Diabetes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cut off value to diagnose diabetes if symptomatic?

A

Random plasma glucose of 11.1 or over
Oral glucose tolerance test over 11.1 at 2 hours
Fasting plasma glucose over 6.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What gene is mutated in maturity onset diabetes of the young?

A

Single gene mutation of Hepatic nuclear factor (HNF1A ) a transcription factor found in the pancreas which regulates insulin secretion and B cell numbers . It is diagnosed in adolescence or early adulthood before age 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of MODY is most common?

A

MODY3 from mutation in HNF1A which regulates insulin production , with very high blood sugars.

It has a high sensitivity to sulhponylureas like gliclazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the cause of MODY2?

A

MODY 2 is the second commonest cause, occurring due to a glucokinase mutation. Glucokinase is important for recognising glucose sensor in the pancreas for insulin production. Blood sugars rarely rise above 7-8, over many years. Patients are generally well with few complications and the diabetes often responds to diet alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of MODY is associated with pancreatic atrophy?

A

MODY5 due to HNF1 beta atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cut off value to diagnose diabetes if asymptomatic?

A

Two results required from two different days:
Random plasma glucose of 11.1 or over
Oral glucose tolerance test over 11.1 at 2 hours
Fasting plasma glucose over 6.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the initial drug treatment for type 2 diabetes?

A

Metformin reduces gluconeogenesis n liver, decreases intestinal absorption of glucose and increasing peripheral glucose uptake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the ideal diabetic drug for patients with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors, ideal for those at risk and with heart failure in addition to Metformin

-> improves weight loss by losing glucose through urine but increases risk of UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the typical dual therapy if Metformin alone is ineffective?

A

Metformin with
DPP-4 inhibitor
OR
Pioglitazone
OR
Sulphonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the triple therapy for type 2 diabetes?

A

Metformin with either of the following:
DPP-4 inhibitor
Pioglitazone
Sulphonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which diabetic drug is used when ulphonyureas are not tolerated?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug should be used if standard triple therapy is ineffective?

A

GLP-1 agonist When triple therapy with merformin is ineffective, for patients who must have BMI over 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which GLP-1 has cardiovascular benefit?

A

GLP-1 receptor agonists
-> increases risk of pancreatitis and delays gastric emptying and causes nausea, vomiting and constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drug is used first line when Metformin is contraindicated/not tolerated?

A

DPP4 inhibitor
OR
Pioglitazone
OR
Sulphonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are sick day rules for Type 2 diabetes if at risk of dehydration?

A

For risk of dehydration, stop
Metformin -> actic acidosis
GLP-1 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the adverse effects of Sulphonylureas?

A

Weight gain
Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which diabetic drug increases risk of pancreatitis?

A

GLP1 agonists like executive and sitagliptin are most strongly associated

DPP-4 inhibitors

Sulphonylureas have a lesser risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do Sulphonylureas work?

A

Stimulates pancreatic beta cells to secrete insulin and can cause hypoglycaemia and weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does Pioglitazone work?

A

Thiazolidinedione that improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues

21
Q

When is Metformin contraindicated?

A

Severe renal or hepatic impairment

22
Q

When are Sulphonylureas ontraindicated?

A

Type 1 diabetes
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Severe renal or hepatic impairment

23
Q

How does Pioglitazone act?

A

Thiazolidinedione which increases peripheral insulin sensitivity

Causes weight gain, fluid retention and increases risk of BLADDER CANCER

24
Q

When is Pioglitazone contraindicated?

A

Heart failure
Hepatic impairment
Bladder cancer or suspected

25
When is SGLT2 inhibitors contraindicated?S
Severe renal impairment
26
What are the side effects of DPP4 inhibitors?
Nasopharyngitis URTI Pancreatitis
27
What are the contraindications of SGLT2 inhibitors
Pancreatitis
28
What are the side effects of GLP1 inhibitors?
Hypoglycaemia and pancreatitis
29
What are the contraindications of GLP1?
Pancreatitis Severe renal impairment
30
What is a car Bose?
Delays digestion of carbohydrates in small intestine by inhibiting alpha-glucosidase. It can cause diarrhoea and flatulence
31
What are the contraindications for acarbose?
IBD Colonic ulceration Intestinal obstruction
32
Which diabetic drugs are ideal for weight loss?
GLP-1 agonists SGLT2 inhibitors
33
What should be checked every 3-6 months?
HbA1C
34
What should be assessed annually in diabetes?
Cardiovascular risk factors Diabetic retinoapthy Diabetic foot problems Diabetic nephropathy
35
What makes a patient a candidate for bariatric surgery?
BMI above 35 Poorly controlled type 2 diabetes
36
What requires referral for diabetic foot?
Ulceration with limb ischaemia Clinical concerns of bone infection or gangrene
37
How shold diabetic foot peripheral neuropathy be managed pharmacologically?
Anti-depression drugs like duloxetine, Gabapentin, prenatal in or amitryptiline
38
When must DVLA be informed?
patient has more than one severe episode of hypoglycaemia whilst awake or one episode of severe hypoglycaemia whilst driving
39
Which drugs cause hypoglycaemia?
Sulphonylurea GLP-1 analogue DPP-4 inhibitor Beta blocker
40
What symptoms appear in early stage hypoglycaemia?
Trembling Sweating Palpitations Hunger Headache
41
What symptoms occur in late stage low blood glucose?
Double vision Difficulty concentrating Slurred speech Confusion Coma
42
What is the key diagnostic for hypoglycaemia?
Whipple’s triad of Plasma hypoglycaemia Symptoms attributable to a low blood sugar level Resolution of symptoms with correction of the hypoglycaemia C-peptide levels
43
What does hypoglycaemia with high insulin and C peptide and pro insulin indicate?
Insulin o a
44
What does hypoglycaemia with high insulin and low c peptide and pro insulin indicate?
Exogenous administration for insulin
45
What imaging to confirm insulin o a?
Abdominal imaging
46
What is the management of hypoglycaemia?
IV dextrose IM glucagon
47
When does IM glucagon not work?
If alcohol ingestion is causing hypoglycaemia by blocking gluconeogenesis