Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

5th year final - all cards combined > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

is the study/science of chemicals (drugs) that interact with the human body, is defined as what

A

pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what a drug does to the body (biological effects and mechanism of action) is defined as

A

pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs and their metabolites), is defined as

A

pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the science and technique of preparing, dispensing and reviewing of medical drugs) , is defined as

A

pharmacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a drug:

A

any single synthetic, or natural, substance of known structure used in treatment, prevention or diagnosis of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a medicine

A

a chemical preparation, containing one or more drugs used with the intention of causing a therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

do drugs work by acting on target molecules

yes or no

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what s a ligand

A

In biochemistry and pharmacology, a ligand is a substance that forms a complex with a biomolecule to serve a biological purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

drugs acting or receptors can either be what

A

agonist or antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a drug/chemical that activates a receptor and causes a response (acetylcholine), is an example of what

A

agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is a type of drug which combines with a receptor but does not activate it. Thus blocking the action of the agonist by binding to the same receptor.

is an example of what

A

antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what must there be, for the binding between the receptor and agonist

A

affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define affinity

A

Affinity is the strength of association between ligand and receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

once the agonist has combined the receptor is activated, what is the next response

A

efficacy response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is efficacy

A

Efficacy is the ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Affinity is ‘strength of association’ between ligand and receptor

how would low affinity affect the dissociation rate

A

Low affinity = fast dissociation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Affinity is ‘strength of association’ between ligand and receptor

how would moderate affinity affect the dissociation rate

A

Medium affinity = moderate dissociation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Affinity is ‘strength of association’ between ligand and receptor

how would high affinity affect the dissociation rate

A

High affinity = slow dissociation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

efficacy is the ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

if there is a low affinity, how will that affect the cellular response (efficacy)

A

If there is a low affinity, then there will be small cellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

efficacy is the ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

if there is a high affinity, how will that affect the cellular response (efficacy)

A

If there is a high affinity, then there will be a greater cellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do antagonists possess and lack

A

possess affinity and lack efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the process by which a drug enters the body from its site of administration and enters the general circulation: is defined as what

A

Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the transport of drug by the general circulation: is defined as what

A

distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the process by which tissue enzymes (principally in the liver – hepatic metabolism) catalyze the chemical conversion of a frequently lipid soluble drug to an often less active and more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body: is defined as what

A

metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the processes that remove the drug, or its metabolites, from the body (principally the kidneys – renal excretion): is defined as what

A

excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the drug must dissolve (dissolution) in an aqueous environment order to be absorbed: is defined as what

A

solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

some drugs are destroyed by acid in the stomach, or enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract. in a few instances, a compound is modified within the gut to release the active drug: is defined as

A

chemical stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the ratio of the drug concentration in the membrane and concentration in water at equilibrium: is defined as what

A

partition coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does an acid donate

proton or electron

A

protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does a base do

A

accepts a proton (decreases pH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

Gastrointestinal mobility:

A

the rate at which the stomach is emptying and movement through the intestines, this is modified by some drugs, disease states and the presence of food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

pH:

A

at the absorption site (varies along the gastrointestinal tract).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

Blood flow:

A

blood flow to the stomach and intestines (increased by food intake). Certain drugs are manufactured so that they can release drugs at different rates and sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

Physicochemical interactions:

A

the rate of absorption of drugs is modified by calcium rich-rich foods

The presence of transporters in the membranes of epithelial cells of the g.i tract can facilitate drug absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is oral availability of a drug

A

is the fraction of drug that reaches the systemic circulation after oral ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the Systemic availability of a drug

A

is the fraction that reaches the systemic circulation after absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when would use the rectum to delive drugs

A

when oral route is compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the disadvantage of taking medication via the oral route

A

inactivation by some enzymes/acids

food binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the advantages of taking medication via the sublingual/buccal route

A

rapid absorption

by-passes the portal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the advantages of intravenous route for drugs

A

rapid onset

continuous infusion

complete availability of drugs that cause local tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the disadvantages of taking intravenous route

A

sterile preparation required

risk of sepsis

embolism

high drug levels at the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the advantage of taking intramuscular drugs

A

rapid onset of lipid soluble drugs

43
Q

A symptom that suggests a certain medical treatment is necessary, is defined as

A

Indication:

44
Q

A specific situation in which a drug, procedure or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to the person, is defined as

A

Contraindication:

45
Q

acceptable if benefits outweigh risk, is defined as

A

Relative contraindication:

46
Q

life threatening – do not take, is defined as

A

Absolute contraindication:

47
Q

normal dose interval (given) is based on what

A

1 half life

48
Q

when is the next dose given (dosage sechdule/interval)

A
  • Next dose is given as previous dose reaches half life
49
Q

define half life:

A
  • Half-life: the time taken for the total amount of drug in blood plasma to diminish by half once it reaches peak concentration.
50
Q

define overdose

A

Overdose: an excessive and dangerous dose of drug (paracetamol more than 10g lethal dose, codeine more than 350mg leads to CNS and respiratory depression).

51
Q

define,

Drug-drug interactions

A

where several drugs are prescribed simultaneously to patients where one drug modifies the response to the co-administrating drug

52
Q

when effects or action of multiple drugs combine to produce adverse effect, is defined as

A

Pharmacodynamics

53
Q

when one drug affects the delivery of another drug to its target. May involve absorption, metabolism or elimination, is defined as

A

Pharmacokinetic

54
Q

is codeine safe to take during pregnancy

A

no

55
Q

what are the 7 checklist, before prescribing drugs

A

1) Patient’s identity!
2) Patient’s age and gender
3) Medical History / other conditions
4) Any allergies
5) Any recent / current medication
6) Consider special conditions: Pregnancy, lactation, can they swallow tablets
7) Sugar free available?

56
Q

the process by which a drug enters the body from its site of administration and enters the general circulation, is defined as

A

absorption

57
Q

the transport of drug by the general circulation. Drugs most often leave the blood and enter perfused tissues, is defined as

A

distribution

58
Q

the process by which tissue enzymes (principally in the liver – hepatic metabolism) catalyze the chemical conversion of a frequently lipid soluble drug to an often less active and more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body, is defined as

A

metabolism

59
Q

the processes that remove the drug, or its metabolites, from the body (principally the kidneys – renal excretion), but other routes may be important for specific agents, is defined as

A

excretion

60
Q

for a drug to achieve effect, a drug must reach critical concentration in the plasma, what must it reach?

A

Minimum effective concentration (MEC)

61
Q

ideally a drug should be below the level of causing significant unwanted side effects. what must a drug not reach to avoid side effects

A

maximum tolerated concentration (MTC)

62
Q

what is the therapeutic window

A

is the blood plasma concetration between MTC and MEC

63
Q

what is the consequence of a small therapeutic window

A

there is a chance you can overdose

64
Q

drugs with smaller therapeutic window are classified as unsafe true or false

A

true

65
Q

when is steady state of a drug achieved

A

drug adminsitration is equal to drug elimination

66
Q

what is a loading dose

A

A loading dose is an initial increase dose taken to get to the therapeutic window and then decrease to a lower dose to maintain a steady state.

67
Q

which is the main organ for drug metabolism

A

liver (hepatic metabolism)

68
Q

where does first pass metabolism occur

A

in the liver

69
Q

how does making a drug more hydrophilic help with elimination

A

hastens its excretion by the kidneys

70
Q

what is the name of the substances after metabolism

A

metabolites

71
Q

are metabolites more or less active then their parent form

A

less active

72
Q

the mechanism involved to increase affinity for water or solubility in water for a drug is called what

A

hydrophilicity

73
Q

the enzyme in the liver metabolising the drug needs to act on a wide variety of substances, and therefore must have a low what

A

low substrate specificity

74
Q

drug metabolism occurs in two phases.

what occurs during phase 1

A

addition of polar groups

75
Q

drug metabolism occurs in two phases.

what occurs during phase 2

A

conjugation

76
Q

oxidation reaction is catalysed by a family of enzymes known as

A

cytochrome P450 oxidases

77
Q

what occurs during phase 2

A

Cytoplasmic enzymes conjugate the functional groups introduced in phase 1.

78
Q

where are cytochrome P450 oxidases found

A

they are found in the endoplasmic reticulum

79
Q

what factors affect drug metabolism

A
  • Enzyme inhibition
  • Naringin found in citrus fruits
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Erythromycin
  • Herbal remedies
80
Q

the process by which a drug enters the body from its site of administration and enters the general circulation: is the definition of what

A

absorption

81
Q

the transport of drug by the general circulation. Drugs most often leave the blood and enter perfused tissues. Once within a tissue further, reversible, distribution dictated by a concentration gradient, may occur by diffusion (or carrier-mediated transport): is teh definition of what

A

distribution

82
Q

the process by which tissue enzymes (principally in the liver – hepatic metabolism) catalyze the chemical conversion of a frequently lipid soluble drug to an often less active and more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body: is the definition of what

A

metabolism

83
Q

the processes that remove the drug, or its metabolites, from the body (principally the kidneys – renal excretion), but other routes may be important for specific agents: is the definition of what

A

excretion

84
Q

is the mathematical analysis of all drug disposition factors (absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion): is the definition of what

A

pharmacokinetics

85
Q

when do drugs exhibit first-order kinetics

A

where the rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration.

86
Q

what determines the maintenane dose rate

A

clearance

Probably the single most important pharmacokinetic parameter – the volume of plasma cleared of drug in unit time,

87
Q

what must occur for a drug to achieve steady state

A

rate of drug administration = rate of drug elimination

88
Q

an initial higher dose is given during treatment at the beginning before stepping down. what is the name of this initial dose

A

loading dose

89
Q

The time for the concentration of drug in plasma (or the amount of drug in the body) to halve’ - is referred to as what

A

half life

90
Q

which organ is responsible for the elimination of most drugs

A

the renal system (kidneys)

91
Q

drugs are metabolised to become more …………. compounds which are are more easily excreted

A

polar

92
Q

if drugs are lipid soluble, they are easily reabsorbed in the ……………. by passive diffusion

A

renal tubules

93
Q

Drugs or phase 1 metabolites that are not sufficiently polar to be excreted rapidly by the kidneys are made more hydrophilic by conjugation with endogenous compounds - by which organ

A

liver

94
Q

which test is used to show how well the kidneys are working

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

95
Q

what does a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) estimate

A
  • It estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli every minute
96
Q

what is a normal Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A
  • Normal GFR is 90 mls / min or higher
97
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 60-89 mls/min = what stage

A

mild stage 2

98
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 30-59 mls/min = what stage

A

moderate stage 3

99
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 15-29 mls/min = what stage

A

severe stage 4

100
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 15-29 mls/min = what stage

A

established renal failure stage 5

101
Q

drugs or its metabolites that have poor renal excretion cause what -

A

toxicity

102
Q

if renal impairment is reduced, how does this affect the effectiveness of drugs

A

some drugs wont be as effective

103
Q
A

5th year final - all cards combined (174 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions