Quesmed Csfdiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a contraindication for adenosine in management of adult tachycardia

A

Asthma due to adenosine stimulating respiratory fibres and causing bronchospasm that results in shortness of breath. Instead, verapamil shold be offered.

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2
Q

What is the alternative to adenosine?

A

Verapamil, a CCB

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3
Q

How does cardiac myxoma present?

A

Arises from the cardiac mesenchyme:
Fatigue
Clubbing
Haemoptysis
Atrial fibrillation
Dyspnoea

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4
Q

What is a typical cardiac tumour?

A

Cardiac myxoma, composed of unspecialised mesenchymal cells, which typically originate in the left atrium. It causes clubbing, fever, weight loss and variable murmur position due to atrial obstruction.

There is a high risk of tumours embolising so surgery is important.

There may be valvular insufficiency of mitral valve, so annuloplasty is required.

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5
Q

How is a cardiac myxoma diagnosed?

A

Echocardiography and cardiac MRI.

Definitive treatment is with surgical removal with a trio Tommy

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6
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Fluid build up in the pericardial space, which reduces cardiac output and results in hypotension and tachycardia.

Immediate treatment is required through pericardiocentesis

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7
Q

What is a key feature of cardiac tamponade e?

A

Pulsus paradoxus:
During inspiration, the blood pressure , stroke volume and systolic BP will drop more significantly than normal as the negative pressure from inspiration is exacerbated by the fluid build up and causes the interventricular septum to shift to the left.

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8
Q

What are the causes of cardiac tamponade?

A

Chest trauma
Malignancy
Infection

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9
Q

What are the clinical features of cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s triad: raised JVP, hypotension and quiet heart sounds.

Coughing, dyspnoea, weakness, chest pain, and abdominal pain

Absent Y descent on JVP.

Tachycardia
Electrical alteran on ECG

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10
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A

Raised JVP, quiet heart sounds and hypotension

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11
Q

What is electric alteran?

A

QRS complex of different height in cardiac tamponade

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12
Q

What is the first line treatment for haemodynamically unstable patient with cardiac tamponade?

A

Pericardiocentesis
-> there is a risk of pneumothorax

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13
Q

When is intervention indicated in aortic stenosis?

A

Symptomatic patients all require surgical intervention.

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14
Q

What causes absent a awaves?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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15
Q

What causes cannon a waves?

A

Complete heart block, where atria contracts against closed tricuspid valve

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16
Q

How does JVP change during breathing?

A

It drops on inspiration and rises on expiration

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17
Q

What causes JVP to rise on inspiration?

A

Constriction of right heart expansion, known as Kussmaul’s sign. It occurs due to pericardial effusion, tamponade or pericardial constriction

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18
Q

What causes absent Y descent on JVP?

A

Cardiac tamponade due to impaired right ventiruclar filling

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19
Q

What are cardiac resyncrhnoisation devices used for?

A

Heart failure to stop ventiruclar dyssynchrony

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20
Q

What is Pulsus parvus et tarsus?

A

Slow rising weak pulse in aortic stenosis

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21
Q

What is Pulsus paradoxus?

A

Drop in blood and pulse pressure in inspiration due to cardiac tamponade.

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22
Q

What is Pulsus bigeminus?

A

Two pulses occur simultaneously followed by a long gap, associated with digoxin toxicity

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23
Q

What is Pulsus bisferiens?

A

Seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy due to systolic anterior valve motion

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24
Q

What are the indications for permanent pacing?

A

Complete heart block
Sick sinus syndrome

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25
What is a feature of atrail pacing?
Spike is before P wave
26
What is a feature of ventiruclar pacing?
Spike is before QRS complex
27
How does right ventiruclar pacing present on ECG?
Right bundle branch block
28
How does left ventiruclar pacing present on ECG?
Similar to right bundle branch block
29
What causes a spike before P wave and QRS complex?
Dual chamber pacemaker rhythm
30
What is the cause of an ejection systolic murmur that is quieter when squatting with normal?
Hypertrophic cardiomyoapthy which is loudest at the apex. There would be pansystolic murmur.
31
What is cholesterol embolism?
Cholesterol crystals embolism spontaneously, disrupting blood supply to abdominal viscera. Symptoms include dermatological manifestations like rash across the legs.
32
What is the management for Stanford Typee A aortic dissection?
Surgical intervention
33
What is the management for Type B Stanford aortic dissection?
Managed conservatively with morphine and beta blockers. Evidence of end organ damage should be managed with open repair.
34
What are the clinical signs with aortic dissection?
Radio-radial delay and radio-femoral delay Blood pressure difference between arms
35
What are the complications with aortic dissection?
->Stroke -> Limb ischaemia ->Death due to internal haemorrhage -> Cardiac tamponade -> Mesenteric ischaemia
36
How does left ventricular free wall rupture present?
Rapid hypotension, tachycardia and cardiogenic shock, which generally occurs after an anterior STEMI
37
What is the cause of early diastolic murmur at the left sternal border?
Aortic regurgitation
38
How is potassium adminsitered for patients with heart failure?
Slow infusion over 12 hours
39
Which type of bundle branch block is normal?
Right bundle branch block
40
What is aortic sclerosis associated with?
Age related degeneration best heard in the aortic area, typical in patients under age 60
41
What is the next step in management of patients with stable angina with complex disease?
CABG
42
What is a common presentation with atrial flutter?
Palpitations and lightheadedness
43
Which patients are unfit to undergo PCI?
Those with septicaemia
44
45
How does acute mitral rerugtitation present?
Auden onset pulmonary oedema Hypotension Cardiogenic shock Fatigue
46
What is a typical cause of ejection systolic murmur?
Aortic stenosis
47
What i a typical cause of pansystolic murmur?
Mitral regurgitation which radiates to axilla.
48
How is mitral regurgitation managed?
Mitral valve repair/valvuloplasty unless complete valve replacement is necessary
49
What is first one for atrial flutter?
Beta blocker OR CCB
50
What is second line for atrial flutter in rate/rhythm control?
Cardioversion
51
What is third line for atrial flutter in rate/rhythm control?
Cardiac ablation
52
How does pulmonary embolism present?
Tachycardia Right ventiruclar strain T wave inversion in inferior leads and anterior leads
53
What is the time frame for papillary muscle rupture?
2-10 days post MI
54
What is the caution for adenosine?
Angina First degree heart block Severe heart failure
55
Which asthma medications cause hypokalemia?
Beta 2 agonists like SABA and LABA
56
How is mild hypokalemia treated?
Oral potassium
57
How is asymptomatic hypokalemia with no ECG changes treated?
IV potassium over 100-12 hours
58
When is IV potassium over 3-4 hours given in hypokalemia?
Patient is symptomatic OR ECG changes and potassium is less than 3.0
59
Whic investigation is ideal for patients with unexplained arrythmias?
7-day ECG Implantable looop recorder
60
What are the causes of pericardial effusion unrelated to pericarditis?
Chest wound Bacterial infection It presents with muffled heart sounds and Beck’s triad
61
What is the character of the pain in pericardial effusion?
Diffuse
62
When is transcutaneous pacing used?
Bradycardia and unresponsive to atropine Post-inferior mI
63
When is permanent pacing used?
Complete heart block Mobitz type 2 heart block Symptomatic type 1 heart block Cardiac resynchrnsiation therapy
64
What are the complications of pacing?
Haemothorax Pneumothorax Heart perforation Thromboembolism Infection
65
What is colchicine?
Anti-gout medication01
66
How should pulseless electrical activity be managed?
CPR with adrenaline IV -> it is a non shockable rhythm
67
When can shock be performed for pulseless electrical a ctivity?
Rhythm on ECG shows ventiruclar tachycardia or ventiruclar fibrillation, then unsynchronised shock can be delivered.
68
Which ECG finding is very specific to acute pericarditis?
PR depression
69
How does phaechromocytoma present?
Headaches, diaphoresis, tremor, palpitations and hypertension
70
How does pericardial effusion present?
Very similarly to cardiac tamponade, however there is electrical alterans on ECG and no change in blood pressure with inspiration.
71
How long can a patient not drive after receiving an implanted cardiac defibrillator as secondary prevention?
6 months
72
What is the definitive treatment for severe symptomatic aortic stenosis?
Aortic valve replacement.
73
What s Spodick’s sign?
Downward sloping T-P lane due to pericarditis
74
What is the definitive treatment for sick sinus syndrome?
Permanent pacemaker
75
What causes a mid-systolic click and systolic murmur?ff
Cardiac arrythmia
76
What is a key risk of cardiac catheterisation?
Emboli travelling to the cerebral circulation resulting in stroke causing neurological deficits
77
What is the normal range for QT interval?
350-450ms
78
What is the cause of syncope on Exertional?
Cardiac arrythmias
79
What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in a young patient?
Bicuspid aortic valve
80
What is the acute treatment for bradycardia?
500 micrograms of atropine every 3-5 minutes
81
What is the stepwise approach from atropine?
Adrenaline 2-10 micrograms per minute or isoprenaline 5 micrograms per minute If these fail, transcutaneous pacing.
82
What is infective endocarditis linked to?
Regurgitation fo aortic, mitral and tricuspid valve
83
What is the cause of a mid-diastolic murmur loudest when patient lying on their left?
Mitral stenosis,causing irregularly irregular pulse use to atrial fibrillation
84
What is used for the management of narrow tachycardia in patients where adenosine is contraindicated?
Verapamil
85
How should narrow complex tachycardia be managed?
6mg bolus of adenosine Followed by a further 12mg bolus of adenosine 18mg bolus of adenosine -> if unsuccessful, expert help should be sought
86
What findings on the jVP
87
Which medication should be avoided in wolf-Parkinson white syndrome?
Diltiazem because it enhances conduction through accessory pathways