Repro Embriology/ A&P High Yield Flashcards
1
Q
A mutation is sonic headge hog can cause…
A
holoprosencephaly
2
Q
Where is sonic hedgehog produced?
A
Made at base of limbs in zones of polarizing activity
3
Q
Which gene does doral- ventral aixs?
A
Wnt-7 gene
4
Q
What gene is present at the apical ectodermal ridge?
A
FGF gene
5
Q
What gene is responsible for anterior- posterior axis development?
A
Sonic hedge hog
6
Q
What gene allows for the lengthening of limbs?
A
FGF gene
7
Q
What gene is involved in segmental organization of embryo in a craniocaudal direction?
A
Hox gene
8
Q
What results from a Hox gene mutation?
A
Limbs in the the wrongs place
9
Q
Where does fertilization usually occur/
A
Ampulla of the uterine tube
10
Q
How many cells in a blastula? What day?
A
Day 2–> 2 cells
Day3–> 4 cells
11
Q
What day does the morula appear?
A
Day 4
12
Q
What day does the blastocyst appear?
A
Day 5
13
Q
What day does the blastocyst implant?
A
Day 6
14
Q
What hormone begins to be secreted when blastocyst implants?
A
hCG
15
Q
What are teh 2 portions of the blastocyst?
A
Embryoblast (embryo) and trophoblast (placenta)
16
Q
What is present at 2 weeks?
A
bilaminar disc (epiblast and hypoblast)
17
Q
What process takes place at 3 weeks?
A
Gastrulation (forms the trilaminar disc)
18
Q
When is the embryonic period?
A
Week 3- 8
19
Q
When is an embryo most suceptible to teratogens?
A
Wk 3- 8
20
Q
When does organogenesis occur?
A
wk 3-8
21
Q
When does the fetal heart begin to beat?
A
Wk 4
22
Q
When do limb buds begin to form?
A
Week 4
23
Q
What is present at week 3?
A
Trilaminar disc
24
Q
What is gastrulation?
A
Process that forms the trilaminar disc–> establishes ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm germ layers
25
"absent organ due to absent primordial tissue"
Agenesis
26
"absent organ despite presence of primordial tissue"
aplasia
27
"incomplete organ development; primordial tissue present"
Hypoplasa
28
"extrinsic disruption, occurs after embryonic period"
Deformation
29
"secondary breakdown of previosly normal tissue or structure"
disruption
30
"intrinsic disruptino--> occurs during embryonic period"
Malformation
31
"abnormalities result from a single primary embryologic evet"
seqence
32
When can monochorionic, diamniotic twins arise?
Day 4-8
Most common (75%)
33
When can dichorionic and diamniotic twins arise?
Day 0-4 days
between 2 cell stage and morula
34
When can monochorionic and monoamniotic twinse arise?
8- 12 days
between morula and blastocyst
35
When do monochorionic and monoamniotic conjoined twins arise?
>13 days
between blastocyst and formed embryonic disc
36
What are the two fetal layers of the placenta?
Cytotrophoblast (inner layer of chorionic villi
Syncytiotrophoblast (outer layer of chorionic villi)
37
What is the maternal component of the placenta?
Decidua basalis
38
What portion of the placent secretes hCG?
Synchytiotrophoblasts
39
What allows the placenta to escape maternal immune system?
Lacks MHC- I expression
40
What are the vessels in the umbilical cord?
2 umbilical arteries (deoxygenated blood)
1 umbilical vein (oxygenated blood)
41
Where do the umbilical arteries arise from?
internal iliac arteries
42
Where does the umbilical vein drain into?
IVC (via liver or ductus venosus)
43
What is a single umbilical artery associated with?
congenital and chromosomal anomalies
44
What is the urachus and what is it formed by?
a duct between the fetal bladder and yolk sac
arises from the allentois (which develops from the yolk sac)
45
"urine discharge from the umbilicus"
Patent urachus (total failure of urachus to obliterate)
46
"fluid filled cavity lined with uroepithelium between umbilicus and bladder"
Urachal cyst--> partial failure of the urachus to obliterate
47
"outpouching of the bladder"
vesicourachal diverticulum --> slight failure of the urachus to obliterate
48
What connects the yolk sac to the midgut lumen?
Vitelline duct (omphalo- mesenteric duct)
49
"meconium discharge from umbilicus"
Vitelline fistula--> vitelline duct fails to close
50
"true diverticulum in the ileum leading to melena, hematochezia"
Meckel diverticulum--> partial closure of vitelline duct
51
What fails to fuse in a cleft lip?
maxillary and medial nasal process (formation of the primary palate)
52
what fails to fuse in a cleft lip?
2 lateral palatine processes
OR
Lateral palatine processes with the primary palate (medial nasal and maxillary)
53
Another name for the paramesonephric duct?
Mullerian duct
FEMALE
54
Another name for the mesonephric duct?
Wolffian duct
MALE
55
What inhibits the development of mullerian ducts in males?
Sertoli cells are induced (by SYR gene) to secrete Mullerian inhibitory factor (MIF)
56
What stimulates the development of the mesonephric/ Wollfian duct in males?
Androgens secreted by the leydig cells
57
"amenorrhea in females with fully developed secondary sexual characteristics (functional ovaries)"
Mullerian agenesis
58
What 4 structures are derived from the wollfian ducts?
SEED
Seminal vesicles
Epididymis
Ejaculatory duct
Ductus deferens
59
If the sertoli cells fail to make MIF...what is the presentation?
Develop both male and female internal genitala
Develop male external genitalia
60
If there is a defciency of DHT...what is the presentation?
male internal genitalia
Ambiguous eternal genitalia until puberty
61
Most common uterina (mullerian duct) anomaly?
Septate uterus (Y shaped uterus)
62
"opening of the penile urethra on ventral surface of the penis"
hypospadias
63
"opening of the penile urethra on the dorsal surface of the penis"
epispadias
64
What causes hypospadias?
failure of urethral fold to fuse
65
What causes epispadias?
Faulty positioning of genital tubercle
66
What other condition is epispadias associated with?
Extrophy of the bladder
67
What other 2 conditions is hypospadias associated with?
Inguinal hernia
Cryptorchidism
68
Which side of testes/ ovaries (right or left is drained into the renal vein before it reaches the IVE?
Left
69
Lymphatic drainage of the ovaries/ testes?
Para-aortic lymph nodes
70
Lymphatic drainage of the distal vagina/ vulve/ scrotum?
Superficial inguinal nodes
71
Lymphatic drainage of the proximal vagina/ uterus?
Obturator, External iliac and hypogastric nodes
72
What ligament connects ovaries to lateral pelvic wall?
Infundibulopelvic ligament
73
What vessls are within the infundubulopelvic ligament?
Ovarian vessels
74
What structure is at risk during oophorectomy?
Ureter due to proximity to the ovarian vessels (it may be ligated accidentally)
75
What ligament connects the cervix to the side wall of the pelvis?
Cardinal ligament
76
What type of vessels does the cardinal ligament hold?
Uterine liament
77
What connects the uterine fundus to labia majora?
Round ligament of the uterus
78
What connects the uterus, fallopian tube and ovaries to pelvic side wall?
Broad ligament
79
What structures are contained within the broad ligament?
Ovaries, fallopian tubes, round ligaments
80
What are the 3 portions of the broad ligament?
Mesosalpinx
Mesometrium
Mesovarum
81
What connects the medial pole of ovary to the lateral uterus?
Ovarian ligament
82
What two ligaments are derivatives of the gubernaculum?
Ovarian liigament and the round ligament
83
What is the hstology of the uterine glands?
Long tubular during the follicular phase
Coiled in the luteal phase
84
Which portion of the female genital tract has ciliated simple columnar epithelium?
Fallopian tubes
85
Which portions of the female genital tract has simple cuboidal epithelium
Ovaries
86
What is the pathway of sperm in ejaculation?
SEVEN UP
```
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
Nothing
Urethra
Penis
```
87
Which portion of the urethra is prone to injury from pelvic fracture?
Posterior membranous urethra
88
Which portion of the urethra is prone to injury from blunt force trauma?
Posteriour bulbar urethra
89
What portion of the urethra is prone to injury from perineal straddle injury?
Anterior penile urethra
90
Which is innervated by the PNS...erection or emission?
Erection
91
Which nerve innervates erection?
Pelvic
92
Which nerve innervates emission?
Hypogastric nerve
93
Which nerve innervates ejaculation?
Pudendal nerve
94
What can ait in erection?
NO--> increased cGMP
NE--> increased Ca/ smooth muscle contraction
95
Which cells line the serminferious stubules?
spermatogonia
96
What cells produce primary spermatocyes?
Spermatogonia
97
Which cells respond to FSH?
Sertoli cells
98
Which cells secrete androgen binding protein?
Sertoli cells
99
What cells produce MIF?
Sertoli cells
100
How does temperature affect sperm development?
increased temp--> decreased sperm production and decreased inhibit
101
What is the female version of sertoli cells?
Granulosa cells
102
What is the female version of leydig cells?
Theca interna cells
103
What is the female version of leydig cells?
Theca interna cells
104
What are the 3 sources of esttrogen?
Ovary (estradiol)
Adipose (estrone)
Placenta (estriol)
105
What hormone is needed for endometrial proliferation?
Estrogen
106
What process does FSH promote?
The action of aromatase (leading to androgens being converted to estrogen)
107
What cells have aromatase?
Granulosa cells
108
What cells have desmolase?
Theca interna cells
109
What is the function of desmolase?
Cholesterol--> androgens
110
What is the source of progesterone?
Corpus luteum
Placenta
Adrenal cortex
Testes
111
What hormone is needed to stimulate endometrial glandular secretions and spiral artery development?
Progesterone
112
Which hormone inhibits the gonadotropins?
progesterone
113
Which hormone prevents endometrial hyperplasia?
Progesterone
114
Tanner Stage I?
Childhood (prepubertal)
115
Tanner stage II?
Pubic hair appears
Breast buds form
116
Tanner stage III?
Pubic hair becomes hark and curly
Penis size/ length increases
Breasts enlarge
117
Tanner stage IV?
Penis width increase
Darker scrotal skin
Development of glans
118
Tanner stage V?
Adult
Areolae are no longer raised
119
What is the length of the luteal phase?
14 days!!
120
What lead to regression of the corpus luteum?
decline of progesterone levels
121
At what day does the LH surge occur on?
Day 14!
122
At what step does meiosis I pause at?
Prophase I
123
When does meiosis I end?
just prior to ovulation
124
At what step does meiosis II pause at?
Metaphase II
125
When is meosis II completed?
Just prior to fertalization
126
What phase of meiosis reduces diploid to haploid?
Meiosis I
127
What phase of meiosis reduces diploid to haploid?
Meiosis I
128
What raises the body temperature at time of ovulation?
Progesterone!
129
What is required to MAINTAIN milk production?
Suckling--> increaed nerve stimulation--> increased oxytocin and prolactin
130
What hormone induces and maintains lactation and decrease reproductive function?
Prolactin
131
Wht assists in milk let down?
Oxytocin
132
What immune cells does breast milk contain?
Ig, macrophages, lympocytes
133
What vitamin supplementation do breast fed infants require?
Vit D!
134
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum (and thus progesterone) for the first 8- 10 weeks after pregnancy?
hCG
135
What other hormones s hCG structurally similar to?
identical alpha subunit--> LH, FSH, TSH
136
What is the primary estrogen seen in post menopausal women?
Estrone (from adipose tissue)
137
What are the symptoms of menopause?
```
Hot flashes
Atrophy of Vagina
Osteoporosis
Coronary artery disease
Sleep disturbances
```
138
What can cause menopause
Premature ovarian failure
139
What is the order of cells in spermatogenesis?
Spermatogonium
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary Spermatocte
Spermatid
140
What is Spermiogenesis?
Spermatid--> mature spermatozoon
141
What is Spermiogenesis?
Spermatid--> mature spermatozoon
142
What is a more potent androgen...testosterone or DHT?
DHT
143
What hormone is responsible for external genitalia differentiation?
DHT
144
What hormone is responsibel for differentiation of epidiymus, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles?
Testosterone
145
What hormone is responsible for prostate growth and male pattern baldness?
DHT
146
What hormone is responsible for the growth of the penis, muscles, seminal vesicles and sperm during a growth spurt?
Testosterone
147
What are the consequences of exogenous testosterone use?
inhibition of HPO axis--> decreased intratesticular testosterone--> decreased testicular size--> azoospermia
