ob chapter 20 Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions can cause left-sided heart failure?

A

Mitral stenosis, mitral insufficiency, and aortic coarctation.

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2
Q

Why does left-sided heart failure cause back pressure?

A

The left ventricle cannot move blood forward effectively, leading to distention, decreased systemic BP, and pulmonary hypertension.

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3
Q

What happens when pulmonary vein pressure reaches 25 mm Hg?

A

Fluid moves from pulmonary capillaries into interstitial lung spaces and then into alveoli, causing pulmonary edema.

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4
Q

How does pulmonary edema affect breathing?

A

It interferes with oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange, causing profound shortness of breath.

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5
Q

What severe complications can result from left-sided heart failure in pregnancy?

A

High risk for spontaneous miscarriage, preterm labor, or even death due to limited oxygen exchange.

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6
Q

What is orthopnea, and why does it occur in left-sided heart failure?

A

Orthopnea is difficulty breathing when lying flat. Patients must elevate their chest and head to allow fluid to settle at the lung bases and free space for gas exchange.

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7
Q

What secondary problem can occur with mitral stenosis in left-sided heart failure?

A

Thrombus formation due to blood stagnation in the left atrium.

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8
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant in early pregnancy for preventing thrombus formation?

A

Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) because it does not cross the placenta and is not teratogenic.

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9
Q

What medications are used to manage left-sided heart failure?

A

Anticoagulants (for thrombus prevention), antihypertensives (to control BP), diuretics (to reduce blood volume), and beta-blockers (to improve ventricular filling).

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10
Q

What are the three main risk factors for venous thrombosis disease?

A

Stasis, vessel damage, and hypercoagulation.

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11
Q

How does stasis contribute to venous thrombosis risk in pregnancy?

A

Blood pools in the lower extremities due to uterine pressure.

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12
Q

How does vessel damage contribute to venous thrombosis risk?

A

Pressure from the fetal head at birth can compress lower extremity veins, causing damage.

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13
Q

How does hypercoagulation contribute to venous thrombosis risk?

A

Elevated estrogen levels increase blood clotting tendencies.

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14
Q

What can be done to reduce the risk of thrombus formation?

A

Avoid constrictive knee-high stockings, do not sit with legs crossed at the knee, and avoid standing in one position for long periods.

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15
Q

What are common signs of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in pregnancy?

A

Pain and redness, usually in the calf of a leg.

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16
Q

How is DVT diagnosed?

A

Through patient history and Doppler ultrasonography.

17
Q

What is the primary treatment for DVT during pregnancy?

A

Bed rest and intravenous (IV) heparin for 24-48 hours.

18
Q

What anticoagulant is commonly used for DVT treatment during pregnancy?

A

Heparin, initially IV, followed by subcutaneous injections.

19
Q

How often is subcutaneous heparin given after initial IV treatment?

A

Every 12 or 24 hours for the duration of pregnancy.

20
Q

Where should heparin injections be given during pregnancy?

A

Arms and thighs, avoiding the abdomen.

21
Q

When are pregnant patients screened for sickle-cell anemia?

A

At their first prenatal visit.

22
Q

Why should pregnant patients with sickle-cell anemia have periodic urine tests?

A

They are more susceptible to bacteriuria.

23
Q

Why is monitoring nutritional intake important for pregnant patients with sickle-cell anemia?

A

To ensure sufficient folic acid intake for replacing destroyed red blood cells.

24
Q

Why should pregnant patients with sickle-cell anemia take additional folic acid supplements?

A

To support red blood cell production.

25
Q

Why should routine iron supplements be avoided in sickle-cell anemia?

A

Sickled cells cannot incorporate iron effectively.

26
Q

How much fluid should pregnant patients with sickle-cell anemia drink daily?

A

At least eight glasses of fluid to prevent dehydration.

27
Q

What is a periodic exchange transfusion used for in pregnant patients with sickle-cell anemia?

A

To replace sickled cells with nonsickled cells and remove excess bilirubin.

28
Q

What are the key interventions for managing a sickle-cell crisis?

A
  1. Controlling pain, 2. Administering oxygen as needed, 3. Increasing fluid volume to lower viscosity.
29
Q

What is an important prenatal education topic for preventing UTIs?

A

Common measures to prevent UTIs, such as proper voiding habits and hygiene.

30
Q

How often should pregnant patients void to prevent UTIs?

A

At least every 2 hours.

31
Q

Why is it important to urinate as soon as the need is felt?

A

To prevent urine stasis, which can lead to infection.

32
Q

What is the proper wiping technique after voiding or bowel movements to prevent UTIs?

A

Wipe front to back.

33
Q

What type of underwear should be worn to help prevent UTIs?

A

Cotton underwear, not synthetic fibers.

34
Q

What is an important step after sexual intercourse to prevent UTIs?

A

Urinating immediately.

35
Q

How much fluid should a pregnant patient with a UTI drink?

A

Up to 3-4 liters per 24 hours to help flush out the infection.

36
Q

What are the common symptoms of tuberculosis in pregnancy?

A

Chronic cough, substantial weight loss, hemoptysis (coughing blood), low-grade fever, extreme fatigue, and night sweats.

37
Q

What test is offered to assess tuberculosis in pregnant patients?

A

A PPD (tuberculin skin test).

38
Q

What is done if a pregnant patient has a positive PPD test?

A

A chest X-ray or sputum culture is performed to confirm the diagnosis.