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Microbiology > Test 3: Old Tests > Flashcards

Test 3: Old Tests Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a property of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

produces an ADP-ribosylase that targets host elongation factor 2

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2
Q

What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?

A

it is a unique component of the Bordetella pertussis cell wall

it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

obligate intracellular pathogen

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4
Q

What is the role the Helicobacter pylori VacA protein?

A

VacA protein increases urea flow into the stomach

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5
Q

Which pathogenic E. coli strain does not invade intestinal epithelial cells but still causes bloody diarrhea, in part
due to production of a shiga toxin?

A

Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli

EHEC

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6
Q

Which of the following is true regarding vibrio cholrae?

A

severe dehydration is associated with this disease

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7
Q

What is the K antigen used for identifying strains of pathogenic enteric bacteria?

A

capsular polysaccharide

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8
Q

What is true about the ADP ribosylation function of some A-B toxins?

A

ADP ribosylation inactivates a target protein of host cells

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9
Q

The translocated intimin receptor (TIR) mediates attachment to host cells for which bacterium?

A

Enteropathogenic E Coli

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10
Q

Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis?

A

Camplyobacter jejune

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11
Q

Which is NOT a property of the keystone pathogen for periodontitis? 1/1

A

becomes the main species present in disease sites

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12
Q

Which bacterium is considered the keystone pathogen for periodontitis? 1/1

A

Porphyromonas

gingivalis

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13
Q

Which disease has oral manifestations that include gummas? 1/1

A

syphilis

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14
Q

Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis?

A

PAAP

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15
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Ludwig’s angina?

A

infection is polymicrobial (multiple species)

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16
Q

How do mucins act as antibacterial agents

A

mucins aggregate and clear oral bacteria via lectin like interactions

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17
Q

How does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent?

A

lysozyme cleave the bond between NAG and NAM

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18
Q

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is very typically associated with which oral disease?

A

aggressive periodontitis

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19
Q

What is one of the types of oral bacteria strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?

A

fusobacterium nucleatum

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20
Q

What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?

A

presence of acid stress response protiens

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21
Q

Name a bacterium that is a common late colonizer of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?

A

prevotella

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22
Q

What is true of dental plaque?

A

sugar consumption causes increased levels of strep mutans in plaque

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23
Q

What bacterial gene is used in current methods for classifying bacteria, including identifying new species?

A

16s RNA

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24
Q

Which property of bacteria in a dental biofilm is associated with decreasing the risk of dental caries?

A

upregulation of ammonia production from arginine and urea

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25
Q

What bacterium lacks peptidoglycan and is the agent of the most sexually transmitted infections, characterized by mucopurulent discharges?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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26
Q

Which organism is an obligate intracellular pathogen?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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27
Q

Bacteria of which genus are transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?

A

rickettsia

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28
Q

What is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease associate with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

arthritis

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29
Q

What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?

A

mulberry molars

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30
Q

Name a bacterium that may be detectable by an acid-fast staining test of a sputum smear.

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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31
Q

Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

the bacterium exhibit a very slow growth rate (doubling 1 time a day)

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32
Q

What is a property of the bacterial agent of Legionnaires’ disease?

A

lives within amoebas in water sources within ventilation systems

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33
Q

Name a bacterium that survives in alveolar macrophages.

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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34
Q

What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of
these bacteria to cause systemic infections?

A

capsule B

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35
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes,
producing characteristic swellings called “bubos.”

A

yersenia pestis

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36
Q

Which of the following is true about Bacillus anthracis?

A

produces a metallo-protease called lethal factor

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37
Q

Which Clostridium species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?

A

C. Difficle

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38
Q

Botulism results in

A

flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of neuortransmitter ach

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39
Q

These gram positive rods establish themselves in the throat and kill cells by expressing a toxin that ADP- ribosylates elongation factor 2, causing inhibition of cellular translation.

A

corynebacterium diptheria

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40
Q

What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?

A

it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled

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41
Q

he ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce a biofilm is dependent on

A

alginate production

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42
Q

What pathogen resides in the stomach and induces the host to secrete urea through the mucosal epithelium?

A

helicobacter pylori

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43
Q

Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild self-limiting gastroenteritis

A

camplylobactor jejune

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44
Q

What is a property of cholera toxin and the system for spreading the genes encoding it?

A

the cholera toxin genes are encoded in a phage genome

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45
Q

Which of the following is true about cholera?

A

supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment

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46
Q

Which enteric bacterium can invade M cells in the gut, survive in macrophages, and eventually infect many different organ in the body?

A

salmonella enteric serovar typhi

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47
Q

Most cases of cytitis (bladder infections) are caused by which bacterial genus?

A

escherichia

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48
Q

What is the effect of shiga toxin on the host?

A

removal of a specific adenine base from 28s rRNA

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49
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?

A

Escherichia coli 0157:H7

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50
Q

Which of the following is the mostly likely characteristic ofCampylobacter jejune?

A

acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis

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51
Q

To what surface feature of enteric bacteria does the term H-antigen refer?

A

flagella

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52
Q

What is not a property associated with Salmonella enterica serovar typhi?

A

produces a cholera-like toxin

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53
Q

What are properties of salmonella enterica serovar typhi?

A

invades M cells
survive in macophages
replicates in multiple organs compromising their functions
causes intestinal rupture

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54
Q

Which bacterium produces the vast majority (70-90%) of urinary tract infections (bladder infections, for example)?

A

E. COli

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55
Q

Which of the following is not a virulence factor forHelicobacter pylori?

A

shiga-like toxin

56
Q

What are virulence factors for H. Pylori?

A

urease
VacA protein
CagA protein
flagella

57
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7

58
Q

Shiga toxin has what function?

A

removes a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA, stopping translation

59
Q

Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

obligate intracellular pathogen

60
Q

What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?

A

its is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled

61
Q

These gram positive pleiomorphic rods produce a pseudomembrane in the throat that can block the airway.

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

62
Q

Clostridium botulinumproduces an A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of which neurotransmitter from axon
endings at neuromuscular junctions?

A

AcH

63
Q

Which Clostridial species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?

A

clostridium difficle

64
Q

Which organism produces alpha toxin (a lecithinase-phospholipase C) and theta toxin (a hemolytic toxin), that
partially account for the organism’s tissue-destructiveness that often requires amputation to save the patient’s life?

A

clostridium perfringens

65
Q

Which of the following best describes tetanospasmin, a virulence factor forClostridium tetani?

A

A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of the neurotransmitter glycine

66
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically mainly from contact with wild animals such as
birds, rabbits, or tick bites. The bacteria are able to grow in macrophages, resulting in systemic spread that can lead to ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, and pulmonary infections. A vaccine is available for high-risk individuals.

A

Francisella tularensis

STUDY this one… IDK it very well.

67
Q

What virulence property does Haemophilus influenzae capsule b confer on these bacteria?

A

it allows the bacteria to cause systemic infections

68
Q

What bacterium lives inside amoeba in the environment and is typically transmitted by an aerosol route to humans through ventilation systems in buildings?

A

legionella pneumophila

69
Q

What bacterium grows at tempertures from 1oC to 45oC, is resistant to salt and acid conditions, and is a food-
borne pathogen that causes systemic disease in immune-compromised individuals?

A

listeria monocytogenes

70
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where
it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human.

A

yersinia pestis

71
Q

Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)

72
Q

A positive result with an acid-fast staining test on a sputum smear is indicative of which type of bacteria?

A

m. tuberculosis

73
Q

Which of the following is true for cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

is a glycolipid that adheres to cell surface mycolic acids

74
Q

Which of the following is true for leprosy?

A

individuals normally clear the bacterial agent via cell-mediated immunity

75
Q

Bacteria of which genus are Gram positive filamentous rods that are opportunistic pathogens, causing
bronchopulmonary infections and brain abscesses?

A

nocardia

76
Q

A zoonotic disease is associated with which of the following bacteria?

A

borrelia burgdoferi

77
Q

Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell?

A

reticulate body

78
Q

What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

immune protection fades after recovery from infection

79
Q

Bacteria of which genus cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

rickettsia

80
Q

Which of the following is best associated with the viridans Streptococci?

A

dental caries

81
Q

What symptoms are uniquely associated with tertiary syphilis?

A

gummas

82
Q

Which organism is a gram-positive, spore-forming, strictly anaerobic rod?

A

clostridium perfringens

83
Q

Is part of the normal human intestinal bacterial flora

A

clostridium difficle

84
Q

Blockage of acetylcholine release from host cells is caused by a virulence factor of which bacterium?

A

Clostridium Botulinum

85
Q

Which of the following is not true about Bacillus anthracis?

A

only Bacillus species that do not form spores

86
Q

Which of the following is true concerning Baccilus anthracic?

A

produces an adenylate cyclase called edema factor

produces a metalloprotease called lethal factor

bacteria are Gram positive rods

historically, bacteria transmitted from animal sources

87
Q

What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of
these bacteria to cause systemic infections?

A

capsule B

88
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human.

A

yersinia pestis

89
Q

What property is associated with listeria monocytogenes?

A

is transmitted to human in contaminated porcessed meat and dairy products

90
Q

What is a property of the bacterial agent of legionnaires disease?

A

epithelial cells in the lung are this bacterium’s main target for invasion

91
Q

Which of the following is true for cord factor of m. tuberculosis?

A

contains mycolic acid

92
Q

Which of the following is true for tuberculosis?

A

most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease.

93
Q

Which of the following is not a property of nocardia?

A

is a zoonotic agent (sheep and goats)

94
Q

A pregnant 22-year-old woman was seen at an urgent care clinic and presented with fever, malaise, headache and a macular rash (flat, red) over much of her body. Upon questioning, she reported that about 1 year earlier she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously after a few weeks. A diagnostic test revealed the pathogen and the likely connection between her previous and current symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis made following her urgent care visit?

A

secondary syphillis

95
Q

What is the treatment for a child born with congential syphillis?

A

penicillin

96
Q

What is a symptom of late stage chronic disease associate with borrelia burgdoferi?

A

arthritis

97
Q

Which bacteria are not transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?

A

yersinia pestis

98
Q

trachoma

A

is a form of blindness

99
Q

What is a property of chlamydia trachomatis?

A

some serotypes cause a gonorrheal-like disease

100
Q

What is true about mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria

101
Q

What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?

A

acid stress response protiens

102
Q

What role does ammonia production from arginine and urea play for oral bacteria?

A

creation of a more basic local environment

103
Q

What is true of dental plaque?

A

sugar consumption causes an increased levels of strp mutans in plaque

104
Q

Which bacteria are common late colonizers of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?

A

prevotella melaninogenicus

105
Q

Which bacterium is strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?

A

fusobacterium nucleatum

106
Q

dental caries correlates with what?

A

high levels of strep mutans

107
Q

Which bacterial genus is especially associated with aggressive periodontitis?

A

aggregatibacter

108
Q

how does lysozyme acts as an antibacterial agent?

A

cleaves the bond between NAM and NAg

109
Q

What is an example of a role of a toll-like recpetor in oral defense?

A

bind to LPS and signal bacterial presence

110
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of salivary gland infections?

A

dehydration increases the risk of infection

111
Q

Which disease has oral manifestations that include ulcers on the palate?

A

tuberculosis

112
Q

Give an example where post-exposure vaccination is recommended?

A

after being bitten by an animal suspected to be infected with the rabies virus

113
Q

Which vaccine protects solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies? 0/1

A

hepatitis A vaccine

114
Q

Passive immunization is used for all of the following except 1/1

A

to elicit the production of secretory antibodies

115
Q

What drug inhibits the function of influenza A virus M2 protein? 1/1

A

rimantidine

116
Q

Which class of anti-HIV drug is also effective against hepatitis B virus?

A

anti-reverse transcriptase

117
Q

Which drug blocks release of influenza A virus from an infected cell?

A

tamiflu

118
Q

Which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell?

A

coronavirus

119
Q

What paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

120
Q

What is true about measles virus?

A

infections by the measles virus are limited in the United States because of widespread vaccination
`

121
Q

How do pigs play a role in major periodic changes in influenza viruses?

A

segments of genomes from influenza viruses that infect pigs can “randomly reassort” with those that infect humans, leading to antigenic shift

122
Q

Antigenic shifts in influenza viruses are caused by

A

random packaging or single stranded RNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses

123
Q

Which influenza virus protein mediates adsorption of the virus onto a host epithelial cell surface?

A

hemagluttinen

124
Q

What naked capsid viruses can cause an aseptic meningitis OR vesicles/ulcers on the tonsils and palate OR
pleurodynia, depending on the subtype?

A

coxsackie virus

125
Q

What flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person and from monkeys-to-humans and causes jaundice in severe cases

A

yellow fever virus

126
Q

Which virus can cause worse disease symptoms when a person has partial immunity from a prior exposure to the virus

A

dengue virus

127
Q

Which of the following choices is true?

A

togaviruses have an envelope

128
Q

What virus is responsible for about 30% of cases of the “common cold” but also has variants that cause the life-threatening illness called severe acute respiratory syndrome?

A

coronavirus

129
Q

Which virus is not spread mainly by respiratory transmission?

A

coxsackievirus

130
Q

What does the term lysogeny mean?

A

the integration of the bacteriophage genome into the bacterial genome

131
Q

What is true about rhinoviruses?

A

can directly translate viral RNA upon entry into a new host cell

132
Q

What is an enveloped virus composed of?

A

nucleoplamsid plus membrane plus glycoproteins

133
Q

What is true about influenza viruses?

A

require a viral RNA polymerase to be packaged inot viral particles

134
Q

When performing controlled viral infections in tissue culture (with a defined number of viral particles (virions)),
what is the first phase of the infection process called?

A

adsorption

135
Q

What is an example of a cellular function supplied by a viral genome integrated into the human cell genome?

A

syncytin-1 for placental fusion

Microbiology (46 decks)

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