Test 3: Old Tests Flashcards
What is a property of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
produces an ADP-ribosylase that targets host elongation factor 2
What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
it is a unique component of the Bordetella pertussis cell wall
it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
obligate intracellular pathogen
What is the role the Helicobacter pylori VacA protein?
VacA protein increases urea flow into the stomach
Which pathogenic E. coli strain does not invade intestinal epithelial cells but still causes bloody diarrhea, in part
due to production of a shiga toxin?
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
EHEC
Which of the following is true regarding vibrio cholrae?
severe dehydration is associated with this disease
What is the K antigen used for identifying strains of pathogenic enteric bacteria?
capsular polysaccharide
What is true about the ADP ribosylation function of some A-B toxins?
ADP ribosylation inactivates a target protein of host cells
The translocated intimin receptor (TIR) mediates attachment to host cells for which bacterium?
Enteropathogenic E Coli
Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis?
Camplyobacter jejune
Which is NOT a property of the keystone pathogen for periodontitis? 1/1
becomes the main species present in disease sites
Which bacterium is considered the keystone pathogen for periodontitis? 1/1
Porphyromonas
gingivalis
Which disease has oral manifestations that include gummas? 1/1
syphilis
Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis?
PAAP
Which of the following is characteristic of Ludwig’s angina?
infection is polymicrobial (multiple species)
How do mucins act as antibacterial agents
mucins aggregate and clear oral bacteria via lectin like interactions
How does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent?
lysozyme cleave the bond between NAG and NAM
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is very typically associated with which oral disease?
aggressive periodontitis
What is one of the types of oral bacteria strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?
fusobacterium nucleatum
What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?
presence of acid stress response protiens
Name a bacterium that is a common late colonizer of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?
prevotella
What is true of dental plaque?
sugar consumption causes increased levels of strep mutans in plaque
What bacterial gene is used in current methods for classifying bacteria, including identifying new species?
16s RNA
Which property of bacteria in a dental biofilm is associated with decreasing the risk of dental caries?
upregulation of ammonia production from arginine and urea
What bacterium lacks peptidoglycan and is the agent of the most sexually transmitted infections, characterized by mucopurulent discharges?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which organism is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
chlamydia trachomatis
Bacteria of which genus are transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?
rickettsia
What is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease associate with Borrelia burgdorferi?
arthritis
What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?
mulberry molars
Name a bacterium that may be detectable by an acid-fast staining test of a sputum smear.
mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
the bacterium exhibit a very slow growth rate (doubling 1 time a day)
What is a property of the bacterial agent of Legionnaires’ disease?
lives within amoebas in water sources within ventilation systems
Name a bacterium that survives in alveolar macrophages.
mycobacterium tuberculosis
What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of
these bacteria to cause systemic infections?
capsule B
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes,
producing characteristic swellings called “bubos.”
yersenia pestis
Which of the following is true about Bacillus anthracis?
produces a metallo-protease called lethal factor
Which Clostridium species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?
C. Difficle
Botulism results in
flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of neuortransmitter ach
These gram positive rods establish themselves in the throat and kill cells by expressing a toxin that ADP- ribosylates elongation factor 2, causing inhibition of cellular translation.
corynebacterium diptheria
What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
he ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce a biofilm is dependent on
alginate production
What pathogen resides in the stomach and induces the host to secrete urea through the mucosal epithelium?
helicobacter pylori
Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild self-limiting gastroenteritis
camplylobactor jejune
What is a property of cholera toxin and the system for spreading the genes encoding it?
the cholera toxin genes are encoded in a phage genome
Which of the following is true about cholera?
supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment
Which enteric bacterium can invade M cells in the gut, survive in macrophages, and eventually infect many different organ in the body?
salmonella enteric serovar typhi
Most cases of cytitis (bladder infections) are caused by which bacterial genus?
escherichia
What is the effect of shiga toxin on the host?
removal of a specific adenine base from 28s rRNA
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?
Escherichia coli 0157:H7
Which of the following is the mostly likely characteristic ofCampylobacter jejune?
acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis
To what surface feature of enteric bacteria does the term H-antigen refer?
flagella
What is not a property associated with Salmonella enterica serovar typhi?
produces a cholera-like toxin
What are properties of salmonella enterica serovar typhi?
invades M cells
survive in macophages
replicates in multiple organs compromising their functions
causes intestinal rupture
Which bacterium produces the vast majority (70-90%) of urinary tract infections (bladder infections, for example)?
E. COli
Which of the following is not a virulence factor forHelicobacter pylori?
shiga-like toxin
What are virulence factors for H. Pylori?
urease
VacA protein
CagA protein
flagella
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?
Escherichia coli O157:H7
Shiga toxin has what function?
removes a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA, stopping translation
Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
obligate intracellular pathogen
What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
its is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
These gram positive pleiomorphic rods produce a pseudomembrane in the throat that can block the airway.
corynebacterium diptheriae
Clostridium botulinumproduces an A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of which neurotransmitter from axon
endings at neuromuscular junctions?
AcH
Which Clostridial species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?
clostridium difficle
Which organism produces alpha toxin (a lecithinase-phospholipase C) and theta toxin (a hemolytic toxin), that
partially account for the organism’s tissue-destructiveness that often requires amputation to save the patient’s life?
clostridium perfringens
Which of the following best describes tetanospasmin, a virulence factor forClostridium tetani?
A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of the neurotransmitter glycine
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically mainly from contact with wild animals such as
birds, rabbits, or tick bites. The bacteria are able to grow in macrophages, resulting in systemic spread that can lead to ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, and pulmonary infections. A vaccine is available for high-risk individuals.
Francisella tularensis
STUDY this one… IDK it very well.
What virulence property does Haemophilus influenzae capsule b confer on these bacteria?
it allows the bacteria to cause systemic infections
What bacterium lives inside amoeba in the environment and is typically transmitted by an aerosol route to humans through ventilation systems in buildings?
legionella pneumophila
What bacterium grows at tempertures from 1oC to 45oC, is resistant to salt and acid conditions, and is a food-
borne pathogen that causes systemic disease in immune-compromised individuals?
listeria monocytogenes
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where
it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human.
yersinia pestis
Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)
A positive result with an acid-fast staining test on a sputum smear is indicative of which type of bacteria?
m. tuberculosis
Which of the following is true for cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
is a glycolipid that adheres to cell surface mycolic acids
Which of the following is true for leprosy?
individuals normally clear the bacterial agent via cell-mediated immunity
Bacteria of which genus are Gram positive filamentous rods that are opportunistic pathogens, causing
bronchopulmonary infections and brain abscesses?
nocardia
A zoonotic disease is associated with which of the following bacteria?
borrelia burgdoferi
Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell?
reticulate body
What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
immune protection fades after recovery from infection
Bacteria of which genus cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
rickettsia
Which of the following is best associated with the viridans Streptococci?
dental caries
What symptoms are uniquely associated with tertiary syphilis?
gummas
Which organism is a gram-positive, spore-forming, strictly anaerobic rod?
clostridium perfringens
Is part of the normal human intestinal bacterial flora
clostridium difficle
Blockage of acetylcholine release from host cells is caused by a virulence factor of which bacterium?
Clostridium Botulinum
Which of the following is not true about Bacillus anthracis?
only Bacillus species that do not form spores
Which of the following is true concerning Baccilus anthracic?
produces an adenylate cyclase called edema factor
produces a metalloprotease called lethal factor
bacteria are Gram positive rods
historically, bacteria transmitted from animal sources
What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of
these bacteria to cause systemic infections?
capsule B
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human.
yersinia pestis
What property is associated with listeria monocytogenes?
is transmitted to human in contaminated porcessed meat and dairy products
What is a property of the bacterial agent of legionnaires disease?
epithelial cells in the lung are this bacterium’s main target for invasion
Which of the following is true for cord factor of m. tuberculosis?
contains mycolic acid
Which of the following is true for tuberculosis?
most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease.
Which of the following is not a property of nocardia?
is a zoonotic agent (sheep and goats)
A pregnant 22-year-old woman was seen at an urgent care clinic and presented with fever, malaise, headache and a macular rash (flat, red) over much of her body. Upon questioning, she reported that about 1 year earlier she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously after a few weeks. A diagnostic test revealed the pathogen and the likely connection between her previous and current symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis made following her urgent care visit?
secondary syphillis
What is the treatment for a child born with congential syphillis?
penicillin
What is a symptom of late stage chronic disease associate with borrelia burgdoferi?
arthritis
Which bacteria are not transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?
yersinia pestis
trachoma
is a form of blindness
What is a property of chlamydia trachomatis?
some serotypes cause a gonorrheal-like disease
What is true about mycoplasma pneumoniae?
cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria
What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?
acid stress response protiens
What role does ammonia production from arginine and urea play for oral bacteria?
creation of a more basic local environment
What is true of dental plaque?
sugar consumption causes an increased levels of strp mutans in plaque
Which bacteria are common late colonizers of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?
prevotella melaninogenicus
Which bacterium is strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?
fusobacterium nucleatum
dental caries correlates with what?
high levels of strep mutans
Which bacterial genus is especially associated with aggressive periodontitis?
aggregatibacter
how does lysozyme acts as an antibacterial agent?
cleaves the bond between NAM and NAg
What is an example of a role of a toll-like recpetor in oral defense?
bind to LPS and signal bacterial presence
Which of the following is characteristic of salivary gland infections?
dehydration increases the risk of infection
Which disease has oral manifestations that include ulcers on the palate?
tuberculosis
Give an example where post-exposure vaccination is recommended?
after being bitten by an animal suspected to be infected with the rabies virus
Which vaccine protects solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies? 0/1
hepatitis A vaccine
Passive immunization is used for all of the following except 1/1
to elicit the production of secretory antibodies
What drug inhibits the function of influenza A virus M2 protein? 1/1
rimantidine
Which class of anti-HIV drug is also effective against hepatitis B virus?
anti-reverse transcriptase
Which drug blocks release of influenza A virus from an infected cell?
tamiflu
Which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell?
coronavirus
What paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia?
Respiratory syncytial virus
What is true about measles virus?
infections by the measles virus are limited in the United States because of widespread vaccination
`
How do pigs play a role in major periodic changes in influenza viruses?
segments of genomes from influenza viruses that infect pigs can “randomly reassort” with those that infect humans, leading to antigenic shift
Antigenic shifts in influenza viruses are caused by
random packaging or single stranded RNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses
Which influenza virus protein mediates adsorption of the virus onto a host epithelial cell surface?
hemagluttinen
What naked capsid viruses can cause an aseptic meningitis OR vesicles/ulcers on the tonsils and palate OR
pleurodynia, depending on the subtype?
coxsackie virus
What flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person and from monkeys-to-humans and causes jaundice in severe cases
yellow fever virus
Which virus can cause worse disease symptoms when a person has partial immunity from a prior exposure to the virus
dengue virus
Which of the following choices is true?
togaviruses have an envelope
What virus is responsible for about 30% of cases of the “common cold” but also has variants that cause the life-threatening illness called severe acute respiratory syndrome?
coronavirus
Which virus is not spread mainly by respiratory transmission?
coxsackievirus
What does the term lysogeny mean?
the integration of the bacteriophage genome into the bacterial genome
What is true about rhinoviruses?
can directly translate viral RNA upon entry into a new host cell
What is an enveloped virus composed of?
nucleoplamsid plus membrane plus glycoproteins
What is true about influenza viruses?
require a viral RNA polymerase to be packaged inot viral particles
When performing controlled viral infections in tissue culture (with a defined number of viral particles (virions)),
what is the first phase of the infection process called?
adsorption
What is an example of a cellular function supplied by a viral genome integrated into the human cell genome?
syncytin-1 for placental fusion
