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Step 1 Review > Repro Embriology/ A&P High Yield > Flashcards

Repro Embriology/ A&P High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

A mutation is sonic headge hog can cause…

A

holoprosencephaly

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2
Q

Where is sonic hedgehog produced?

A

Made at base of limbs in zones of polarizing activity

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3
Q

Which gene does doral- ventral aixs?

A

Wnt-7 gene

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4
Q

What gene is present at the apical ectodermal ridge?

A

FGF gene

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5
Q

What gene is responsible for anterior- posterior axis development?

A

Sonic hedge hog

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6
Q

What gene allows for the lengthening of limbs?

A

FGF gene

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7
Q

What gene is involved in segmental organization of embryo in a craniocaudal direction?

A

Hox gene

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8
Q

What results from a Hox gene mutation?

A

Limbs in the the wrongs place

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9
Q

Where does fertilization usually occur/

A

Ampulla of the uterine tube

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10
Q

How many cells in a blastula? What day?

A

Day 2–> 2 cells

Day3–> 4 cells

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11
Q

What day does the morula appear?

A

Day 4

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12
Q

What day does the blastocyst appear?

A

Day 5

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13
Q

What day does the blastocyst implant?

A

Day 6

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14
Q

What hormone begins to be secreted when blastocyst implants?

A

hCG

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15
Q

What are teh 2 portions of the blastocyst?

A

Embryoblast (embryo) and trophoblast (placenta)

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16
Q

What is present at 2 weeks?

A

bilaminar disc (epiblast and hypoblast)

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17
Q

What process takes place at 3 weeks?

A

Gastrulation (forms the trilaminar disc)

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18
Q

When is the embryonic period?

A

Week 3- 8

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19
Q

When is an embryo most suceptible to teratogens?

A

Wk 3- 8

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20
Q

When does organogenesis occur?

A

wk 3-8

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21
Q

When does the fetal heart begin to beat?

A

Wk 4

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22
Q

When do limb buds begin to form?

A

Week 4

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23
Q

What is present at week 3?

A

Trilaminar disc

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24
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Process that forms the trilaminar disc–> establishes ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm germ layers

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25
Q

“absent organ due to absent primordial tissue”

A

Agenesis

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26
Q

“absent organ despite presence of primordial tissue”

A

aplasia

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27
Q

“incomplete organ development; primordial tissue present”

A

Hypoplasa

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28
Q

“extrinsic disruption, occurs after embryonic period”

A

Deformation

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29
Q

“secondary breakdown of previosly normal tissue or structure”

A

disruption

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30
Q

“intrinsic disruptino–> occurs during embryonic period”

A

Malformation

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31
Q

“abnormalities result from a single primary embryologic evet”

A

seqence

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32
Q

When can monochorionic, diamniotic twins arise?

A

Day 4-8

Most common (75%)

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33
Q

When can dichorionic and diamniotic twins arise?

A

Day 0-4 days

between 2 cell stage and morula

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34
Q

When can monochorionic and monoamniotic twinse arise?

A

8- 12 days

between morula and blastocyst

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35
Q

When do monochorionic and monoamniotic conjoined twins arise?

A

> 13 days

between blastocyst and formed embryonic disc

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36
Q

What are the two fetal layers of the placenta?

A

Cytotrophoblast (inner layer of chorionic villi

Syncytiotrophoblast (outer layer of chorionic villi)

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37
Q

What is the maternal component of the placenta?

A

Decidua basalis

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38
Q

What portion of the placent secretes hCG?

A

Synchytiotrophoblasts

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39
Q

What allows the placenta to escape maternal immune system?

A

Lacks MHC- I expression

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40
Q

What are the vessels in the umbilical cord?

A

2 umbilical arteries (deoxygenated blood)

1 umbilical vein (oxygenated blood)

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41
Q

Where do the umbilical arteries arise from?

A

internal iliac arteries

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42
Q

Where does the umbilical vein drain into?

A

IVC (via liver or ductus venosus)

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43
Q

What is a single umbilical artery associated with?

A

congenital and chromosomal anomalies

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44
Q

What is the urachus and what is it formed by?

A

a duct between the fetal bladder and yolk sac

arises from the allentois (which develops from the yolk sac)

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45
Q

“urine discharge from the umbilicus”

A

Patent urachus (total failure of urachus to obliterate)

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46
Q

“fluid filled cavity lined with uroepithelium between umbilicus and bladder”

A

Urachal cyst–> partial failure of the urachus to obliterate

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47
Q

“outpouching of the bladder”

A

vesicourachal diverticulum –> slight failure of the urachus to obliterate

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48
Q

What connects the yolk sac to the midgut lumen?

A

Vitelline duct (omphalo- mesenteric duct)

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49
Q

“meconium discharge from umbilicus”

A

Vitelline fistula–> vitelline duct fails to close

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50
Q

“true diverticulum in the ileum leading to melena, hematochezia”

A

Meckel diverticulum–> partial closure of vitelline duct

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51
Q

What fails to fuse in a cleft lip?

A

maxillary and medial nasal process (formation of the primary palate)

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52
Q

what fails to fuse in a cleft lip?

A

2 lateral palatine processes

OR

Lateral palatine processes with the primary palate (medial nasal and maxillary)

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53
Q

Another name for the paramesonephric duct?

A

Mullerian duct

FEMALE

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54
Q

Another name for the mesonephric duct?

A

Wolffian duct

MALE

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55
Q

What inhibits the development of mullerian ducts in males?

A

Sertoli cells are induced (by SYR gene) to secrete Mullerian inhibitory factor (MIF)

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56
Q

What stimulates the development of the mesonephric/ Wollfian duct in males?

A

Androgens secreted by the leydig cells

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57
Q

“amenorrhea in females with fully developed secondary sexual characteristics (functional ovaries)”

A

Mullerian agenesis

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58
Q

What 4 structures are derived from the wollfian ducts?

A

SEED

Seminal vesicles
Epididymis
Ejaculatory duct
Ductus deferens

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59
Q

If the sertoli cells fail to make MIF…what is the presentation?

A

Develop both male and female internal genitala

Develop male external genitalia

60
Q

If there is a defciency of DHT…what is the presentation?

A

male internal genitalia

Ambiguous eternal genitalia until puberty

61
Q

Most common uterina (mullerian duct) anomaly?

A

Septate uterus (Y shaped uterus)

62
Q

“opening of the penile urethra on ventral surface of the penis”

A

hypospadias

63
Q

“opening of the penile urethra on the dorsal surface of the penis”

A

epispadias

64
Q

What causes hypospadias?

A

failure of urethral fold to fuse

65
Q

What causes epispadias?

A

Faulty positioning of genital tubercle

66
Q

What other condition is epispadias associated with?

A

Extrophy of the bladder

67
Q

What other 2 conditions is hypospadias associated with?

A

Inguinal hernia

Cryptorchidism

68
Q

Which side of testes/ ovaries (right or left is drained into the renal vein before it reaches the IVE?

A

Left

69
Q

Lymphatic drainage of the ovaries/ testes?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

70
Q

Lymphatic drainage of the distal vagina/ vulve/ scrotum?

A

Superficial inguinal nodes

71
Q

Lymphatic drainage of the proximal vagina/ uterus?

A

Obturator, External iliac and hypogastric nodes

72
Q

What ligament connects ovaries to lateral pelvic wall?

A

Infundibulopelvic ligament

73
Q

What vessls are within the infundubulopelvic ligament?

A

Ovarian vessels

74
Q

What structure is at risk during oophorectomy?

A

Ureter due to proximity to the ovarian vessels (it may be ligated accidentally)

75
Q

What ligament connects the cervix to the side wall of the pelvis?

A

Cardinal ligament

76
Q

What type of vessels does the cardinal ligament hold?

A

Uterine liament

77
Q

What connects the uterine fundus to labia majora?

A

Round ligament of the uterus

78
Q

What connects the uterus, fallopian tube and ovaries to pelvic side wall?

A

Broad ligament

79
Q

What structures are contained within the broad ligament?

A

Ovaries, fallopian tubes, round ligaments

80
Q

What are the 3 portions of the broad ligament?

A

Mesosalpinx
Mesometrium
Mesovarum

81
Q

What connects the medial pole of ovary to the lateral uterus?

A

Ovarian ligament

82
Q

What two ligaments are derivatives of the gubernaculum?

A

Ovarian liigament and the round ligament

83
Q

What is the hstology of the uterine glands?

A

Long tubular during the follicular phase

Coiled in the luteal phase

84
Q

Which portion of the female genital tract has ciliated simple columnar epithelium?

A

Fallopian tubes

85
Q

Which portions of the female genital tract has simple cuboidal epithelium

A

Ovaries

86
Q

What is the pathway of sperm in ejaculation?

A

SEVEN UP

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
Nothing
Urethra
Penis
87
Q

Which portion of the urethra is prone to injury from pelvic fracture?

A

Posterior membranous urethra

88
Q

Which portion of the urethra is prone to injury from blunt force trauma?

A

Posteriour bulbar urethra

89
Q

What portion of the urethra is prone to injury from perineal straddle injury?

A

Anterior penile urethra

90
Q

Which is innervated by the PNS…erection or emission?

A

Erection

91
Q

Which nerve innervates erection?

A

Pelvic

92
Q

Which nerve innervates emission?

A

Hypogastric nerve

93
Q

Which nerve innervates ejaculation?

A

Pudendal nerve

94
Q

What can ait in erection?

A

NO–> increased cGMP

NE–> increased Ca/ smooth muscle contraction

95
Q

Which cells line the serminferious stubules?

A

spermatogonia

96
Q

What cells produce primary spermatocyes?

A

Spermatogonia

97
Q

Which cells respond to FSH?

A

Sertoli cells

98
Q

Which cells secrete androgen binding protein?

A

Sertoli cells

99
Q

What cells produce MIF?

A

Sertoli cells

100
Q

How does temperature affect sperm development?

A

increased temp–> decreased sperm production and decreased inhibit

101
Q

What is the female version of sertoli cells?

A

Granulosa cells

102
Q

What is the female version of leydig cells?

A

Theca interna cells

103
Q

What is the female version of leydig cells?

A

Theca interna cells

104
Q

What are the 3 sources of esttrogen?

A

Ovary (estradiol)
Adipose (estrone)
Placenta (estriol)

105
Q

What hormone is needed for endometrial proliferation?

A

Estrogen

106
Q

What process does FSH promote?

A

The action of aromatase (leading to androgens being converted to estrogen)

107
Q

What cells have aromatase?

A

Granulosa cells

108
Q

What cells have desmolase?

A

Theca interna cells

109
Q

What is the function of desmolase?

A

Cholesterol–> androgens

110
Q

What is the source of progesterone?

A

Corpus luteum
Placenta
Adrenal cortex
Testes

111
Q

What hormone is needed to stimulate endometrial glandular secretions and spiral artery development?

A

Progesterone

112
Q

Which hormone inhibits the gonadotropins?

A

progesterone

113
Q

Which hormone prevents endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Progesterone

114
Q

Tanner Stage I?

A

Childhood (prepubertal)

115
Q

Tanner stage II?

A

Pubic hair appears

Breast buds form

116
Q

Tanner stage III?

A

Pubic hair becomes hark and curly

Penis size/ length increases

Breasts enlarge

117
Q

Tanner stage IV?

A

Penis width increase

Darker scrotal skin

Development of glans

118
Q

Tanner stage V?

A

Adult

Areolae are no longer raised

119
Q

What is the length of the luteal phase?

A

14 days!!

120
Q

What lead to regression of the corpus luteum?

A

decline of progesterone levels

121
Q

At what day does the LH surge occur on?

A

Day 14!

122
Q

At what step does meiosis I pause at?

A

Prophase I

123
Q

When does meiosis I end?

A

just prior to ovulation

124
Q

At what step does meiosis II pause at?

A

Metaphase II

125
Q

When is meosis II completed?

A

Just prior to fertalization

126
Q

What phase of meiosis reduces diploid to haploid?

A

Meiosis I

127
Q

What phase of meiosis reduces diploid to haploid?

A

Meiosis I

128
Q

What raises the body temperature at time of ovulation?

A

Progesterone!

129
Q

What is required to MAINTAIN milk production?

A

Suckling–> increaed nerve stimulation–> increased oxytocin and prolactin

130
Q

What hormone induces and maintains lactation and decrease reproductive function?

A

Prolactin

131
Q

Wht assists in milk let down?

A

Oxytocin

132
Q

What immune cells does breast milk contain?

A

Ig, macrophages, lympocytes

133
Q

What vitamin supplementation do breast fed infants require?

A

Vit D!

134
Q

What hormone maintains the corpus luteum (and thus progesterone) for the first 8- 10 weeks after pregnancy?

A

hCG

135
Q

What other hormones s hCG structurally similar to?

A

identical alpha subunit–> LH, FSH, TSH

136
Q

What is the primary estrogen seen in post menopausal women?

A

Estrone (from adipose tissue)

137
Q

What are the symptoms of menopause?

A 
Hot flashes
Atrophy of Vagina
Osteoporosis
Coronary artery disease
Sleep disturbances
138
Q

What can cause menopause

A

Premature ovarian failure

139
Q

What is the order of cells in spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatogonium
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary Spermatocte
Spermatid

140
Q

What is Spermiogenesis?

A

Spermatid–> mature spermatozoon

141
Q

What is Spermiogenesis?

A

Spermatid–> mature spermatozoon

142
Q

What is a more potent androgen…testosterone or DHT?

A

DHT

143
Q

What hormone is responsible for external genitalia differentiation?

A

DHT

144
Q

What hormone is responsibel for differentiation of epidiymus, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles?

A

Testosterone

145
Q

What hormone is responsible for prostate growth and male pattern baldness?

A

DHT

146
Q

What hormone is responsible for the growth of the penis, muscles, seminal vesicles and sperm during a growth spurt?

A

Testosterone

147
Q

What are the consequences of exogenous testosterone use?

A

inhibition of HPO axis–> decreased intratesticular testosterone–> decreased testicular size–> azoospermia

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