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Semester Two - Nursing 112 > Communicable Diseases > Flashcards

Communicable Diseases Flashcards

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1
Q

Who is at high risk for communicable diseases?

A
  • Immunocompromised individuals
  • Hospitalized Clients
  • Extremes of Age
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2
Q

What communicable diseases can be aquired by travel?

A

SARS, lyme disease

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3
Q

What is the Primary NUR Dx for communicable disease?

A

Knowledge Deficient

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4
Q

What are the secondary NUR Dx for communicable disease?

A
  • Fluid Volume Deficit
  • Acute Pain
  • Risk for Infection
  • Imparied breathing pattern
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5
Q

Primary Prevention TNI

A
  • Activities that decrease opportunity for illness

Examples:

  • Teaching
  • Good hand washing
  • Cough etiquette
  • Standard precaution technique
  • Cook meat, fish, poultry to proper temp
  • Vaccinate according to CDC guidelines
  • Medications - Take correctly to minimize the likelihood of disease resistant organisms
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6
Q

Secondary TNIs for Communicable Disease

A

Early diagnosis and treatment

Example:

Screening - recognize disease and prevent spread

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7
Q

Tertiary Prevention

A

Restoration to optimum function

Examples:

  • Isolation: to limit new individuals coming into contact with the infection
  • Transmission based precautions
  • Immune system enhancement
  • Provide comfort
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8
Q

HIV Infection Transmission

A

Transmissible Body Fluid + Point of entry into blood stream = exposure

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9
Q

What are the modes of transmission for HIV?

A
  1. Sexual
  2. Blood and blood products
  3. Perinatal transmission
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10
Q

What is pretest counseling?

A

Pretest counseling is an appointment made prior to be tested for HIV. It establishes rapport, assesses risk factors, and teaches prevention, terminology, and other important factors.

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11
Q

When can false negative HIV tests occur?

A

During the window period

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12
Q

If the results of an HIV test are negative, what does this mean?

A
  • Results are reported as negative
  • Assess recent risks and encourage re-testing in 3 weeks, 6 weeks, 3 months
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13
Q

If an EIA test comes back positive, what should be done?

A
  • Repeat the EIA test
  • Results have to be confirmed with a Western Bloth or Immunofluorescence
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14
Q

What post-test counseling is important?

A
  • Provide information in writing
  • Provide resources
  • Teaching
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15
Q

What teaching is helpful for post-test counseling?

A
  • Effective Treatment
  • Enhancing Immune System
  • Preventing New Infections
  • Testing Sexual Partners
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16
Q

What are common reactions to positive HIV test?

A
  • Anixety
  • Panic
  • Fear
  • Depression
  • Denial
  • Hopelessness
  • Anger
  • Guilt
  • Reactions may extend to family, friends, caregivers
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17
Q

Stage of HIV Progression

A

Acute Retroviral Syndrome

Early Chronic Infection

Intermediate Chronic Infection

Late Chronic Infections (AIDS)

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18
Q

Goals of treatment for HIV Infected Clients

A
  • Keep viral load as low as possible for as long as possible
  • Maintain or restore a functioning immune system
  • Improve quality of life
  • Reduce incidence of HIV related opportunistic diseases
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19
Q

Prevention of communicable Disease

A
  • Immunization
  • Control of the spread of disease
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20
Q

Nursing Dx for child/family with communicable disease

A
  • Risk for Infection
  • Acute Pain
  • Diversional Activity Deficit
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21
Q

Nursing goals for child/family with communicable disease

A
  • Not spread the infection to others
  • Not experience complications
  • Have minimal discomfort
  • Receive adequate emotional support (both child and family)
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22
Q

Bacterial Food Poisoning Agents & Prevention Strategies

A

Cook meat thoroughly - 160 degrees for beef and poultry; 140 for fish

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23
Q

Drug Resistant Organisms Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Wash hands
  • Wear gloves
  • Isolate in private room
  • Wear gown if soiling likely
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24
Q

C. Diff Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Wash hands
  • Wear gloves
  • Isolate in private room
  • Wear gown if soiling likely
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25
Q

CA-MRSA Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Practice good hygiene
  • Keep cuts clean and covered
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26
Q

Rabies Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Common carriers: raccoons, skunks, foxes, coyotes, bats
  • Avoid wild animals
  • Vaccination for pets
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27
Q

Group A. Streptococci Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Good handwashing
  • Stay home for 24 hours after beginning antibiotics
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28
Q

Hantavirus Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Maintain a clean house
  • Clean out seasonal cabins using gloves and a mask
  • Clear away brush around house to prevent rodent nesting
  • Do not vacuum or broom to rid of rodent waste - wet mop with bleach sol/n
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29
Q

Legionnarie’s Disease Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Transmitted by breathed mist from contaminated sources
  • Proper maintenance of water systems
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30
Q

Lyme Disease Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Avoid common tick habitats
  • Wear protective clothing
  • Reduce tick abundance
  • To remove tick: use tweezers, cleanse with antispetic
  • Transmission unlikely before 26 hours of tick attachment
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31
Q

How long must a tick stay attached to transmit lyme disease?

A

36 hours

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32
Q

West Nile Virus Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Reduce standing water
  • Reduce risk of mosquito bites
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33
Q

Hepatitis Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Use Infection control measure
  • Vaccination against Hep A & B
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34
Q

Airborne pathogens Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Use standard precautions
  • Airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) - private from with negative air pressure (6-12 ACH)
  • Wear respiratory device when entering room
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35
Q

SARS Agents & Prevention Strategies

A

Contact precautions (gown, glove, mask)

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36
Q

Influenza Agents & Prevention Strategies

A

Vaccination

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37
Q

Avian Influenza Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Avoid contact with infected poultry
  • Contact precautions (gown, glove, mask) when caring for avian flu client
  • Eye protection, AIIR - private room with negative air pressure (6-12 ACH)
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38
Q

STDs Agents & Prevention Strategies

A
  • Avoid exposure to infected body fluids
  • Use condom and spermicide
  • Reduce # of partners
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39
Q

What are the three types of Anthrax infections?

A
  1. Cutaneous
  2. Inhalation
  3. Gastrointestinal
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40
Q

95% of Anthrax infections are which type?

A

Cutaneous

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41
Q

Which type of anthrax infection has the highest mortality rate?

A

Inhalation

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42
Q

Treatment Anthrax

A
  • Ciprofloxacin antibiotic of choice
  • Post exposure prophylaxis
  • Vaccine limited availability
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43
Q

Can botulism be spread from person to person?

A

no

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44
Q

How is botulism spread?

A

Through air or improperly canned foods

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45
Q

Is there a vaccine for botulism?

A

no

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46
Q

How do you inactivate the toxin that causes botulism?

A

Heating food and drink to 85C for at least 5 minutes

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47
Q

How is hemorrhagic fever spread?

A

direct person-to-person spread, spread by body fluids

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48
Q

Who carries hemorrhagic fever?

A

rodents and mosquitos

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49
Q

Can hemorrhagic fever be aerosolized?

A

yes!

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50
Q

Is there a treatment for hemorrhagic fever?

A

no known treatment

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51
Q

How is plague spread?

A

direct person to person spread

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52
Q

How is plague transmitted?

A

flea bites and ingestion of contaminated meat

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53
Q

How is plague treated?

A

Streptomycin or gentamicin

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54
Q

When was small pox eradicated by vaccine?

A

1980 (but is starting to come back!)

55
Q

How is small pox spread?

A

direct person to person spread

56
Q

Is small pox contagious?

A

HIGHLY contagious

57
Q

How is small pox transmitted?

A

air droplets and contaminated materials

58
Q

What is the cure for small pox?

A

no known cure

59
Q

What would one do when exposed to small pox?

A

vaccinate those exposed

60
Q

Is tularemia spread from person to person?

A

no

61
Q

How is tularemia spread?

A

rabbits and ticks

62
Q

What routes can tularemia get you by?

A

aerosol or intradermal routes

63
Q

What can tularemia infect?

A

food, air, water

64
Q
A
65
Q

What are the three types of transmission based precautions?

A

Airborne, droplet, contact

66
Q

Who are airborne precautions used for?

A

Clients known to have or suspected of having serious illnesses transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns.

67
Q

Examples of airborne precaution illnesses

A

Measles (rubeola), varicella,TB

68
Q

Droplet precautions

A

Used for clients known or suspected to have serious illnesses transmitted by particle droplets larger than 5 microns

69
Q

Examples of droplet precaution illnesses

A

Diphtheria, mycoplasma pneumonia, pertussis, mumps, rubella, strep. Pharyngitis, pneumonia, scarlet fever in infants and children and pneumonic plague

70
Q

Contact precautions

A

Used for clients known or suspected to have serious illnesses easily transmitted by direct client contact with items in the client’s environment

71
Q

Contact precaution example illnesses

A

GI, R, skin, or wound infections. Colonization with multidrug resistant bacteria, specific enteric infections such as c diff and enterohemorrhagic E. coli, shigella, and hep A, diapered or incontinent clients, R syncytial virus, parainfluenza, enteroviral infections in infants and young children and herpes simplex, impetigo, pediculosis, scabies

72
Q

Incidence

A

Measures the occurence of new events in a population during a time period

73
Q

Morbidity Rates

A

Used to measure disease and injury and present an objective picture of the health status of a community

74
Q

Prevalence

A

Measures existing events in a population during a time period

75
Q

NUR Diagnosis for child with communicable disease

A
  • Risk for Infection r/t susceptible host and infectious agents
  • Pain r/t skin lesions, malaise
  • Impaired Social Interaction r/t isolation from peers
  • Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity r/t scratching from pruritus
  • Interrupted Family Processes r/t child with an acute illness
76
Q

Patient outcomes for child with communicable disease

A
  • Child will not spread the infection to others
  • Child will not experience complications
  • Child will have minimal discomfort
  • Child and family will receive adequate emotional support
77
Q

What to assess in a child with a possible communicable disease

A
  • Recent exposure to a known case
  • Prodromal symptoms or evidence of constiutional symptoms such as fever or rash
  • Immunization history
  • History of having the disease
78
Q

Prodromal symptoms

A

symtoms that occur between early manifestations of the disease and its overt clinical syndrome

79
Q

Primary Prevention Children

A

Immunization

80
Q

Incubation E. Coli

A

3-4 Days, variable depending on strain

81
Q

What does E. Coli produce?

A

Diarrhea, watery, lasting 1-2 days and then severe abdominal cramping and bloody diarrhea

82
Q

How is E. Coli transmitted?

A
  • Foodbourne pathogen
  • Traveler’s Diarrhea
  • Highest incidence in summer
  • Cause of nursery spidemics
  • Symptomatic Treatment
  • Antibiotics may worsen course
  • Avoid antimotility agents and opiods
83
Q

Salmonella Pathology

A

Invasion of mucosa in the small and large intestine, edema of the lamina propria, focal acute inflammaation with disruption of the mucosa and microabscesses

84
Q

What does salmonella cause?

A

N/V/bloody D, colicky abdominal pain, fever, headache, infants adebrile and nontoxic, may result in life-threatening septicemia and meningitis

85
Q

Salmonella transmission

A

incidence highest in warm months, foodborne outbreaks common, usually transmitted person to person by may transmit via undercooked meets or poultry, about half of cases cause by poultry and poultry products, in children is r/t pets, communicable as long as organisms are excreted, antibiotics not recommended in uncomplicated cases, antimotility agents also not recommended- prolong transit time and carrier state, incidence decreasing over past 10 years

86
Q

C. Diff Pathology

A

produces two important toxins (A and B), toxin binds to the enterocyte surface receptor, resulting in altered permeability, protein synthesis, and direct cytotoxicity

87
Q

What does C. Diff cause?

A

mild watery diarrhea lasting a few days, some prolonged diarrhea and illness, may cause pseudomembranous colitis, some individuals extremely ill with high fever, leukocytosis, hypoalbuminemia

88
Q

How is C. Diff transmitted?

A

associated with alteration of normal intestinal flora by antibiotics, adults tend to have more severe symptoms than children, treatment with antibiotics in mildly to moderately symptomatic patients, for nonresponders, give vancomycin, resistant strains have developed, relapse common

89
Q

What is the principal mode of HIV transmission to the pedatric population?

A

mother-to-child transmission and adolscent drug abuse and sexual acitivity

90
Q

Where is HIV found?

A

blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk

91
Q

What is the dominant strain of HIV in the United States?

A

HIV-1

92
Q

Horizontal transmission of HIV

A

occurs through intimate sexual contact of parenteral exposure to blood or body fluids containing visible blood

93
Q

Perinatal (vertical) Transmission of HIV

A

occurs when an HIV infected pregnant woman passes the infection to her infant

94
Q

What cells does HIV infect?

A

T Lymphocytes

95
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of HIV infection in children?

A
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Heptosplenomegaly
  • Oral Candidiasis
  • Chronic or recurrent diarrhea
  • Failure to thrive
  • Development Delay
  • Parotitis
96
Q

How is HIV diagnosed in children 18 months and older?

A

ELISA and Western Blot

97
Q

Why might you get false positive HIV results in an infant with a mother who is HIV positive before 18 months of age?

A

presence of maternal antibodies doesn’t decrease until around 18 months of age.

98
Q

What are the goals of therapy for HIV infection?

A

slowing the growth of the virus, preventing and treating opportunistic infections, and proving nutritional support and symptomatic treatment

99
Q

Antiretroviral Drugs

A

work at various stages of the HIV life cycle to prevent reproduction of funcitonal new virus particles

100
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection of children infected with HIV?

A

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

101
Q

When does PCP most freqently occur?

A

between 3 and 6 months of age

102
Q

What is rabies?

A

an acute infection of the nervous system caused by a virus that is almost invariably fatal if left untreated

103
Q

How is rabies transmitted?

A

Saliva of an infected mammal and is introduced through a bite or skin abrasion

104
Q

What does rabies do once in the body?

A

After entry into a new host, the virus multiplies in a muscle cells and is spread through neural pathways without stimulating a protective host immune response.

105
Q

General wound care of animal bites

A

lactated ringer solution under pressure via syringe and of washing the surrounding skin with mild soap

106
Q

What can botulism cause?

A

loss of neurological function and respiratory failure

107
Q

How long does it take for CNS symptoms to appear for botulism?

A

12-36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food and may or may not be preceded by acute digestive disturbance

108
Q

Infant Botulism

A

Caused by ingestion of spores or vegitative cells of C. botulinum.

109
Q

What toxins are responsible for infant botulism?

A

types A and B

110
Q

What food should infants avoid in order to lower the risk of botulism?

A

honey

111
Q

What is a pain symptom of botulism?

A

muscle impairment

112
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to

A

methicillin

113
Q

staphylococcus aureus preferred treatment

A

vancomycin (vancocin)

114
Q

enterococcus faecalis is resistant to

A

vancomycin, streptomycin, gentamycin

115
Q

enterococcus faecalis preferred treatment

A

penicillin G or ampicillin

116
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is resistant to

A

penicillin G

117
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae preferred treatment

A

ceftriaxone, ceftaxime

118
Q

kiebsiella pneumoniae is resistant to

A

third-generation cephalosporins

119
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae preferred treatment

A

imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem

120
Q

Disseminated Infection

A

spread to areas of the body beyound the initial site of infection

121
Q

mycosis

A

any disease caused by a fungus

122
Q

Emerging Infection

A

an infectious disease whose incidence has increased in the past 20 years or threatens to increase in the immediate future

123
Q

Standard Precautions apply to

A

blood, all body fluids, secretions, excretions, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes

124
Q

HIV epidemic in north america

A
  • women
  • people of color
  • people who live in poverty
  • adolescents
125
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A
  • blood
  • semen
  • vaginal fluids
  • breast milk
126
Q

Retrovirus

A

RNA to DNA

127
Q

What does E. Coli cause?

A

hemorrhagic collitis and kidney failure

128
Q

Hep. A Transmission

A

fecal oral

129
Q

Hep B transmission

A

sex, perinatal, percutaneous/permucosal exposure to blood or blood products

130
Q

Hep C Transmission

A

percutaneous/mucosal exposure to blood or blood products, sex, perinatal contact

131
Q

Hep D transmission

A

must have Hep B first, routes same as Hep B

132
Q

Hep E transmission

A

fecal oral, outbreaks associated with contaminated water supply in developing countries

133
Q
A

Semester Two - Nursing 112 (90 decks)

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