Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm One-Liners > Pharm One Liners High Yield > Flashcards

Pharm One Liners High Yield Flashcards

High Yield Pharm One-Liners

1
Q

Time it takes for amount of drug to fall to half of its value, constant in first order kinetics (majority of drugs)

A

Half-life (T1/2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Barbiturates, phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampin all do this

A

Induce CYP450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cimetidine, ketoconazole, isoniazid, and grapefruit all do this

A

Inhibit CYP450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ability of drug to produce the maximal biologic effect

A

Efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes intracellular receptors

A

Steroid and hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity

A

Insulin, EGF, TGFbeta, PDGF, ANP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antidote used for acetaminophen (APAP) toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antidote used for warfarin toxicity

A

Vitamin K and Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antidote used for opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone (IV), naltrexone (PO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antidote used for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

May protect against doxorubicin cardio-toxicity by chelating iron

A

Dexrazoxane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blows DNA (breaks DNA strands), limiting SE is pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Anti-emetics used in association with anti-cancer drugs that are 5-HT3 (serotonin receptor subtype ) antagonist

A

Odansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, palonosetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hormone inhibiting prolactin release

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Synthetic analog of ADH hormone used for diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thioamide less likely to cross placenta, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses, and indicated for pregnant women in 1st trimester

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU) mechanism of action

A

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Some side effects of corticosteroids

A

Hyperglycemia, Osteopenia, impaired wound healing, inc. risk of infection, inc. appetite, HTN, edema, PUD, euphoria, psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diuretic used to antagonize aldosterone receptors

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Non-steroidal estrogen agonist causes clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina in daughters of women who used it during pregnancy

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Converted to more active form DHT by 5 alpha-reductase

A

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Product of proinsulin cleavage used to assess insulin production

A

C-peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Long acting insulin

A

Ultralente (humulin U)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Amino acid derivative for treatment of Type II diabetes

A

Nateglinide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Used intranasally and decreases bone resorption

A

Calcitonin (salmon prep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug that causes contraction of the uterus

A

Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Distribution of histamine receptors H1, H2, and H3

A

Smooth muscle and mast cells; stomach, heart, and mast cells; nerve endings, CNS respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2nd generation antihistamines

A

Fexofenadine, loratadine, and cetirizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

H2 blocker that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

Cimetidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ergot alkaloid used as an illicit drug

A

LSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dopamine agonist used in hyperprolactinemia

A

Bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mediator of tissue pain, edema, inactivated by ACE, and may be a contributing factor to the development of angioedema

A

Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Drug causing depletion of substance P (vasodilator)

A

Capsaicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prostaglandins that cause abortions

A

Prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol), PGE2, and PGF2alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase

A

Zileuton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Used in pediatrics to maintain patency of ductus arteriosis

A

PGE1 (Alprostadil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Prostaglandin used as 2nd line treatment of erectile dysfunction

A

PGE1 (Alprostadil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MOA and effect of nitric oxide

A

Stimulates cGMP which leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Muscarinic antagonist used in COPD

A

Ipratropium, tiotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MOA action of cromolyn

A

Blocks opening of Cl channels to prevent mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SE of long term (>5 days) corticosteroid therapy and remedy

A

Adrenal suppression and weaning slowly, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drug used for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients

A

Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Technique used to diagnose perianal itching, and the drug used to treat it

A

Scotch tape technique and mebendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MOA of sulfonamides

A

Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Anemia caused by trimethoprim

A

Megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DOC for giardia, bacterial vaginosis, pseudomembranous colitis, and trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Treatment for TB patients (think RIPE)

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Common side effect of Rifampin

A

Orange urine discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

DOC for influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

DOC for RSV

A

Ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

HIV antiviral class known to have severe drug interactions by causing inhibition of metabolism

A

Protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

DOC for N. gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DOC for herpes and its MOA

A

Acyclovir; activates thymidine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Reason benzos are used cautiously in pregnancy

A

Ability to cross the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose (antagonist that reverses the CNS effects)

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Agent that is metabolized to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase and microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

A

Ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

System that increases in activity with chronic exposure and may contribute to tolerance

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system MEOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The most common neurologic abnormality in chronic alcoholics

A

Peripheral neuropathy (also excessive alcohol use is associated with HTN, anemia, and MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Drugs of choice for generalized tonic-clonic and partial seizures

A

Valproic acid, Phenytoin and Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Drugs of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide and valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for pain of neuropathic orgin

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, diplopia and ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia that may be caused by use of halogenated anesthetics

A

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, it accelerates recovery from benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Opioid associated with awareness during surgery and post-operative recall, but still used for high-risk cardiovascular surgeries

A

Fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia by acting on the sarcoplasmic reticulum or skeletal muscle

A

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Antipsychotics, reserpine at high doses, and MPTP (by-product of illicit meperidine analog) and is irreversible

A

Drug induced Parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Side effects occuring in antipsychotics that block dopamine

A

EPS, hyperprolactinemia, amennorrhea, galactorrhea, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

72
Q

Antipsychotics having the strongest autonomic effects

A

Chlorpromazine or Thioridazine

73
Q

Agent with greater affinity to 5HT2A receptor; reserved for refractory schizophrenia, and can cause weight gain and agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

74
Q

Anti-psychotics shown not to cause tardive dyskinesia

A

Clozapine and quetiapine

75
Q

Patients being treated with lithium, who are dehydrated, or taking diuretics concurrently, could develop

A

Lithium toxicity, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

76
Q

DOC for bipolar affective disorder

A

Lithium

77
Q

SE of lithium

A

Tremor, sedation, ataxia, aphasia, thyroid enlargement, and reversible diabetes insipidus

78
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, enuresis, and OCD

A

Imipramine

79
Q

Unicyclic antidepressant least likely to affect sexual performance, used for management of nicotine withdrawal, SE’s include dizziness, dry mouth, aggravation of psychosis, and seizures

A

Bupropion

80
Q

Activation of these receptors close Ca2+ ion channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release and pain transmission

A

Presynaptic mu, delta, and kappa receptors

81
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except

A

Miosis, convulsions and constipation

82
Q

Opioid used in the management of withdrawal states

A

Methadone

83
Q

Opioid available trans-dermally

A

Fentanyl

84
Q

Opioid that can be given PO, by epidural, and IV, which helps to relieve the dyspnea of pulmonary edema

A

Morphine

85
Q

Moderate opioid agonists

A

Codeine, hydrocodone, and oxycodone

86
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV and had short DOA

A

Naloxone

87
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally in alcohol dependency programs

A

Naltrexone

88
Q

Readily detected markers that may assist in diagnosis of the cause of a drug overdose include

A

Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, body temperature, sweating, bowel signs, and pupillary responses

89
Q

This agent may cause more severe, rapid and intense symptoms (abstinence syndrome) to a recovering addict

A

Naloxone

90
Q

“Date rape drug”

A

Flunitrazepam (rohypnol)

91
Q

These agents are CNS depressants

A

Ethanol, Barbiturates, and Benzodiazepines

92
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

Patches, gum, nasal spray, psychotherapy, and bupropion

93
Q

THC is active ingredient, SE’s include impairment of judgment, and reflexes, decreases in blood pressure and psychomotor performance occur

A

Marijuana

94
Q

This agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

95
Q

Toxicity of cholinergics

A

DUMBELSS (diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, salivation, and sweating)

96
Q

Treat manifestations of Parkinson’s disease and EPS

A

Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

97
Q

Treatment of motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

98
Q

Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Atropine and other anti-muscarinic agents

99
Q

Bronchodilation in asthma and COPD

A

Ipratropium, tiotropium

100
Q

Mnemonic for beta receptors

A

You have 1 heart (Beta 1) and 2 lungs (Beta 2)

101
Q

These agents decrease blood flow or increase blood pressure, are local decongestant, and used in therapy of spinal shock (temporary maintenance of blood pressure which may help maintain perfusion)

A

Alpha1 agonists

102
Q

Alpha 1 agonist toxicity

A

Hypertension

103
Q

Selective Alpha 1 blocker used for hypertension, BPH, may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

104
Q

Selective B1 Receptor blockers that may be useful in treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma

A

Acebutolol, atenolol, esmolol, metoprolol

105
Q

This beta blocker lacks local anesthetic activity (decreases protective reflexes and increases the risk of corneal ulceration) and used in treating glaucoma

A

Timolol

106
Q

These Beta blockers decrease aqueous secretion

A

Timolol (nonselective), betaxolol (selective)

107
Q

Captopril and enalapril (-OPRIL ending) are

A

ACE inhibitors

108
Q

SE of ACE inhibitors

A

Dry cough, hyperkalemia

109
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

pregnancy and with hyperkalemia

110
Q

Losartan and valsartan block

A

AT1 receptors

111
Q

Side effect associated with ACEI but not ARBs

A

Dry cough

112
Q

SE of CCB

A

Constipation, edema, and headache

113
Q

Reduce heart rate, contractility, and O2 demand

A

Beta-blockers

114
Q

Cardioselective Beta 1-blockers

A

Atenolol, acebutolol, and metoprolol

115
Q

SE of beta blockers

A

Bradycardia, SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION, decrease in HDL, and increase in Triglycerols (TG)

116
Q

Alpha 1selective blockers

A

Prazosin, terazosin and doxazosin (-AZOSIN ending)

117
Q

A1a-selective blocker used for BPH

A

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

118
Q

SE of alpha blockers

A

Orthostatic hypotension (especially with first dose) and reflex tachycardia

119
Q

Methyldopa is contraindicated in

A

Geriatrics due to its CNS (depression) effects

120
Q

SE of hydralazine

A

Lupus-like syndrome

121
Q

Diuretic used as prophylactic for mountain sickness and glaucoma

A

Acetazolamide

122
Q

Side effects of acetazolamide

A

Paresthesias, alkalization of the urine (which may ppt. Ca salts), hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, and encephalopathy in patients with hepatic impairment

123
Q

Site of action of loop diuretics

A

Thick ascending limb

124
Q

Side effects of loop (furosemide) diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and ototoxicity

125
Q

An electrolyte that is lost in the urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides

A

Calcium

126
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Early distal convoluted tubule

127
Q

Side effects of thiazide (HCTZ) diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperlipidemia, and hyperglycemia

128
Q

Mechanism of action of amiloride

A

Inhibit epithelial sodium channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct

129
Q

Diuretic used to treat primary aldosteronism

A

Spironolactone, eplerenone

130
Q

Side effect of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia hyperkalemia, and impotence

131
Q

Diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

132
Q

MOA of class I A (eg. Procainamide), class IB (eg. Lidocaine), and class IC (eg. Flecainide) antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers

133
Q

SE of procainamide

A

Lupus-like syndrome

134
Q

Limiting side effect of Quinidine

A

Prolongs QT interval

135
Q

DOC for management of acute Ventricular arrhythmias

A

Lidocaine

136
Q

Life threatening cardiac event that prolong QT leads to

A

Torsades de pointes

137
Q

MOA of sildenafil (Viagra)

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase-5, enhancing effects of nitric oxide-activated increases in cGMP

138
Q

MOA of nitrates

A

Relax vascular smooth muscle, at low doses dilate veins and at high doses dilate arterioles

139
Q

Heparin (PTT) increases activity of

A

Antithrombin 3

140
Q

Antidote to reverse actions of heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

141
Q

SE of Aspirin

A

GI bleeding

142
Q

MOA of thrombolytics

A

Lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin which binds fibrin

143
Q

Thrombolytics are used for

A

Pulmonary embolism and DVT

144
Q

Agent for pernicious anemia

A

Cyanocobalamin (Vit B12)

145
Q

Agent used for megaloblastic anemia (but does NOT reverse neurologic symptoms) and decrease neural tube defects during pregnancy

A

Folic acid

146
Q

Agent used for anemias associated with renal failure

A

Erythropoietin

147
Q

How drug or foods (grapefruit juice) increase statin effect

A

Inhibit Cytochrome P450 3A4

148
Q

Monitoring parameter to obtain before initiation of STATINS

A

LFT’s

149
Q

Decreases liver triglycerol synthesis

A

Niacin

150
Q

SE of niacin

A

Cutaneous flush

151
Q

Fibrates (gemfibrozil) increase activity of

A

Lipoprotein lipase

152
Q

Agent used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

153
Q

Acetaminophen only has what activity?

A

Antipyretic and analgesic activity

154
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

155
Q

DMARDs are slow acting drugs for

A

Rheumatic disease

156
Q

Agent that inhibits xanthine oxidases and used to treat chronic gout

A

Allopurinol, febuxostat

157
Q

Antidote used for organophosphate/anticholinesterase poisoning

A

Atropine, pralidoxime (2-PAM)

158
Q

Antidote used for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine Sulfate

159
Q

Antidote for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), streptokinase

A

Aminocaproic acid

160
Q

Interaction with this drug requires dose reduction of 6-MP

A

Allopurinol

161
Q

Binds tubulin and prevents the disassembly of microtubules during the M phase of the cell cycle inducing mitotic arrest

A

Paclitaxel (taxol)

162
Q

Anti-estrogen used for estrogen receptor + breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

163
Q

ACTH analog used for diagnosis of patients with corticosteroid abnormality

A

Cosyntropin

164
Q

Agent of choice for the treatment of hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

165
Q

Common SE of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia and hyperkalemia

166
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used for prevention of osteoporosis and currently being tested for treatment of breast cancer (Stars study)

A

Raloxifene

167
Q

Increase bone density, also being tested for breast CA tx.

A

Raloxifene (SERM-selective estrogen receptor modulator)

168
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

A

Diphendydramine

169
Q

5HT-1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches

A

Sumatriptan, naratriptan, and rizatriptan

170
Q

Agents for reduction of postpartum bleeding

A

Oxytocin and ergonovine

171
Q

Agents used in treatment of carcinoid tumor

A

Cyproheptadine

172
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV

173
Q

Vancomycin MOA

A

Binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murein monomers

174
Q

Cheap wide spectrum antibiotic DOC of otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

175
Q

Drug of choice for tx of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

176
Q

5HT-3 antagonist used in chemotherapeutic induced emesis

A

Ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron and palonosetron

Pharm One-Liners (46 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions