Quesmed GI 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which anti-constipation agent is ideal for IBS?

A

Isphagala husk

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2
Q

What is used to monitor treatment response in hepatitis?

A

Viral load which is ideally undetectable after 12 weeks

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3
Q

What should be performed following H.pylori infection eradication therapy?

A

Urea breath test
This should be done at least 4 weeks after completing antibiotics
2 weeks after stopping PPIs

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4
Q

What is the escalated treatment for severe chronic disease?

A

Inflixmab for biological therapy with anti-tumour necrosis factor therapy

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5
Q

What gene is caused by alpha 1 antitrypsin?

A

PiZZ

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6
Q

What is the normal genotype for alpha 1 antripysin of the liver?

A

PiMM

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7
Q

What does the PiSS genotype indicate?

A

50% normal alpha 1 antitrypsin disease and rarely presents with disease in young, healthy

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8
Q

What is the risk of Crohn’s disease ?

A

Bile acid malabsorption due to removal of terminal ileum

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9
Q

What imaging is used to confirm toxic megacolon?

A

Abdominal X-ray

Erect chest X-ray for pneumoperitoneum

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10
Q

What is contraindicated for imaging toxic megacolon?

A

Barium enema
Colonoscopy

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11
Q

How does toxic megacolon present?

A

temperature >38 degrees, heart rate >120bpm, neutrophilic leucocytosis or anaemia, plus one of: dehydration, altered consciousness, electrolyte disturbance and hypotension

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12
Q

What is the management of toxic megacolon?

A

Nil by mouth
Nasogastric tube
Intravenous fluids
Corticosteroids
Antibiotics

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13
Q

Wha is a complication of typhoid fever?

A

Intestinal perforation

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14
Q

What is the indication of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the ascitic fluid?

A

High numbers of WBCs mainly (PMNs) or of the fluid contains more than 250/mm^3 of neutrophils.

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15
Q

What is the features of Intraductal-abdominal malignancy with ascites?

A

Raised lymphocytes in ascitic fluid

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16
Q

What consideration should be given for traumatic ascitic tap?

A

one neutrophil is subtracted for every 250 red cells to correct for the serum contamination

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17
Q

What is the initial treatment for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Lorazepam

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18
Q

What is the chronic pharmacological management of alcohol?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

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19
Q

What is first line for primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid
With cholestyramine for pruritus.

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20
Q

What organism causes GUillan-Barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter jejuni
-> immune mediated demyelination of peripheral of the four limbs

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21
Q

What is considered a severe flare of UC?

A

6 or more stools a day and
Fever over 37.8 degrees
Over 90bpm
Anaemia

-> There is risk of VTE so prophylaxis is required with LMWH

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22
Q

What is the management of severe flare of UC?

A

IV fluids
IV hydrocortisone
Prophylactic LMWH

23
Q

What aggravates duodenal ulcers?

A

Bisphosphonates
Immunosuppressive agents
Potassium chloride
SSRIs

25
Q

What is the protocol for PPI therapy starting?

A

Repeat endoscopy after 6-8 weeks

27
Q

What does dyspepsia with normal endoscopy and no H.pylori indicate?

A

Functional dyspepsia

28
Q

Wbat are the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency?

A

Dry rough skin
White spots on conjuctiva called Bitot’s spots

29
Q

What does Sjögren’s syndrome increase the risk of?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

30
Q

What is the cause of CA125?

31
Q

What is the time limit for investigating SBP?

A

Ascitic tap within 8 hours of clinical suspicion

32
Q

What is indomethacin?

A

NSAID associated with peptic ulcer disease

33
Q

What causes urobilinogen in urine?

A

Hepatic cause of jaundice

34
Q

What causes jaundice in the absence of urobilinogen in urine?

A

Obstructive jaundice like pancreatic adenocarcinoma

35
Q

What causes normal ALP and bilirubin but severely raised ALT?

A

Ischaemic hepatitis

36
Q

What is the effect of giardiasis on the small intestine?

A

Causes malabsorption, especially of vitamin A, D, E, K and B12 and leads to weight loss

37
Q

What modlaity is used to re-test for H.pylroi?

A

Carbon-13 urea breath test

38
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment of IBS?

A

Mebeverine, an antispasmodic medication

39
Q

What medication commonly causes dyspepsia?

A

NSAIDs
Bisphosphonates

40
Q

What extra0intsitnal manifestation of IBD occurs even in remission?

A

Primary sclerosis in cholangitis

41
Q

What is a complication of C.diff infection?

A

Toxic megacolon

42
Q

What does the entire large bowel being dilated indicate?

A

Toxic megacolon

43
Q

What does proximal dilation and distal restriction indicate?

A

Mechanical obstruction

44
Q

What is assessed in the stool of a patient with IBS?

A

FAECAL CALPROTECTIN

45
Q

How is anterior uveitis managed?

A

Cycloplegic mydriasis drops

46
Q

What is given for septic C.diff?

A

IV metronidazole
Oral vancomycin

47
Q

What antiemetic should be avoided in bowel obstruction?

A

Metoclopramide

48
Q

What causes rice water stool, bloating and flatulence?

A

Giardiasis which has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks

49
Q

What should be co-prescribed with patients starting opiates?

50
Q

What is used to stage Crohn’s disease?

A

MRI of bowel

51
Q

What causes fatigue, dry skin and itching with raised ALP?

A

PRIMARY biliary cholangitis associated with autoimmune conditions

52
Q

What is given to reduce cerebral oedema in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

IV mannitol

53
Q

What is the reccomendations for confirmed h.pylri infection?

A

Full dose PPI