CPA #16 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Define: diffusion susceptibility test

A

aka Kirby-Bauer tests
- inoculate Petri dish with standard amount of pathogen
- small circles of paper containing the standard drug concentration are applied
- the bacteria grow a “lawn” everywhere that the drug is not
- examine plates for the zone of inhibition
- a larger zone of inhibition = more effective drug

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2
Q

Define: zone of inhibition

A

clear area where bacteria do not grow

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3
Q

what are the 3 classifications of pathogens

A
  1. susceptible
  2. intermediate
  3. resistant
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4
Q

Define: MIC Test and what 2 tests are used

A

a way to express a drugs potency as a minimum inhibitory concentration; aka the smallest amount of the drug that will inhibit bacterial growth

determined via:
1. broth dilution test
2. Etest

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5
Q

define: Broth Dilution Test (MIC)

A

bacteria is added to a bacterial agent in a tube or well and observed for turbidity; turbidity indicates bacterial growth, lack of turbidity indicates inhibition of growth

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6
Q

Define: Etest (MIC)

A

plastic strip containing a gradient (various levels) of microbial agent is placed onto a Petri dish; after incubation a larger inhibition zone will be noted toward the higher concentration of microbial agent, the zone will get smaller as the concentration decreases

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7
Q

Define: MCB Test

A

minimal bacterial concentration test; amount of drug required to kill the microbe

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8
Q

Identify 3 routes of drug administration for internal infections

A
  1. orally
  2. intramuscular
  3. intravenous
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9
Q

pros of oral drug administration

A

simplest; self-administered

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10
Q

cons of oral drug administration

A

lower drug concentration; d/t being self-administered, people do not always follow prescribed timeframes

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11
Q

pros of IM drug administration

A

allows drug to slowly diffuse into blood vessels

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12
Q

cons of IM drug administration

A

concentration is never as high was IV; damage to liver and kidneys

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13
Q

pros of IV drug administration

A

directly into bloodstream; high initial concentration

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14
Q

cons of IV drug administration

A

needs continuously administered; damage to liver and kidneys

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15
Q

what are the 3 main antimicrobial drug safety and side effects

A

Toxicity, allergies, disruption of normal microbiota

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16
Q

define: toxicity

A

adverse reactions to drugs that may cause damage to kidneys, liver, or nerves, and fetus (if applicable); therapeutic window

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17
Q

define: therapeutic window/range

A

range of concentrations of the drug that are effective without being excessively toxic

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18
Q

define: allergies

A

some drugs trigger immune responses; most severe and rare is anaphylactic shock

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19
Q

define: disruption of normal microbiota

A

may allow opportunistic pathogens to proliferate as secondary infections

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20
Q

list 7 ways that microorganisms can be resistant to antimicrobial drugs

A
  1. produce an enzyme that destroys/deactivates drug
  2. may slow/prevent entry of drug
  3. alter the target of drug so drug cannot attach effectively
  4. may alter metabolic chemistry
  5. pump antimicrobial out of cell before drug can act
  6. create biofilms
  7. some strains of mycobacterium tuberculosis can resist fluoroquinolone drugs (create decoy)
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21
Q

define: multiple drug resistant pathogens

A

aka superbugs; resistant to 3 or more different types of antimicrobials; concerning because caregivers must be able to take care of patients without effective drugs without infecting themselves or spreading it to others

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22
Q

Define: cross resistance

A

when resistance to one antimicrobial confers resistance to another similar antimicrobial

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23
Q

four ways that we can reduce microbial resistance

A
  1. maintain high enough concentration of drug for a long enough time (take full prescription)
  2. use multiple drugs in combination (synergism)
  3. limit the use of the drugs to a necessary basis
  4. using semi-synthetic drugs by adding different chains to original molecule
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24
Q

define: synergism

A

when use of one drug enhances the effects of another drug

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25
Q

what are the 3 things a pathogen must do to be able to cause disease?

A
  1. gain access either by penetrating the surface of the skin or enter through another portal of entry
  2. attach itself to host cells
  3. evade the bodies defensive mechanisms long enough to produce harmful changes
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26
Q

define: innate immunity

A

present at birth; aka natural or native immunity; always active, nonspecific, and rapid - works against a wide variety of pathogens

27
Q

define: adaptive immunity

A

lymphocytes; third line of defense; respond against unique species and strains of pathogens and alter the body’s defense; act more effectively upon subsequent infection

28
Q

what are the main components of the first line of defense

A

innate immunity
1. skin
2. mucous membranes (respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive systems)

29
Q

what are the 2 layers of skin

A
  1. epidermis
  2. dermis (hair follicles, glands, and nerve endings)
30
Q

what are the 3 major ways the outer layer of skin protects against infection?

A
  1. barrier
  2. continual replacement of dead skin cells, removing pathogens
  3. dendritic cells
31
Q

define: dendritic cells

A

defensive cells; slender, fingerlike processes extend among the surrounding cells; devour cells non-specifically (phagocytosis) and play role in adaptive immunity

32
Q

how does the inner layer of skin protect against infection

A
  1. collagen: gives skin strength and pliability to prevent punctures
  2. dermal cells: secrete antimicrobial peptides
  3. sweat glands: secrete perspiration (contain salt, antimicrobial peptides, and enzymes)
33
Q

where are mucous membranes found?

A
  1. respiratory
  2. urinary
  3. digestive
  4. reproductive
34
Q

how do mucous membranes defend against infection

A

non-specific; goblet cells, ciliary escalator

35
Q

define: goblet cells

A

secrete an extremely sticky mucus that acts as a barrier trapping bacteria

36
Q

define: ciliary escalator

A

cilia propel mucus and trapped particles up and away from the lungs

37
Q

define: lacrimal apparatus

A

group of structures that produce and drain away tears

38
Q

how does that lacrimal apparatus protect from infection

A

secrete tears that wash over the eyes, removing pathogens and secrete lysozymes (destroy bacteria); the greater the irritation, the greater production

39
Q

define: microbiome

A

normal microbes on body that play a role in protecting the body by competing with potential pathogens (aka competitive inhibition)

40
Q

how does the normal microbiota defend against infection

A
  1. consume nutrients
  2. change pH
  3. block pathogens from attaching
  4. stimulate body’s second line of defense
  5. generate antimicrobial compounds
  6. improve health through production of vitamins (blood clotting, vitamin K)
41
Q

define: antimicrobial peptides

A

aka defensins; act against microorganisms; secreted onto skin, found in mucous membranes, found in neutrophils

42
Q

what are the main components of the second line of defense?

A

plasma + blood cells

43
Q

what are formed elements?

A

cells and cell fragments suspended in plasma

44
Q

what is the process of blood formation

A

hemopoiesis

45
Q

where are formed elements made

A

bone marrow, blood stem cell

46
Q

what are the three types of formed elements

A

erythrocytes, platelets, and leukocytes

47
Q

which of the three formed elements are aka red blood cells

A

erythrocytes

48
Q

which of the three formed elements are aka white blood cells

A

leukocytes

49
Q

which of the three formed elements are pieces of megakaryocytes

A

platelets

50
Q

what are the three types of granulocytes

A

basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil

51
Q

what are the two types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes, lymphocytes

52
Q

which leukocytes can perform phagocytosis

A

neutrophil, eosinophil, monocyte

53
Q

what is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes

A

granulocytes have large visible granules

54
Q

what is diapedesis

A

exiting the blood cells to invade microbes in tissues by squeezing between cells lining the blood capillaries (basophils, neutrophils and eosinophils can do this)

55
Q

why is diapedesis important

A

they can phagocytize or release inflammatory chemicals to help fight infection

56
Q

how do monocytes leave the blood

A

diapedesis

57
Q

what do monocytes mature into?

A

macrophages

58
Q

what is a differential WBC count

A

the proportions of WBC

59
Q

increase in percentage of eosinophils means what?

A

allergies, parasitic worms

60
Q

increase in leukocytes/ neutrophils means what?

A

bacterial infections

61
Q

increase in lymphocytes

A

viral infections

62
Q

increase in certain types of leukocyte number over normal can indicate what?

A

cancer

63
Q

decrease in certain types of leukocyte number below normal can indicate what?

A

immunodeficiency