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Small Animal Final Year > Year 2 Formative (Revision) > Flashcards

Year 2 Formative (Revision) Flashcards

1
Q

Megaoesophagus can occur in patients with diseases which affect the neuromuscular junction BECAUSE the muscle in the wall of the oesophagus in the dog is striated.

True True Reason is a correct explanation

True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation

True False

False True

False False

A

True True Reason is a correct explanation

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2
Q

Complete the following sentence regarding Coenurus cerebralis.

Coenurus cerebralis typically found in the brain of sheep and cattle is the intermediate stage of ??? parasite

A

taenia multiceps

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3
Q

What is the total number of sporozoites in each Cryptosporidium parvumoocyst?

A

4

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4
Q

Complete the following sentence regarding dietary lipids.

??? enables more efficient absorption of dietary lipid by acting as a detergent to create small lipid droplets.

A

Bile

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5
Q

Complete the following sentence regarding regurgitation.

Regurgitation is typically a sign of disease affecting ??? organ

A

oesophagus

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6
Q

Complete the following sentence.

Amylose is a long unbranched polymer of D- glucose units connected by ??? linkages.

A

alpha 1-4, alpha (1-4), a (1-4)

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7
Q

Primary contractions of the rumen-reticulum are stimulated by impulses transmitted via which nerve?

A

Vagus nerve

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8
Q

Label the following colours of this image of a a dog’s abdomen with the bulk of the intestines removed.

Red, Yellow and Green

A

Red - descending colon

Yellow - descending duodenum

Green - Root of Mesentery

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9
Q

Label the following picture with regards to the green, red, blue and yellow areas

A

Red - Angular notch (incisuria)

Yellow - Greater omentum

Green - Lesser omentum

Blue - fundus of the stomach

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10
Q

What is a saliva component that sequesters iron?

A

Lacotferrin

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11
Q

What is an antibacterial system that interferes with glycolysis?

A

Sialoperoxidase system

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12
Q

What is involved with neutrophil activation?

A

Complement

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13
Q

What is required for opsonisation of bacteria?

A

Immunoglobulins

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14
Q

What vitamin requires intrinsic factor for absorption?

A

Vitamin B12

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15
Q

What is a membrane bound antioxidant?

A

Vitamin E

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16
Q

Name an Important constituent of thyroid hormones

A

Iodine

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17
Q

Name an Important constituent of antioxidant enzyme glutathione peroxidise

A

Selenium

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18
Q

What Can impact copper balance significantly in ruminants?

A

Molybdenum

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19
Q

What is a Product of glucose metabolism only under anaerobic conditions?

A

Lactate

20
Q

What is required for the movement of Acetyl-CoA into mitochondria?

A

Carnitine

21
Q

Name a volatile fatty acid

A

Acetate

22
Q

Which ONE of the following cell types migrates in response to bacteria in the periodontal pocket and is found in high numbers in the crevicular fluid during periodontal disease?

Osteoblast.

Osteoclast.

Basophil.

Neutrophil.

Eosinophil.

A

Neutrophil.

23
Q

Which of the following is the infective stage of Eimeria parasites?

Trophozoite.

Schizont.

Sporocyst.

Merozoite.

Gametes.

A

Sporocyst.

24
Q

The Genus Streptococcus is found in the oral cavities of many species. Which of the following statements about it is FALSE?

  • They are Gram positive bacteria.
  • Bacteria of this Genus have a range of haemolytic activities.
  • They are strict anaerobes.
  • It is a common pioneer species in the colonisation of teeth.
  • Different species of Streptococcus are associated with different animal hosts.
A

They are strict anaerobes.

25
Q

Male and female nematodes can be differentiated based on which one of the following?

  • Type of the oesophagus.
  • Morphology of anterior end.
  • Presence of copulatory bursa.
  • Morphology of buccal capsule.
A

Presence of copulatory bursa.

26
Q

Humans can be infected by hydatid (Echinococcus) cyst if they ingest which of the following?

  • Food or water contaminated with cysticerci.
  • Food or water contaminated with Echinococcus eggs.
  • Food containing adult Echinococcus worms.
  • Food contaminated with hydatid sand.
  • Scolices of adult Echinococcus worms.
A

Food or water contaminated with Echinococcus eggs.

27
Q

You have been asked to investigate an outbreak of diarrhoea in a boar stud. For a 3 month period, approximately 60% of the boars developed gray to brown diarrhoea that lasted 1-3 days. Faecal samples were collected from 5 boars experiencing clinical signs. Faecal flotation test revealed the presence of rounded egg-like structures shown in the image.

Which ONE of the following parasite stages is most likely to be?

  • Immature Ascarid-type eggs.
  • Monezia expansa eggs.
  • Mature Strongyloid-type eggs.
  • Immature coccidian oocysts.
  • Mature coccidian oocysts.
A

Mature coccidian oocysts

28
Q

Which ONE of the following statements with regard to the uptake of glucose by intestinal cells is FALSE?

  • It does not require energy.
  • It is sodium-dependent.
  • It is a saturable process.
  • It is competitively inhibited by galactose
A

It does not require energy.

29
Q

Which ONE of the following statements about the infective form of Isospora is TRUE?

  • The infective form of Isospora has no sporocysts and 8 sporozoites.
  • The infective form of Isospora has 2 sporocysts each with 4 sporozoites.
  • The infective form of Isospora has 2 sporocysts each with 2 sporozoites.
  • The infective form of Isospora has 4 sporocysts each with 2 sporozoites.
A

The infective form of Isospora has 2 sporocysts each with 4 sporozoites.

30
Q

With regards to the normal findings on a rectal examination of a horse, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

  • The small colon has two taenial bands.
  • The small intestine is palpable.
  • The caecum normally lies in left caudal abdomen.
  • The medial band of the caecum runs craniodorsal to caudoventral.
A

The small colon has two taenial bands.

31
Q

oncerning Dipylidium caninum infection, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

  • Dogs not treated for fleas are at risk
  • It grows to around 50cm in the large intestine.
  • The metacestode is a hyatid cyst
  • Snails act as an intermediate host
A

Dogs not treated for fleas are at risk

32
Q

Which of the following enzymes is a marker of cholestasis?

  • Alanine aminotransferase
  • Creatine kinase
  • Aspartate aminotransferase
  • Gamma-glutamyl transferase
A

Gamma-glutamyl transferase

33
Q

Which of the following describes how a horse’s gastrointestinal tract has been modified to a herbivorous diet?

  • They have an enlarged caecum and colon plus a large non-secretory area in the stomach.
  • They have a very large forestomach with three chambers.
  • They have a greatly enlarged caecum and colon where microbial digestion takes place.
  • They have a generally shortened gastrointestinal tract, with a simple stomach with glandular and non-glandular regions.
A

They have a greatly enlarged caecum and colon where microbial digestion takes place.

34
Q

Which of the following drugs is considered to be anti-diarrhoeic?

  • Metaclopromide
  • Maropitant
  • Ondansetron
  • Lopermide
A

Lopermide

35
Q

A four month old dog is presented to you with mild diarrhoea and vomiting. You decide to administer an oral rehydration fluid containing glucose.

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

  • Citrate is often added to oral rehydration fluids to drive the sodium/glucose symporter in the mucosal cells.
  • Citrate is often added to oral rehydration fluids to make the solution isotonic.
  • Citrate is often added to oral rehydration fluids to prevent bacterial growth.
  • Citrate is often added to oral rehydration fluids to reduce gastric motility by causing insulin release.
  • Citrate is often added to oral rehydration fluids to provide energy as the animal should not be fed.
A

Citrate is often added to oral rehydration fluids to drive the sodium/glucose symporter in the mucosal cells

36
Q

The image depicts egg packets found in the faeces of a dog.

Infection with which of the following parasites is associated with the production of such egg packets in canine faeces?

  • Toxocara canis
  • Dipylidium caninum
  • Taenia saginata
  • Echinococcus granulosus
  • Taenia multiceps
A

Dipylidium caninum

37
Q

This is a canine skull

With reference to the markers on the image, the duct of which salivary gland opens close to tooth A?

A

Parotid gland

38
Q

Identify teeth A and B following the modified Triadan system.

Ensure you identify tooth A & B within your answer.

A

A: 208

B: 309

39
Q

Which nerve innervates tooth B and where does this nerve enter the mandible?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve of V3 (1 mark)
Enters at the mandibular foramen (1 mark)

40
Q

Identify the bony structure marked as ‘X’ on the image, and name the muscle that attaches to it.

A 
Coronoid process (1 mark)
Temporal muscle (1 mark)
41
Q

With reference to the muscle idenitfied in question 4, what functional importance does this muscle have?

Ensure you include the name of the muscle in your answer

A

Temporal muscle:Temporalis can only close the mouth, without side-movement.

42
Q

With reference to the muscle idenitfied in question 4, how does this muscle differ between carnivores and herbivores?

Ensure you include the name of the muscle in your answer.

A

Temporal muscle: Much stronger in carnivores, while in herbivores masseter and peterigoideus facilitate side movement for grinding.

43
Q

The diagram represents the stomach of cattle. The black arrows show the flow of material into the different sections (marked with grey dash lines).

Identify the main area labelled A and describe what digestive or microbial activity you would expect in this area.

A

A: Reticulum (1 mark).
It is part of the rumen where rumen content and feed are mixed between the two areas A and B and the micro flora is mixed with the foodstuff (0.5 marks) so while some microbial fermentation will start in here (0.5 marks). The food and mixed in micro flora then transfer fully to the rumen (Area B) (1 mark)
Marking criteria: award marks as indicated to a maximum of 3 marks in total.

44
Q

Identify the main area labelled B and describe what digestive or microbial activity you would expect in this area.

A

B: Rumen (1 mark)
The rumen is where the microbiota (flora/rumen microbes) are involved with the main digestion of the foodstuff (0.5 marks) through fermentation (1 mark). The organisms involved include bacteria, fungi and protozoa (0.5 mark)
Marking criteria: award marks as indicated to a maximum of 3 marks in total

45
Q

Identify the main area labelled C and describe what digestive or microbial activity you would expect in this area

A

C: Omasum (1 mark)
Little fermentation is carried out here (0.5 marks). As material is passed from the rumen to the abomasum and conditions become unfavourable for microbial activity (0.5 marks)

46
Q

Identify the main area labelled D and describe what digestive or microbial activity you would expect in this area.

A

D: Abomasum (is equivalent of the true stomach) (1 mark)
There is limited microbial in this structure (0.5 marks) as the host digestive system digests microbial protein for passage to the small intestine (0.5).

Small Animal Final Year (317 decks)

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