for Parkinson’s disease?

A 
Bromocriptine
Amantadine
Levodopa
Selegiline
Antimuscarinics
78
Q

What is the function of carbidopa in levodopa treatment?

A

block peripheral conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine by inhibiting DOPA decarboxyase

79
Q

What is the function of entacapone and tolcapone in levodopa therapy?

A

precent peripheral L- dopa degredation by inhibiting COMT

80
Q

What is the function of selegile?

A

Block central breakdown of dopamine by inhibiting MAO-B

81
Q

Which antimuscarinic is used for treatment of parkinson disease?

A

Benztropine

82
Q

Which antimuscarinic is used for treatment of parkinson disease?

A

Benztropine

83
Q

Name 3dopamine agonists?

A

Bromocriptine
Pramipexole
Ropinirole

84
Q

What converty L-dopa to dopamine?

A

Dopa decarboxylase

85
Q

Which alzheimer drug is an NMDA receptor antagonist?

A

Memantine

86
Q

What is the use and actio of the following drugs:

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
Tacrine

A

AChE inhibitor

87
Q

What are the drugs used to treat Huntington’s disease?

A

Tetrabenazine
Reserpine–> inhibit VMAT, limiting DA vesicle packaging and release

Haloperidol–> D2 blocker

88
Q

What are the drugs used to treat Huntington’s disease?

A

Tetrabenazine
Reserpine–> inhibit VMAT, limiting DA vesicle packaging and release

Haloperidol–> D2 blocker

89
Q

What receptors do triptans act on?

A

5-HT 1B/1D

90
Q

What is an AE of triptans?

A

Coronary vasospasm–> so contraindicated inpatients with CAD and Prinzmetal angina

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