Formative assessment Flashcards

1
Q

The forelimb is attached to the trunk of the body by a ball and socket joint BECAUSE a ball and socket joint allows a wide range of movement.

True True Reason is a correct explanation
True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation
True False
False True
False False

????

A

The forelimb is attached to the trunk of the body by a ball and socket joint BECAUSE a ball and socket joint allows a wide range of movement.

False True

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2
Q

When obtaining radiographs for assessment of hip dysplasia in the dog, a ventrodorsal view with extended hips is normally obtained BECAUSE a ventrodorsal view with extended hips avoids the need to ensure the patellae are
projected centrally over the femurs in the resulting image.

True True Reason is a correct explanation
True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation
True False
False True
False False

?????

A

When obtaining radiographs for assessment of hip dysplasia in the dog, a ventrodorsal view with extended hips is normally obtained BECAUSE a ventrodorsal view with extended hips avoids the need to ensure the patellae are
projected centrally over the femurs in the resulting image.

True False

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3
Q

Musculoskeletal diseases of the bovine foot are the most common causes of lameness BECAUSE the vast majority
of lameness is caused by disease which affects the medial claw of the hind feet.

True True Reason is a correct explanation
True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation
True False
False True
False False

A

Musculoskeletal diseases of the bovine foot are the most common causes of lameness BECAUSE the vast majority
of lameness is caused by disease which affects the medial claw of the hind feet.

True False

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4
Q

The medial (middle) gluteal muscle is an extensor of the hip joint BECAUSE the medial gluteal muscle originates at the wing of the ilium and inserts onto the greater trochanter of the femur.

True True Reason is a correct explanation
True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation
True False
False True
False False

A

The medial (middle) gluteal muscle is an extensor of the hip joint BECAUSE the medial gluteal muscle originates at the wing of the ilium and inserts onto the greater trochanter of the femur.

True True Reason is a correct explanation

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5
Q

Insertion of an intramedullary rod is an option for fixation of a fractured long bone BECAUSE an intramedullary rod is able to resist axial compression and torsion.

True True Reason is a correct explanation
True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation
True False
False True
False False

A

Insertion of an intramedullary rod is an option for fixation of a fractured long bone BECAUSE an intramedullary rod is able to resist axial compression and torsion.

True False

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6
Q

The brachialis muscle and the triceps brachii muscle are antagonists BECAUSE the brachialis muscle extends the elbow joint and the triceps brachii muscle flexes the elbow joint.

True True Reason is a correct explanation.
True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation.
True False.
False True.
False False.

A

The brachialis muscle and the triceps brachii muscle are antagonists BECAUSE the brachialis muscle extends the elbow joint and the triceps brachii muscle flexes the elbow joint.

True False

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7
Q

Complete the following sentence regarding the triosseal canal in the chicken:

In the chicken (Gallus gallus domesticus) the bones contributing to the triosseal canal are the …………., sacpula and furcula.

A

In the chicken (Gallus gallus domesticus) the bones contributing to the triosseal canal are the
coracoid, sacpula and furcula.

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8
Q

Complete the following sentence regarding the forelimb of the cat:

The main vascular supply to the forelimb of the cat is the ………… artery.

A

The main vascular supply to the forelimb of the cat is the brachial or axillary artery.

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9
Q

Complete the following sentence regarding radiographic appearance:

Use a technical term.

In a radiograph muscle is more …………… than bone.

A

In a radiograph muscle is more radio-leucent, radioleucent, radiolucent, radiolucient,
radioluscent
than bone.

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10
Q

This is a radiograph of a canine elbow.
Identify the following by selecting the appropriate label and placing it on to the midpoint of the correct structure.

Anconeal process

Olecrannon

Proximal epiphysis of the radius

Diaphysis of the radius

A
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11
Q

This is a photograph of a right canine forelimb (cranial view).
Identify the following by selecting the appropriate label and placing it on the midpoint of the correct structure.

Deltoid tuberosity

Lesser tubercule of the humerus

Medial styloid process

Condyle of the humerus

A
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12
Q

What type of joint joins the frontal and nasal bones of the skull?

A

Fibrous joint

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13
Q

What type of joint has translatory (sliding) movement between two flat surfaces?

A

Plane joint

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14
Q

What type of joint is the humeroulnar?

A

Hinge joint (ginglymus)

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15
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Condylar joint

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16
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-axial joint?

A

Pivot joint

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17
Q

Lateral view of the canine proximal forelimb (preserved specimen).
For the numbers labelled on the image below, select the correct anatomical term from the drop down list.

A
  • *1** Latissimus dorsi
  • *2** Long head of triceps brachii
  • *3** Deltoideus muscle
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18
Q

External trauma to a muscle can result in tearing of the sarcolemma. This can result in necrosis of muscle
fibres caused by the leakage of what substance?

A

Calcium ions.

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19
Q

Exercise can result in damage of the skeletal muscle membrane. What oxygen binding pigment is then
released into the blood?

A

Myoglobin

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20
Q

Muscle damage can be assessed by measuring what product found in plasma?

A

Creatine kinase

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21
Q

What are the typical characteristics of the lumbar vertebrae?

A

Long transverse processes and a short square dorsal spinous process.

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22
Q

What is the location and innervation of the extensor muscles of the carpus and digits?

A

Are located on the craniolateral aspect of the forearm and are innervated by the radial nerve.

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23
Q

What bacteria causes ‘Foot Rot’ in sheep?

A

Dichelobacter nodosus.

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24
Q

What length should the dorsal wall be trimmed to, from the coronary band to toe, in the average 650Kg dairy cow?

A

90mm.

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25
Q

Why does milk fever occur around the time of calving?

A

Large quantities of Calcium are diverted to the udder for milk production.

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26
Q

What process establishes the three germ layers?

A

Gastrulation.

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27
Q

What cellular structure helps resist shearing forces in epithelium tissue?

A

Desmosomes.

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28
Q

Which organ is a B lymphocyte primary tissue in birds?

A

Bursa of Fabricius.

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29
Q

Epinephrine is a commonly used adrenergic agonist. What is the action of an agonist?

A

Binds to a receptor and activates it.

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30
Q

What is the function of the cranial and caudal cruciate ligaments?

A

Connect the distal end of the femur to the proximal end of the tibia and stabilise the stifle joint

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31
Q

In the cat, which muscles lie over the craniolateral aspect of the radius?

A

Extensor carpi radialis, common digital extensor and lateral digital extensor.

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32
Q

This image shows a lateromedial radiograph of the equine foot.
Into which synovial space has radiographic contrast been injected?

A

Navicular/podotrochlear bursa.

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33
Q

At the elbow joint which bony process projects into the olecranon fossa of the humerus?

A

Anconeal process.

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34
Q

Which muscles functionally replace the collateral ligaments of the shoulder joint?

A

Subscapularis and infraspinatus muscles.

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35
Q

Which muscle is innervated by the obturator nerve?

A

Gracilis m.

36
Q

The lateral styloid process in the forelimb of the dog is part of which bone?

A

Ulna.

37
Q

The third trochanter on the equine femur is the site of insertion for which muscle?

A

Gluteus superficialis.

38
Q

How would you define the increase in the width of long bones during growth?

A

Appositional growth

39
Q

Which of these muscles originates from the first cervical vertebra?

A

Rectus capitis ventralis m.

40
Q

Define ‘valgus’?

A

An angular limb deformity causing a ‘knock kneed’ appearance.

41
Q

According to the systemative review paper: Systematic review of the management of canine osteoarthritis. Sanderson et al. Vet Rec. 2009, for which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug(s) is there strong evidence that treatment with the drug(s) is effective for osteoarthritis in the dog?

A

Meloxicam.

42
Q

What is the medical name for a ‘strawberry toe’ in sheep?

A

toe granuloma, granuloma

43
Q

You are presented with a 6 month old, entire male West Highland White Terrier who has a history of difficult eating, and on physical examination has bony enlargement of the lower jaw.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Craniomandibular osteopathy

44
Q

You are presented with a 6 month old entire female German Shepherd Dog which has a history of intermittent shifting lameness (has been lame on left fore, right fore and left hind on different occasions). On physical examination there are no gross abnormalities, but the dog shows pain on palpation of the proximal radius.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Panosteitis

45
Q

For the following case, select the most appropriate fixation/stablisation technique.

A 7 year old, overweight GSD with a simple transverse mid-diaphyseal fracture of the right femur?

A

A bone plate used as a compression plate

Large heavy dog - most stable fixation

46
Q

For the following case, select the most appropriate fixation/stablisation technique.

A 4 month old puppy who has fallen from its owners arms, and become 10/10 lame on the left foreleg. You have taken radiographs that show a fracture of the medial condyle (Salter Harris Type III).

A

A lag screw and K-wire

Requires accurate anatomic reduction and alignment and rigid fixation (=compression), as involves the joint.

47
Q

For the following case, select the most appropriate fixation/stablisation technique.

A 3 month old Labrador puppy presents with a swollen painful stifle. Radiographs show a Salter Harris Type I fracture of the distal femur.

A

Crossed k-wires

Young rapidly growing = rapidly healing. Growth plate fracture / separation very stable when reduced therefore relatively weak fixation can be used.

48
Q

For the following case, select the most appropriate fixation/stablisation technique.

A 1 year old DSH cat presents with an open, slightly oblique fracture of the mid diaphysis of the tibia. The end of the proximal fragment is visible, through a skin wound approximately 1.5cm in diameter. The wound looks 1-2 days old.

A

An external skeletal fixator

Enables management of wound, avoids implants in fracture site (increased risk of infection).

49
Q

For the following case, select the most appropriate fixation/stablisation technique.

A 6 year old Rough Collie is presented with an acute onset lameness of the left front leg. Radiographs demonstrate a simple fracture of the olecranon. The displaced fragment is approximately 1cm in size, and therefore a bone plate cannot be used.

A

Pins and tension band wire

Pull of triceps will distract fragment = tension forces acting on it - so need to be counteracted by pins and tension band wire.

50
Q

What condition in the equine hoof is this?

A

Thrush

This is a very common condition with a distinctive appearance and smell

51
Q

What condition in the equine hoof is this?

A

White line infection

This infection has tracked up from the white line along the hoof wall and burst out through the coronary band

52
Q

What condition in the equine hoof is this?

A

Quittor

This is an uncommon condition caused by infection of the collateral cartilages of the pedal bone, often leading to coronary band and hoof wall pathology, as seen in this case.

53
Q

What condition of the equine hoof is this?

A

Canker

This is an uncommon condition but is important to recognise as it is challenging to manage and treat. It is characterised by a soft caseous discharge from the frog and heel bulb region.

54
Q

Which condition is due to a failure of endochondral ossification?

A

Osteochondrosis.

55
Q

In which condition must the patient be at least 5 months old before the diagnosis can be made?

A

Ununited anconeal process.

56
Q

You are presented with a 1 year old Chihuahua with a history of an intermittent hopping pelvic limb lameness. Which condition is the most likely underlying cause?

A

Medial patellar luxation.

57
Q

A very rare disease most commonly seen in individual cattle less than 6 months old causing a bilateral stiff and stilted hind limb gait.

A

Spastic paresis

58
Q

A rare disease characterised by stiffness and reluctance to move in the early stages. Prolapse of the third eye lid and elevation of the tail head may develop.

A

Tetanus

59
Q

A disease most appropriately treated by the parenteral administration of Vitamin E and selenium.

A

White muscle disease

60
Q

A disease characterised by a progressive and generalised muscle weakness in cattle or sheep of any age.

A

Botulism

61
Q

A disease most commonly seen in young lambs and calves born inside. Often precipitated by unsanitary conditions, there can be outbreaks in lambs kept on clean dry straw.

A

Septic arthritis

62
Q

A disease of recently calved cattle causing unilateral or bilateral hind limb weakness.

A

Obturator nerve paralysis.

63
Q

A disease most commonly seen in fast growing ‘barley beef’ cattle causing a chronic mild and progressive hind limb lameness.

A

Osteochondrosis.

64
Q

Look at these labels?

A
65
Q

Look at these labels?

A
66
Q

Look at these labels?

A
67
Q

Where would you expect to find an OCD lesion in the shoulder joint of a dog?

A

Caudal humeral head articulating surface.

68
Q

What disease causing lameness in cattle is shown in this picture?

A

Interdigital necrobacillosis (“Foul in the foot”).

69
Q

What is the most common site of forelimb lameness in the horse?

A

Foot

70
Q

Assessment of conformation is an important component of an equine lameness examination.
What is the normal angle through the equine metacarpophalangeal joint when viewed in a weight-bearing animal from the lateral aspect?

A

125-135o

71
Q

In which feline joint is osteoarthritis most prevalent?

A

Hip and elbow joints.

72
Q

A positive Ortolani sign is suggestive of which condition?

A

Femoral head subluxation.

73
Q

What is the correct name for the horse shoe shown in this image?

A

Straight bar shoe

74
Q

What is the most common cause of synovial infection in adult small animals?

A

Trauma / wound / bite

This was covered in the lecture and self study on synovial infection. Trauma is the most common case in all adult animals.

75
Q

You are presented with a Saker Falcon suffering from grade 3 (out of 5) bumblefoot on the right leg.
Which treatment regime would you recommend?

A

Surgically debride the affected area, bandage both feet, give a long course of antibiotics and correct husbandry.

76
Q

You have been investigating a horse which has a history of chronic forelimb lameness. The horse has shown a short, choppy stride and a Grade 2 out of 5 left fore lameness in a straight line (using AAEP lameness scoring system). When lunged on a hard surface, the lameness increases to Grade 3 left fore lame on the left rein and a Grade 2 right fore lame on the right rein.

Which ONE of the following statements would you use to summarise your findings to the owner?

A

The horse is lame on both fore limbs, but the lameness is worse on the left fore.

Question type: Equine/Clinical examination.
Covered in Week 4 Equine lameness investigation.

77
Q

A 7 month old German Shepherd dog presents with a right foreleg lameness. A physical examination locates pain on elbow flexion and extendion. You perform a radiograph of this region.

This is the mediolateral radiograph of the right elbow of the dog described above. What is your radiographic diagnosis?

A

Ununited anconeal process.

78
Q

Which of the following would currently be considered the most appropriate treatment for a sole ulcer?

A

Therapeutically trim both claws and apply a block to the sound claw.

79
Q

A 5 year old male neutered at is brought to your clinic having been run over by a man on a moped. The cat is lame on the right hind leg and has a large wound on the medial asect of the hock (see image). The hock feels unstable. On examination the cat has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, a heart rate of 180 beats/min and a body temperature of 38.6oC (101.50F). On auscultation of the thorax, breath sounds are audible only on the left hemithorax. The right hemithorax is dull on percussion.

Define a problem list for this case.

A
  • Unstable hock (1 mark):
  • Open fracture (0.5 mark)
  • Shearing injury or extensive soft tissue loss (1 mark) - if just say wound, then 0.5 mark
  • Lack of breath sounds on right hemithorax / dullness on percussion on right hemithorax (1 mark for either)

Marking criteria: 1 mark as indicated to a maximum of 3 marks in total

80
Q

A 5 year old male neutered at is brought to your clinic having been run over by a man on a moped. The cat is lame on the right hind leg and has a large wound on the medial asect of the hock (see image). The hock feels unstable. On examination the cat has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, a heart rate of 180 beats/min and a body temperature of 38.6oC (101.50F). On auscultation of the thorax, breath sounds are audible only on the left hemithorax. The right hemithorax is dull on percussion.

State three possible causes of the abnormal findings on thoracic examination.

A
  • Diaphragmatic rupture (0.5 mark) with abdominal contents in thorax (0.5 mark)
  • Fluid in thorax (0.5 mark, another 0.5 mark if describes fluid e.g. haemothorax)
  • Pulmonary oedema/contusion/haemorrhage/lung collapse (1 mark)

Marking criteria; marks awarded as indicated, maximum 3 marks in total

81
Q

A 5 year old male neutered at is brought to your clinic having been run over by a man on a moped. The cat is lame on the right hind leg and has a large wound on the medial asect of the hock (see image). The hock feels unstable. On examination the cat has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, a heart rate of 180 beats/min and a body temperature of 38.6oC (101.50F). On auscultation of the thorax, breath sounds are audible only on the left hemithorax. The right hemithorax is dull on percussion.

Having completed your clinical examination, state the first three important steps you should take to manage this patient.

A
  • Administer pain relief (0.5 mark) with example of drug (0.5mark)
  • Radiograph or ultrasound thorax (1 mark for either)
  • (maximum of 2 marks in total, plus 1 mark maximum for either of the below points)
  • Flush wound and / or cover wound to prevent further contamination (1 mark)
  • Antibiotic therapy (0.5 mark) with example of drug/or explanation of choice (0.5 mark)
  • IV fluids (0.5 mark) with name of fluids (0.5 mark)
  • No marks for shock rate

Marking criteria: Award marks as indicated to a maximum 3 marks in total

82
Q

A 5 year old male neutered at is brought to your clinic having been run over by a man on a moped. The cat is lame on the right hind leg and has a large wound on the medial asect of the hock (see image). The hock feels unstable. On examination the cat has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, a heart rate of 180 beats/min and a body temperature of 38.6oC (101.50F). On auscultation of the thorax, breath sounds are audible only on the left hemithorax. The right hemithorax is dull on percussion.

Having stabised the cat, you turn your attention to treating the hock injury.

This wound will require secondary closure. Explain the exact steps you would take to manage the soft tissue wound from the very moment the cat is presented to you, until the wound is ready for secondary closure.

A

Marks for any of the following, up to total of 8:

  • *1.** Wear gloves (1 mark)
  • *2.** Pack wound with sterile gel / KY gel (0.5) prior to clipping (1 mark)
  • *3.** Lavage (1 mark) with 2/3 litres of sterile fluids (0.5 mark for sensible volume - above 500mls)
  • *4.** Take swab for C+S (1 mark) and give broad-spectrum (0.5 mark) antibiotics until results available
  • *5.** Debride surgically (1 mark)
  • *6.** Wet to dry dressings or Intrasite gel (1 mark)
  • *7.** Apply a bandage to protect the wound (1 mark) or ESF to support the limb (1 mark)
  • *8.** When granulation tissue established (1 mark), change to non-adherent dressing (1 mark)
  • *9.** Example of suitable non-adherent dressings – Allevyn, Manuka honey etc (1 mark)
  • *10.** Stop antibiotics when granulation tissue formed (0.5 mark)
83
Q

A 5 year old male neutered at is brought to your clinic having been run over by a man on a moped. The cat is lame on the right hind leg and has a large wound on the medial asect of the hock (see image). The hock feels unstable. On examination the cat has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, a heart rate of 180 beats/min and a body temperature of 38.6oC (101.50F). On auscultation of the thorax, breath sounds are audible only on the left hemithorax. The right hemithorax is dull on percussion.

When the soft tissue and skin wounds have healed, you elect to perform an arthrodesis to treat the joint instability.

What are some of the principles of arthrodesis that you would follow to optimise the likelihood of a successful surgery?

A
  • *1.** Absolute stability / rigid fixation / compression (1 mark)
  • *2.** Removal of articular cartilage (1 mark)
  • *3.** Contour opposing joint surfaces (0.5 mark)
  • *4.** Cancellous bone graft (1 mark)
  • *5.** Joint fused at weight-bearing angle (1 mark)
  • *6.** Temporary external support (0.5 mark)
84
Q

Whitchurch farm is a mixed farm with sheep, arable, suckler cattle and bed and breakfast, but sheep production is the main enterprise. The farm is run by John and his son. There are 230 acres of permanent pasture and also an area of grass in an old airfield where sheep graze. The sheep flock comprises of approximately 800 Mules and 200 Suffolk crosses and handing facilities are very good on the farm. Lambing is from February through to April. Annual replacements are purchased through a market and John has recently bought some ewes. It’s early October and over coffee one day, you discovered that in the past few weeks over 10% of the flock has become lame; lameness is particularly bad in one field. It’s been quite wet in the last couple of weeks and John thinks it’s a footrot outbreak.

John thinks that footrot is causing the problems in his flock.

Having studied the farm background and case history, construct a list of three other most likely causes of lameness in this flock. Give your reason for choosing each cause of lameness and describe at least two characteristic signs that you would look for to differentiate each cause of lameness when you examine the lame sheep?

A
  • *1.** Scald [1]; Wet predisposing conditions [1]; Loss of hair, interdigital inflammation, red interdigital space [0.5 for any description, maximum 1 mark in total]
  • *2.** CODD (contagious ovine digital dermatitis [1]; Recently bought in sheep [1]; Starts at coronary band, loss of hair above coronary band, separation of horn from coronary band, complete detachment of hoof [0.5 for any description, maximum 1 mark in total]
  • *3.** Physical injury/foot abscess/shelly hoof [1]; One particular field with most lameness [1]; Separation of white line or penetration with stone/thorn may be visible, swelling and pus [0.5 for any description, maximum 1 mark in total]
  • *Marking criteria: award marks as indicated for each cause, to a maximum of 9 marks in total.**
85
Q

Whitchurch farm is a mixed farm with sheep, arable, suckler cattle and bed and breakfast, but sheep production is the main enterprise. The farm is run by John and his son. There are 230 acres of permanent pasture and also an area of grass in an old airfield where sheep graze. The sheep flock comprises of approximately 800 Mules and 200 Suffolk crosses and handing facilities are very good on the farm. Lambing is from February through to April. Annual replacements are purchased through a market and John has recently bought some ewes. It’s early October and over coffee one day, you discovered that in the past few weeks over 10% of the flock has become lame; lameness is particularly bad in one field. It’s been quite wet in the last couple of weeks and John thinks it’s a footrot outbreak.

What additional questions (at least three) would you ask John that would help you to assist in determining whether footrot was the underlying problem and help you develop a management plan?

A
  • Were bought in sheep quarantined?
  • How long they have been quarantined?
  • Do you know if the sheep that you bought had any foot lesions/lameness?
  • How do lesions look like/under-running, etc.?
  • Were the sheep that were bought turned to the field with most cases of lameness?
  • What is the field like- any thistles?
  • What is the stocking density?
  • How does he currently manage lame sheep?
  • Does he foot trim/footbath/vaccinate/individual treatments? (any of these questions on his treatments will get a maximum of 1 mark)
  • History of footrot?
  • What is the culling policy?

Marking criteria: 1 mark for each question, maximum 3 marks in total

86
Q

Whitchurch farm is a mixed farm with sheep, arable, suckler cattle and bed and breakfast, but sheep production is the main enterprise. The farm is run by John and his son. There are 230 acres of permanent pasture and also an area of grass in an old airfield where sheep graze. The sheep flock comprises of approximately 800 Mules and 200 Suffolk crosses and handing facilities are very good on the farm. Lambing is from February through to April. Annual replacements are purchased through a market and John has recently bought some ewes. It’s early October and over coffee one day, you discovered that in the past few weeks over 10% of the flock has become lame; lameness is particularly bad in one field. It’s been quite wet in the last couple of weeks and John thinks it’s a footrot outbreak.

You make a diagnosis of footrot by turning a respresentative sample of sheep and seeing characteristic footrot lesions.

Explain how you would manage and treat the current footrot outbreak in the flock; list at least three options with the most important recommendation at the top.
(Note - in the next part of the question you will be asked about long term management and prevention, so please focus on immediate management / treatment in this part).

A
  • Individual treatment of lame sheep with long acting parenteral antibacterials and topical antibacterial spray (1 additional mark if this listed at the top) (1/2 mark if only mention parenteral or only topical treatment)
  • Isolate lame sheep with footrot
  • Footbath in addition to antibiotics and turning to new pasture
  • Move sheep to a new pasture
  • Do not trim
  • Could consider pain relief

Marking criteria; award marks as indicated to a maximum of 4 marks in total

87
Q

Whitchurch farm is a mixed farm with sheep, arable, suckler cattle and bed and breakfast, but sheep production is the main enterprise. The farm is run by John and his son. There are 230 acres of permanent pasture and also an area of grass in an old airfield where sheep graze. The sheep flock comprises of approximately 800 Mules and 200 Suffolk crosses and handing facilities are very good on the farm. Lambing is from February through to April. Annual replacements are purchased through a market and John has recently bought some ewes. It’s early October and over coffee one day, you discovered that in the past few weeks over 10% of the flock has become lame; lameness is particularly bad in one field. It’s been quite wet in the last couple of weeks and John thinks it’s a footrot outbreak.

You make a diagnosis of footrot by turning a respresentative sample of sheep and seeing characteristic footrot lesions.

List four recommendations that you would give to John to manage/control footrot in his flock long term?

A
  • Catch and inspect lame sheep early (within 1-3 days of getting lame)
  • Don’t trim
  • Use of long acting antibiotics e.g long acting oxytetracycline @1ml/10kg and a topical spray
  • Cull ewes that get footrot more than twice
  • Breed from ewes and rams that have never been lame
  • Purchase stock from farms with low levels of lameness
  • Always quarantine brought-in sheep for at least 28 days
  • If footbath, use in addition to antibiotics and turn out on a new pasture
  • Isolate lame sheep if possible
  • If want to vaccinate - vaccinate esp. before risk periods (e.g housing)

Marking criteria: 1 mark for each point to a maximum of 4 marks in total