Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 3 > Passmed Respiratory > Flashcards

Passmed Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the brain inhibits insipiration?

A

Pneumotaxic centre, found in upper pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which part of the brain stimulates insipiration?

A

Apneustic centre in lower pons, which activates and prolongs inspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of the ventral group?

A

Located in the medulla for forced vnoounary expiration.
-> it can be depressed by opiates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role of the dorsal group?

A

Located in the nucleus tractus solitaris to initiate respiration
-> can be depressed by opiates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do the peripheral chemoreceptors respond to?

A

Increased pCO2 and H+ in arterial blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do central chemoreceptors respond to?

A

Levels of H+ in the rain interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do the stretch receptors initiate?

A

Reduced respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do irritant receptors stimulate?

A

They cause bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does smoke inhalation affect the lungs?

A

Inactivates alpha-1 antitrypsin which increases breakdown of elastic tissue, leading to emphysema.

There is mucous gland hyperplasia, basal cell metaplasia and basement membrane thickeinng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is oral theophylline used?

A

It is used following trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators. It competitively inhibits phosphoesterae, which breaks down cyclic aMP in smooth muscle to promote bronchodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first line treatment for COPD?

A

SABA or SAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the second line treatment for COPD?

A

LABA and LAMA, where everyday symptoms adversely affect quality of life
-> consider adding inhale corticosteoid for frequent infective exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What medication regime is reccomended for those with day-to-day symptoms and asthmatic features?

A

LABA and inhaled corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medication regime should be considered for those with COPD that have frequent exacerbations or previous treatments have not relieved breathlessness?

A

LABA and LAMA and ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the physical features of cystic fibrosis?

A

Short stature, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, male infertility, female infertility and recurrent chest infection with diabetes mellitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Caplan syndrome?

A

Restrictive lung disease where there are intrapulmonary nodules due to rheumatoid arthritis along with pneumonicosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which pneumonicosis are associated with Caplan syndrome?

A

Silicosis
Coal worker’s pneumonicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the cause of central bronchial opacity around hilar region of lungs?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does acute pulmonary distress affect spirometry?

A

Causes restrictive pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the oxygen disassociation cure shifting to the left mean?

A

Decreased release of oxygen tissues because of Increased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the oxygen disassociation cure becoming steep mean?

A

Increased oxygen release to tissues as there is reduced affinity to haemoglobin. This occurs with factors that shift the disassociation curve to the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a shallow oxygen curve indicate?

A

Reducing oxygen release to tissues, as there is increased oxygen affinity to haemoglobin. This occurs with factors that shift the disassociation curve to the left.

24
Q

What causes the curve to shift to the right?

A

More acidity, raised pCO2 and temperature

25
What causes the curve to shift to the left?
Methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin Alkali Low temperature Low 2,3 DPG and pCO2
26
What causes transfer factor to increase?
Asthma: reduced expiration and hyperinflation increase gas exchange haemorrhage left-to-right shunt: increases blood flow to the lungs for more gas exchange Pulmonary haemorrhage: blood in alveoli will interfere with results Polycythaemia : higher levels of haemoglobin to participate Exercise Male gender Kyphosis Neuromuscular weakness Lobectomy
27
What causes transfor to decrease?
Pulmoanry oedema, because fluid in pleural space increases the time for gas exchange. Pneumonia Emphysema Anaemia Low cardiac output
28
Which organisms are common in COPD?
Haemophilius influenzae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebisella Streptococcus pneumoniae
29
What are the causes of respiratory alkalosis?
Pulmonary embolism CNS disorder Pregnancy Salicylate (aspirin) poisoning Anxiety
30
How is functional residual capacity calculated?
Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume
31
Which gene causes cystic fibrosis?
F508
32
Which cell is increased wih asthma?
Eosinophils: correlates with the severity of asthma
33
What is the first line drug for asthma?
SABA
34
Which medication should be added for asthma not controlled y SABA?
Inhaled corticosteroids
35
What is MART?
A single inhaler contains both ICS and a fast-acting LABA such as formoterol, which includes Maintanenace and reliever therapy,
36
What cauases increased lung compliance?
Age Emphysema
37
What causes decreased lung compliance?
Pulmonary oedema Pulmonary fibrosis Pneumonectomy Kyphosis
38
What does FEV1 and VC both reduced indicate?
Restrictive lung disease
39
What indicates obstructive lung disease with spirometry?
FEV1/VC ratio less than 70%
40
What paraneoplastic syndrome is squamous cell carcinoma associated with?
Clubbing PTH-rp secretion causing hypercalcaemia Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy Hyperthyroidism
41
What paraneoplastic syndrome is adenocarcinoma associated with?
Gynaecomastia Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
42
What paraneoplastic syndrome is small cell associated with?
Lambert Eaton syndrome Cushing’s syndrkme SIADH
43
How does asbestos affect the lungs?
Diffuse interstitial fibrosis tell reticular shadowing and causes reduced lung volumes.
44
How does mesothelioma affect the lungs?
Unilateral pleural effusion localised to the tumour due to inflammatory adhesions in the pleural space.
45
What causes the trache to deviate in the opposite direction?
Pleural effusion Diaphragmatic hernia Large thoracic mass
46
What causes the trachea to deviate to the same side of the pathology?
Pneumonectomy Complete lung collapse Pulmonary hypoplasia
47
What are the clinical features of complete lung collapse?
Dullness and absent breath sounds throughout the lung field and the decrease in pressure on the affected side will cause the mediastinum and trachea to shift towards the affected side.
48
Which side does the trachea deviate in lobectomy?
49
How does sarcoidosis affect the heart?
Causes systolic dysfunction of the heart and results in reduced ejection fraction This is due to dilated cardiomyoapthy
50
1200+ 4400=5,600
51
What is the mot common cause of aspiration pneumonia
Kliebsella pneumonia, which is part of the normal gut flora that is a cause of aspirational pneumonia. It results in a red-currant jelly sputum and typically affects the upper lobes. It typically causes empyema.
52
How does mycoplasma pneumonia present?
Non productive cough, clear asucultation of lungs and more common in younger individuals
53
Which area of the lungs is most likely affected in aspirational pneumonia?
Right mddle and lower lobe, due to te force of gravity
54
What is the risk factor for pneumothorax?
Cystic fibrosis due to repeated chest infections with air trapping and lung remodelling Marfan’s syndrome
55
What cancer is associated with gynaecomastia?
Adenocarcinoma -> hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropy also occurs
56
Wha is squamous carcinoma associated with?
PTH-rip secretion Clubbing Hyperthyroidism Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
57
What does widened mediastinum indicate?
Aortic dissection

Year 3 (229 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions