Formative

Question 1

You are presented with an 18h colt foal at your clinic which had an uncomplicated birth and has been otherwise normal. It is now restless, off suck and constantly tail swishing/flagging. It has been straining. General physical exam parameters are within normal limits except for the abdomen is moderately distended with gas. No abnormalities are detected upon haematology or biochemisty. You decide to take a radiograph of the foal’s abdomen.

What is your diagnosis?

Answer 1

meconium impaction

Question 2

A 4 month old puppy presents with a history of having difficulty eating. The puppy is very keen to eat but soon after starting to eat he gags, drops some food from his mouth and shows exaggerated swallowing attempts with ptyalism. A fluoroscopic feeding study shows that transport of food through the upper oesophageal sphincter appears to be delayed/abnormal.

This problem would be classified as ???? dysphagia

Answer 2

cricopharyngeal

Question 3

An 11 year old mare with depression, mild colic signs, heart rate 40 bpm, temperature 39.8°C (103.64°F), normal rectal examination, haematology shows leucopoenia, neutropoenia and hyperfibrinogenaemia. Abdominocentesis sample is grossly cloudy with a total protein of 35g/L (NR <20g/L) and total nucleated cell count of 115 x 109/L (NR <1 x 109/L) with 90% neutrophils on cytology.

What is it?

Answer 3

Peritonitis

Question 4

A 25 year old pony gelding with a heart rate of 40 bpm, respiratory rate 40 bpm, rectal temperature 38°C (100.4°F), found with saliva pouring from both nares. He is mildly distressed and intermittently stretching his neck out trying to swallow. The rest of the general clinical examination is unremarkable

What is it?

Answer 4

Oesophageal obstruction

Question 5

A 2 year old cob mare with tachycardia (80 bpm), patchy sweating on neck, muscle fasiculations over triceps, distended loops of small intestine and a ‘corrugated’ large colon impaction on rectal exam with scant, mucus covered faeces and 10L of reflux upon nasogastric intubation

What is it?

Answer 5

Acute equine grass sickness

Question 6

What is Inflammation of the bile ducts called?

Answer 6

Cholangitis

Question 7

Deposition of homogeneous, eosinophilic amorphous material within the space of Disse.

What is this called?

Answer 7

Amyloidosis

Question 8

Reduced flow of bile from the liver to the duodenum.

What is this called?

Answer 8

Cholestasis

Question 9

Dilation of blood vessels relating to hepatic pathology

What is the most appropriate term?

Answer 9

Telangiectasia

Question 10

Malignant neoplasia of endothelial cells related to hepatic pathology

What is the most appropriate term?

Answer 10

Hemangiosarcoma

Question 11

Nodular regeneration and fibrosis related to hepatic pathology

What is the most appropriate term?

Answer 11

Cirrhosis

Question 12

Clostridial organism responsible for the condition braxy in sheep?

Answer 12

Clostridium septicum

Question 13

Clostridial organism responsible for the condition blackleg in cattle?

Answer 13

Clostridium chauvoei

Question 14

Clostridial organism responsible for the condition Tyzzer’s disease in foals?

Answer 14

Clostridium piliforme

Question 15

Clostridial organism responsible for the condition black disease in ruminants?

Answer 15

Clostridium novyi type B

Question 16

Which treatment for squamous gastric ulceration in the horse has been shown to be best effective?

• Omeprazole 4mg/kg PO SID for 14 days.
• Omeprazole 4mg/kg PO SID for 28 days.
• Ranitidine 6mg/kg PO SID for 14 days.
• Ranitidine 6mg/kg PO SID for 28 days

Answer 16

Omeprazole 4mg/kg PO SID for 28 days

Question 17

This is a lateral radiograph of the caudal abdomen of a dog.

Which statement best represents the reason why this dog requires immediate surgery?

• The bladder is relatively distended and contains gas opacities and there is poor serosal detail in the caudal abdomen: indicative of a ruptured bladder and local peritonitis.
• There is a soft tissue opacity ventral to the caudal vertebrae containing a loop of small intestine: indicative of a perineal hernia with entrapped small intestine.
• There is an irregularly marginated calcified mass containing gas opacities ventral to the tail: indicative of a calcified peri-anal neoplasm with a necrotic centre.
• There is a transverse opaque line through the mid section of the left and right ilium: indicative of a minimally displaced bilateral pelvic fracture.
• There is a large circular soft tissue opacity mass overlying the proximal femur filling the lower right portion of the radiography plate: indicative of an infected haematoma

Answer 17

There is a soft tissue opacity ventral to the caudal vertebrae containing a loop of small intestine: indicative of a perineal hernia with entrapped small intestine

Question 18

Which one of the following statements best represents the features present on this lateral radiograph of the cranial abdomen and thorax?

• This is a cat with substantial hepatomegally
• This is a dog with gastric torsion and hepatomegally.
• This is a cat with a normal liver and stomach.
• This is a dog with a peritoneal effusion.
• This is a cat with a pyloric outflow obstruction.

Answer 18

This is a cat with a normal liver and stomach

Question 19

What effect does the inhibition of NK-1 receptors by a drug such as maropitant have in the vomiting centre?

• It induces nausea and vomiting.
• It will only inhibit vomiting due to motion sickness.
• It will only inhibit vomiting due to gastric irritation.
• It will only inhibit vomiting due to stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
• It will inhibit all types of vomiting, whatever the cause.

Answer 19

It will inhibit all types of vomiting, whatever the cause.

Question 20

With respect to the clinical sign of vomiting, which of the following clinical scenarios is most urgent to investigate and/or treat at a busy weekend emergency clinic?

• A 13 year old female neutered cat with a history of intermittent vomiting, weight loss and polyphagia. She is normothermic, tachycardic with a systolic heart murmur and has a strong peripheral pulse. Mucous membranes are pink and moist. There is skin tenting over the neck. Body condition score 3/9. Abdominal palpation suggests fluid filled intestines. There are no other findings on physical examination.
• A 7 year old male neutered DSH cat with a 4 day history of occasional vomiting, poor appetite, weight loss and lethargy. He is mildly hypothermic, mildly bradycardic and peripheral pulses are difficult to palpate. Mucous membranes are tacky and pink. There is skin tenting over the neck. Abdominal palpation suggests mild abdominal distension and discomfort. Body condition score 6/9. There are no other findings on physical examination.
• A 3 year old male entire Labrador with a 24 hour history of vomiting and watery diarrhoea with loss of appetite today. He is mildly hyperthermic, heart rate is normal, peripheral pulses are strong and regular. Mucous membranes are moist and pink with excess salivation. There is no skin tenting over the neck. Body condition score 5/9. Abdominal palpation is challenging because the dog is panting and excitable/badly behaved. There are no other findings on physical examination.
• A 4 year old female neutered Golden Retriever with a 48 hour history of loss of appetite, boborygmi, flatulence and lethargy. She has vomited twice today and passed soft stools. She has had similar episodes in the past but they normally settle after 24 hours. She is normothermic with a normal heart rate and peripheral pulses. Her mucous membranes are pink and moist. There is no skin tenting over her neck. Abdominal palpation suggests gas and fluid filled intestines. There are no other abnormal findings on physical examination

Answer 20

A 7 year old male neutered DSH cat with a 4 day history of occasional vomiting, poor appetite, weight loss and lethargy. He is mildly hypothermic, mildly bradycardic and peripheral pulses are difficult to palpate. Mucous membranes are tacky and pink. There is skin tenting over the neck. Abdominal palpation suggests mild abdominal distension and discomfort. Body condition score 6/9. There are no other findings on physical examination

Question 21

How would the dog have been positioned in order to obtain the positive contrast (barium) study of the gastrointestinal system of a normal dog?

• Dorsal recumbency.
• Ventral recumbency.
• Left lateral recumbency.
• Right lateral recumbency.

Answer 21

Ventral recumbency.

Question 22

Which of the following is a recognised complication following acute oesophageal obstruction (choke) in the horse?

• Aspiration pneumonia.
• Dental disease.
• Weight loss.
• Gastric ulceration.
• Peri-oral dermatitis.

Answer 22

Aspiration pneumonia.

Question 23

A farmer wants to know what to do with an apparently healthy and favourite cow that has tested Johne’s disease (MAP) positive on a milk antibody ELISA on three occasions at 3 month intervals.

Which suggested course of action is the most appropriate?

• The Johne’s ELISA test on milk is not as reliable as when testing a blood sample. You advise the farmer to confirm the result with a blood test before considering culling the cow.
• An ELISA test can give false positive results. You advise a faecal sample is tested to confirm the diagnosis.
• You explain that the chance of this cow shedding MAP is high, she is a risk for other stock on the farm and she is likely to become clinically diseased in the future.
• You recommend reviewing the physical exam as these animals are often in poor body condition with enlarged lymph nodes on rectal palpation

Answer 23

You explain that the chance of this cow shedding MAP is high, she is a risk for other stock on the farm and she is likely to become clinically diseased in the future.

Question 24

Which of the following statements regarding small animal parasites is TRUE?

• The common hookworms in dogs attach and feed from the large intestinal mucosa.
• The only direct route for a bitch to infect her puppies with Toxocara canis is by lactogenic spread of larvae in the past natal period.
• Fenbendazole is a very popular anthelmintic in dogs and cats because it is active against the most common nematodes and cestodes.
• Treating very young puppies and kittens for roundworms is unhelpful due to the long pre patent period and can contribute to anthelmintic resistance.
• Appropriate disposal of dog and cat faeces is important because environmental parasite stages are highly resistant to environmental degradation thereby increasing the risk of zoonotic infection.

Answer 24

Appropriate disposal of dog and cat faeces is important because environmental parasite stages are highly resistant to environmental degradation thereby increasing the risk of zoonotic infection.

Question 25

A 3 year old DSH cat from a multi cat household is very lethargic with a reduced appetite. Which of the following features found on ultrasound would be most helpful in differentiating FIP from feline lymphoma in this case?

• Enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes.
• An intestinal mass lesion.
• Small volume of peritoneal, pleural and pericardial fluid.
• Bilateral renomegaly with irregular margins

Answer 25

Small volume of peritoneal, pleural and pericardial fluid

Question 26

Which of the following statements would alert you to a presumptive diagnosis of pulpy kidney (Clostridium perfringens) disease in an upland sheep flock that reports increased mortality in lambs?

• 9 lambs out of 300 aged 6-10 weeks old have recently died.
• The flock is positive for Maedi-Visna virus.
• 2 out of 116 lambs less than 2 weeks old have recently died.
• The ewes were vaccinated with Heptavac P Plus (a multi-valent Clostridia and Pasteurella vaccine) several weeks before lambing.
• Several lambs born at the end of the lambing season were noted to drool at the mouth.

Answer 26

9 lambs out of 300 aged 6-10 weeks old have recently died

Question 27

Which statement is TRUE about the clinical biochemistry of feline liver disease?

• Feline alkaline phosphatase has a long half-life.
• Alanine aminotransferase is a good marker for cholestatic disease.
• Cats have a steroid isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase.
• The presence of bilirubin in the urine is always significant.

Answer 27

The presence of bilirubin in the urine is always significant.