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Bio200: COTC 2023 > CPA #19 Questions > Flashcards

CPA #19 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Define: active immunization

A

administering antigens to a patient so that the patient actively creates an adaptive immune response

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2
Q

define: passive immunotherapy

A

patient acquires temporary immunity through the transfer of antibodies formed by other individuals or animals

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3
Q

who developed vaccines?

A

Edward Jenner

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4
Q

where does the name vaccine come from?

A

vaccina, another name for cowpox

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5
Q

define: vaccine

A

protective, antigenic inoculum

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6
Q

define: immunization

A

the administration of a vaccine

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7
Q

how do you measure the effectiveness of a vaccine?

A

measuring the antibody level (titer) in the blood.

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8
Q

what happens if the effectiveness of a vaccine is low?

A

administration of more antigen (booster immunization)

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9
Q

what are the 5 types of vaccines?

A
  1. attenuated
  2. inactivated
  3. toxoid
  4. combination
  5. recombinant gene
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10
Q

define: attenuated (modified live) vaccines

A

reducing the virulence of a microbe so that it is less likely to cause disease; attenuation; due to being a live pathogen, vaccinated individuals can infect those around them (contact immunity)

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11
Q

define: attenuation

A

the process of reducing virulence of a microbe

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12
Q

define: contact immunity

A

immunity beyond individual receiving the vaccine due to infection of the live pathogen from the modified live vaccine

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13
Q

what are the pros and cons of attenuated vaccines?

A

pro: usually very effective
con: may retain enough residual virulence to cause disease in immunosuppressed individuals

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14
Q

define: adjuvants

A

substances that increase the effective atigenicity of the vaccine by stimulating immune cell receptors and their actions

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15
Q

define: toxoid vaccine

A

chemically or thermally altered toxins that are used in vaccines to stimulate active immunity

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16
Q

pros and cons of toxoid vaccines

A

pro: few antigenic determinants
cons: multiple does and boosters every 10 years

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17
Q

define: combination vaccines

A

combine antigens from several attenuated and inactivated pathogens and toxoids are administered simultaneously; ex MMR

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18
Q

Define: recombinant gene vaccine

A

genetically altered vaccines

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19
Q

how are vaccines made

A

grow bacteria in a lab or a virus in a chicken egg

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20
Q

who cannot receive. vaccines?

A

people allergic to eggs

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21
Q

define: herd immunity

A

protection provided to all individuals in a population due to the inability of a pathogen to effectively spread when a larger proportion of individuals are resistant

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22
Q

who contributes to herd immunity? how?

A

CDC; recommended immunization schedules for children, adults, special populations to increase the number of individuals with the vaccine at one time

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23
Q

what are risks associated with vaccines?

A

mild toxicity; anaphylactic shock; residual virulence;

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24
Q

what diseases are claimed to be caused by vaccines?

A

autism, diabetes, asthma

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25
Q

what are 3 limitations of passive immunotherapy?

A

repeated injections of animal-derived antisera can trigger an allergic response (serum sickness); patient may degrade the antibodies relatively quickly (protection is short-lived); body does not produce memory B cells in response to passive immunotherapy

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26
Q

define: serum sickness

A

recipient mounts an immune response against animal antigens

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27
Q

when is passive immunotherapy preferred over active immunization?

A

when immediate protection is needed

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28
Q

what are precipitation tests?

A

serological test; when antigens and antibodies are mixed in proper proportions, the form precipitates

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29
Q

define: immune complex

A

precipitation test; soluble antigen is mixed with antiserum against the antigen; mixture quickly becomes cloudy because of formation of precipitate

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30
Q

define: immunediffusion

A

wells in agar plate; one well is filled with serum; one well is filled with antigen solution; antigens and antibodies if present diffuse in all direction; where they meet in perfect combination = precipitation line

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31
Q

what are similarities of turbidimetric and nephelometric tests

A

used to quantify amounts of proteins in serum

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32
Q

define: turbidimetric

A

light detector measures the amount go light passing through a solution

33
Q

define: nephelometric

A

machine measures the amount of light reflected from the antigen-antibody complexes

34
Q

define: agglutination testing

A

adding antibodies to sample; clumping occurs when reacting to certain antigens; titration

35
Q

define: titration

A

measuring antibody levels; serum being tested undergoes a regular series of dilutions, and each dilution is then tested for agglutinating activity

36
Q

define: neutralization tests

A

antibodies can neutralize the biological activity of many pathogens and their toxins; viral neutralization & viral hemagglutination tests

37
Q

define: labeled antibody tests

A

serological test that use antibody molecules that are linked to a molecular “label” that enables them to be detected easily; radioactive chemicals, florescent dyes, and enzymes

38
Q

define: direct fluorescent antibody tests

A

identify the presence of antigen in a tissue

39
Q

define: indirect fluorescent antibody tests

A

presence of specific antibodies

40
Q

why do we use indirect and direct antibody tests?

A

direct: to detect small number of bacteria in patient tissue
indirect: antibodies against many viral, protozoan, or bacterial pathogens

41
Q

define: ELISA’s

A

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay; label is an enzyme; reacts with substrate and produces a colored product if positive

42
Q

define: western blot

A

aka immunoblot; used to detect specific protein (antibody)

43
Q

how is a western blot different than a Northern/southern?

A

western used proteins; northern = RNA, southern = DNA

44
Q

define: immunofiltration assays

A

rapid ELISAs; antibodies bound to membrane filter

45
Q

define: immunochromatographic assays

A

used for pregnancy testing;

46
Q

define: immune hypersensitivities

A

allergies

47
Q

define: autoimmune disease

A

immune system attacks own tissues

48
Q

define: immunodeficiency disease

A

immune system fails

49
Q

define: type I hypersensitivity

A

localized or systemic reactions that result from release of inflammatory molecules in response to antigen; immediate hypersensitivities (develop within seconds)

50
Q

define: allergies

A

aka type I hypersensitivities

51
Q

define: allergens

A

antigens that cause allergies

52
Q

define: mast cells

A

specialized WBCs; distributed throughout body in connective tissues other than blood

53
Q

define: histamine

A

stimulates strong contractions in smooth muscles of bronchi, GI tract, uterus, and bladder; dilates RBCs

54
Q

what cells secrete histamine?

A

mast cells, basophils, eosinophils

55
Q

define: hay fever

A

local allergic reaction; runny nose, sneezing, itchy throat/eyes, watery eyes

56
Q

define: urticaria

A

aka hives; latex, wool, certain metals, venom/saliva of bees, flies, fleas, etc.

57
Q

define: asthma

A

hypersensitivity I; severe difficulty breathing; wheezing, coughing, excessive mucous production

58
Q

define: anaphylactic shock

A

aka anaphylaxis; release of chemicals beyond the bodies ability to adjust

59
Q

how can you prevent type I hypersensitivity?

A

identify and avoid the allergens

60
Q

how do antihistamines treat Type I Hypersensitivity?

A

counteract histamines

61
Q

how does epinephrine treat Type I Hypersensitivity?

A

emergency treatment; quickly neutralizes many of the lethal aspects of anaphylaxis; relaxes smooth muscle of lungs, contracts smooth muscle of blood vessels; reduce vascular permeability

62
Q

define: type II hypersensitivity

A

aka cytotoxic; cells are destroyed by immune response; part of many autoimmune disorders; incompatible blood transfusions

63
Q

define: type III hypersensitivity

A

aka immune-complex mediated; small immune complexes escape phagocytosis and circulate in blood stream until they become trapped in organs, joints, and tissues; localized or systemic

64
Q

define: hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

minute mold spores are inhaled deeply into the lungs; causing production of mold spores

65
Q

name 4 types of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

farmers lung, pigeon breeders lung, mushroom growers lung, librarians lung

66
Q

define: glomerulonephritis

A

immune complexes circulating in the bloodstream are deposited into the walls of glomeruli (kidneys)

67
Q

define: rheumatoid arthritis

A

type III hypersensitivity; autoimmune disease; B cells secrete IgM that binds to IgG molecules that are deposited into the joints; inflammatory chemicals are secreted and tissues swell, thicken, destroys cartilage

68
Q

define: SLE

A

systemic lupus erythematous (lupus); type III hypersensitivity; auto-immune disease; produce antibodies against antigens found in many different organs

69
Q

define: type IV hypersensitivity

A

aka delayed hypersensitivity; aka cell-mediated hypersensitivity; results from interactions among antigen, APCs, and T cells

70
Q

define: tuberculin response

A

used to diagnose contact with M. tuberculosis; shallow injection of tuberculin

71
Q

define: allergic contact dermatitis

A

plants (poison ivy) secrete oil that triggers an immune response and results in an intensely irritating rash

72
Q

define: graft rejections

A

perceived as foreign; type IV hypersensitivity reaction;

73
Q

define: autograft

A

graft from self; does NOT need immunosuppressants

74
Q

define: isograft

A

graft from twin/clone; does NOT need immunosuppressants

75
Q

define: allografts

A

graft from within same species; DOES NEED immunosuppressants

76
Q

define: xenografts

A

graft from animal; DOES NEED immunosuppressants

77
Q

define: graft-vs-host disease

A

donated bone marrow T cells may regard the patients cells as foreign and start an immune reponse

78
Q

what is the key factor for donor-recipient matching

A

MHC proteins

79
Q

define tissue typing

A

WBCs of potential graft recipients to determine the MHC proteins; must be at least 50% MHC match to donor for most organs, almost 100% match for bone marrow

Bio200: COTC 2023 (69 decks)

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