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MORS 200 > Restorative Art Compend- Multiple Choice Part 1 > Flashcards

Restorative Art Compend- Multiple Choice Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The care of the deceased to recreate a natural form and color.

  • Embalming
  • Plastic surgery
  • Restorative art
  • Funeral directing
A

Restorative Art

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2
Q

The study of the face and its features.

  • Genetics
  • Physiognomy
  • Physiography
  • Osteology
A

Pyhsiognomy

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3
Q

Protrustion of the jaws.

  • Prognathism
  • Philatelism
  • Prognosis
  • Prolepsis
A

Prognathism

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4
Q

The most common frontal view head shape.

  • Round
  • Square
  • Oval
  • Triangular
A

Oval

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5
Q

The vomer is located in the:

  • Orbital cavity
  • Buccal cavity
  • Nasal cavity
  • Oral cavity
A

Nasal Cavity

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6
Q

Directly anterior to the ear passage lies the:

  • Mandibular fossa
  • Mastoid process
  • Maxillary sinus
  • Palpebral sulcus
A

Mandibular Fossa

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7
Q

The widest part of the cranium lies between the:

  • Parietal eminences
  • Temporal bones
  • Zygomatic bones
  • Zygomatic arches
A

Parietal Eminences

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8
Q

The bony structures that create the widest part of the face.

  • Alveolar processes
  • Mastoid processes
  • Parietal eminences
  • Zygomatic Arches
A

Zygomatic Arches

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9
Q

The zygomatic arches can be used to locate the:

  • Base of the nose
  • Epicranius muscle
  • Superciliary arch
  • Widest part of the face
A

Widest Part of the Face

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10
Q

Where is the superior border of the chin found when measured fron the line of closure of the mouth to the base of the chin?

  • One-forth
  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
A

One-Half

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11
Q

Where is the superior border of the chin found when measured from the base of the chin to the base of the nose?

  • One-fourth
  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
A

One-Third

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12
Q

The superior border of the ear lies on the same transverse plane as the:

  • Eyelashes
  • Lower eyelid
  • Eyebrow
  • Line of eye closure
A

Eyebrow

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13
Q

When compared to the length of the face, the length of the ear is:

  • One-fourth
  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
A

One-Third

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14
Q

The length of the ear is equal to the distance from the normal hairline to the:

  • Base of the nose
  • Eyelashes
  • Eyebrow
  • Line of mouth closure
A

Eyebrow

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15
Q

If the measurement of one eye is 11/2 inches wide, the face at its widest part will measure:

  • Five inches
  • Six and one-half inches
  • Seven and one-half inches
  • Eight inches
A

Seven and one-half inches

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16
Q

What is the greatest width of the face when compared to the width of the mouth?

  • Twice
  • Two and one-half times
  • Three
  • Three and one-half times
A

Two and One-Half Times

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17
Q

What is the distance between the eyes when compared to the width of the mouth?

  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
  • Twice
A

One-Half

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18
Q

The width of the eye is equal to:

  • The distance between the eyes
  • Twice the width of the mouth
  • Half the width of the nose
  • The width of the chin
A

The Distance Between the Eyes

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19
Q

The width of the eye is equal to:

  • The width of the mouth
  • The thickness of the mucous membranes
  • The width of the base of the nose
  • One-sixth of greatest width of the face.
A

The Width of the Base of the Nose

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20
Q

If one eye measures one and one-fourth inches in width, the mouth will be:

  • Two inches
  • Two and one-half inches
  • Three inches
  • Three and three-forths inches
A

Two and One-Half Inches

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21
Q

If the width of the left eye measures one and three-fourths inches, the distance between the eyes will be:

  • One inch
  • One and three-fourths inches
  • Two and one-half inches
  • Three and one-half inches
A

One and Three-Fourths Inches

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22
Q

The distance from the base of the nose to the base of the chin is equal to the distance from the base of the nose to the:

  • Hairline
  • Eyebrow
  • Line of closure of the eye
  • Line of mouth closure
A

Eyebrow

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23
Q

The distance from the eyebrow to the base of the nose is equal to the distance from the:

  • Hairline to the bridge of the nose
  • Hairline to the eyebrow
  • Base of the chin to the eyebrow
  • Tip of the nose to the ear passage
A

Hairline to the Eyebrow

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24
Q

The distance from the eyebrow to the base of the nose is equal to:

  • The length of the ear
  • The width of the forehead
  • The distance from the base of the nose to the hairline
  • The distance between the eyes
A

The Length of the Ear

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25
Q

What is the location of the line of closure of the mouth when measured from the base of the chin to the base of the nose?

  • One-forth
  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
A

Two-Thirds

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26
Q

Where do the lips meet when measured from the base of the nose to the base of the chin?

  • One-Fourth
  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
A

One-Third

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27
Q

The lips meet each other:

  • One-half the distance from the base of the nose to the superior border of the chin.
  • One-half the distance from the base of the chin to the base of the nose.
  • One-half the distance from the base of the chin to the superior border of the chin.
  • Five-sixths the distance from the eyebrows to the base of the chin.
A

One-Half the Distance From the Base of the Nose to the Superior Border of the Chin

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28
Q

The lips meet:

  • One-third the distance from the base of the nose to the superior border of the chin.
  • Two-thirds the distance from the base of the nose to the base of the chin.
  • Two-thirds the distance from the base of the chin to the base of the nose.
  • One-third the distance from the base of the chin to the base of the nose.
A

Two-Thirds the Distance From the Base of the Chin to the Base of the Nose

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29
Q

The feature of the face that is two eyes wide is the:

  • Nose
  • Mouth
  • Ear
  • Forehead
A

Mouth

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30
Q

The width of the mouth is equal to:

  • Twice the distance between the eyes
  • The width of the glabella
  • Three times the width of an eye
  • Half the distance between the eyes
A

Twice the Distance Between the Eyes

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31
Q

The width of the mouth is equal to:

  • The length of the nose
  • The width of the ear
  • Twice the width of an eye
  • Three-fifths the greatest width of the face
A

Twice the Width of an Eye

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32
Q

The width of the mouth is equal to:

  • Three times the vertical length of the eye
  • The length of the ear
  • The width of the chin
  • Twice the width of the base of the nose
A

Twice the Width of the Base of the Nose

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33
Q

The distance from the eyebrow to the base of the chin is equal to the distance from the normal hairline to the:

  • Base of the nose
  • Line of closure of the mouth
  • Eyebrow
  • Top of the cranium
A

Base of the Nose

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34
Q

One of the three major proportional divisions of the face is measured from the:

  • Root of the nose to the line of closure of the mouth
  • Base of the nose to the base of the chin
  • Cheekbone to the nasal septum
  • Corner of the eye to the nasal septum
A

Base of the Nose of the Base of the Chin

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35
Q

One of the three major proportional divisions of the face is measured from the:

  • Normal hairline to the eyebrow
  • Normal hairline to the corners of the eyes
  • Normal hairline to the bridge of the nose
  • Base of the chin to the line of mouth closure
A

Normal Hairline to the Eyebrow

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36
Q

If the lower third of the face is subdivided into three parts, one of the lines of division will extend across the:

  • Frenulum
  • Attached margin of the upper mucous membrane
  • Superior border of the chin
  • Attached margin of the lower mucous membrane
A

Superior Border of the Chin

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37
Q

If the lower third of the face is subdivided into three parts, one of the lines of division extends across the:

  • Philtrum
  • Attached margin of the lower mucous membrane
  • Line of closure of the mouth
  • Attached margin of the upper mucous membrane
A

Line of Closure of the Mouth

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38
Q

The practical value of studying facial proportions from the photograph is:

  • The restoration of hte nose so its length is identical with the width of the mouth
  • Detection of variations from perfect size relationships
  • Determination if the subject is physically attractive
  • Detection of the subject’s personality traits
A

Detection of Variations From Perfect Size Relationships

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39
Q

The smally bony eminence at the medium line of the chin is known as the:

  • Carotid eminence
  • Mental eminence
  • Parietal eminence
  • Parotid eminence
A

Mental Eminence

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40
Q

The supraorbital margin is created by the:

  • Frontal bone
  • Inferior nasal conchae
  • Zygomatic bone
  • Palantine bone
A

Frontal Bone

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41
Q

The prominence of the cheeks is affected by the:

  • Ethmoid bone
  • Inferior turbinates
  • Sphenoid bone
  • Zygomatic bones
A

Zygomatic Bones

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42
Q

The incisive fossa is a depression associated with the:

  • Maxilla
  • Mandible
  • Frontal Bone
  • Zygomatic bone
A

Maxilla

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43
Q

The parietal eminences mark the widest part of the:

  • Forehead
  • Chin
  • Face
  • Cranium
A

Cranium

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44
Q

The foramen magnum is an opening in the:

  • Temporal bone
  • Parietal bone
  • Zygomatic bone
  • Occipital bone
A

Occipital Bone

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45
Q

The largest singular bone of the face.

  • Maxilla
  • Mandible
  • Nasal Bone
  • Zygomatic Bone
A

Mandible

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46
Q

The sternocleidomastoid muscles create the widest part of the:

  • Neck
  • Chin
  • Cheeks
  • Face
A

Neck

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47
Q

The mastoid process is a bony landmark of the:

  • Frontal bone
  • Temporal bone
  • Zygomatic bone
  • Parietal bone
A

Temporal Bone

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48
Q

The eminence located between the eyebrows.

  • Superciliary arch
  • Frontal eminence
  • Glabella
  • Supraorbital margin
A

Glabella

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49
Q

The vertical portion of the mandible.

  • Fossa
  • Bridge
  • Body
  • Ramus
A

Ramus

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50
Q

The average adult human body is:

  • 5 to 6 heads tall
  • 6 to 7 heads tall
  • 7 1/2 to 8 heads tall
  • 8 1/2 to 9 heads tall
A

7 1/2 to 8 Heads Tall

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51
Q

The anterior “non-articulating” process on the ramus of the mandible.

  • Condyle
  • Coronoid process
  • Mastoid process
  • Alveolar process
A

Coronoid Process

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52
Q

A profile form in which both the forehead and chin protrude beyond the projection of the upper lip.

  • Convex
  • Balanced
  • Concave
  • Straight
A

Concave

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53
Q

The number of basic linear forms of the facial profile.

  • Three
  • Six
  • Seven
  • Nine
A

Three

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54
Q

The most common facial profile.

  • Convex-Concave
  • Concave
  • Convex
  • Concave-Convex
A

Convex

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55
Q

A profile form noted for a slight recession in both the forehead and the chin.

  • Vertical
  • Convex
  • Concave
  • Convex-Concave
A

Convex

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56
Q

The least common facial profile.

  • Convex
  • Concave
  • Balanced
  • Convex-balanced
A

Concave

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57
Q

A receding chin and protruding forehead.

  • Concave-Convex
  • Convex-Concave
  • Concave-balanced
  • Convex-balanced
A

Concave-Convex

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58
Q

A facial profile in which the forehead, upper lip, and chin project equally to an imaginary vertical line.

  • Concave
  • Balanced
  • Convex
  • Vertical-convex
A

Balanced

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59
Q

The vertical forehead and a chin that protrudes more than the upper lip.

  • Vertical-convex
  • Vertical-concave
  • Convex-vertical
  • Concave-vertical
A

Vertical-Concave

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60
Q

A vertical forehead and a chin that recedes from the projection of the upper lip.

  • Convex-balanced
  • Balanced-concave
  • Concave-balanced
  • Balanced-convex
A

Balanced-Convex

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61
Q

How many profile variations are created when the basic linear profile classifications are combined?

  • Three
  • Six
  • Seven
  • Ten
A

Six

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62
Q

The least common geometric form of head shape from the frontal aspect.

  • Oval
  • Inverted triangle
  • Triangular
  • Round
A

Triangular

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63
Q

The number of geometric head shapes from the frontal aspect.

  • Three
  • Six
  • Seven
  • Nine
A

Seven

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64
Q

The most common head shape from the frontal viewpoint.

  • Triangular
  • Oblong
  • Round
  • Oval
A

Oval

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65
Q

A broad head shape noted for its lack of curvature.

  • egg-shaped
  • Strong
  • Infantine
  • Diamond
A

Strong

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66
Q

The head shape that is wider between the angles of the jaw than it is across the forehead.

  • Inverted triangle
  • Triangular
  • Oblong
  • Diamond
A

Triangular

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67
Q

Which head shape exhibits great width across the cheekbones and narrow width in the forehead and jaws?

  • Triangular
  • Diamond
  • Inverted triangle
  • Square
A

Diamond

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68
Q

Which of the following is a comparison of the two sides of the face to observe similarities and differences of form?

  • Ulilateral
  • Bilateral
  • Asymmetrical
  • Symmetrical
A

Bilateral

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69
Q

Paired structures that exhibit the greatest differences in position and form.

  • Eyes
  • Cheeks
  • Mucous membranes
  • Ears
A

Ears

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70
Q

Which surfaces do not exhibit similarity in their bilateral curvatures?

  • Cheeks
  • Forehead
  • Upper integumentary lip
  • Submandibular area
A

Submandibular Area

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71
Q

A forehead that recedes from the eyebrow to the hairline and an upper lip and chin that project equally to a vertical line.

  • Convex-Vertical
  • Vertical-Convex
  • Concave-Vertical
  • Vertical-Concave
A

Convex-Vertical

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72
Q

A forehead that protrudes while the upper lip and chin project equally to a vertical line.

  • Concave-Vertical
  • Vertical-Concave
  • Convex-Vertical
  • Vertical-Convex
A

Concave-Vertical

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73
Q

a recurved margin having greater projection than the adjacent area physiognomically.

  • Sulcus
  • Fold
  • Groove
  • Depression
A

Fold

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74
Q

A crevice in the skin accompanied by bordering elevations physiognomically.

  • Eminence
  • Fold
  • Groove
  • Sulcus or furrow
A

Sulcus or Furrow

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75
Q

Emaciated areas may be treated by:

  • Injection of massage cream
  • A cavity fluid compress
  • Injection of a dehydrating agent
  • Post embalming excision of tissue
A

Injection of Massage Cream

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76
Q

To reduce swollen eyes:

  • Add humectant to the arterial fluid
  • Inject with massage cream
  • Inject with tissue builder
  • Apply heat from the electric spatula
A

Apply Heat From the Electric Spatula

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77
Q

Wrinkled eyelids caused by reduction of a swelling can be treated by:

  • External pressure
  • Waxing
  • Cavity fluid packs
  • Injection of household bleach
A

Waxing

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78
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the growth of the cilia?

  • Irregular length
  • Irregular spacing
  • There are none at the extreme ends of the eyelids
  • They are smaller in diameter than cranial hair
A

They are Smaller in Diameter Than Cranial Hair

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79
Q

A protruding eye may require:

  • Hypodermic injection of undiluted embalming fluid
  • Aspiration of the cranium
  • Injection of tissue builder
  • Electric spatula on dry skin
A

Aspiration of the Cranium

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80
Q

One precaution to take when using the electric spatula is:

  • Always keep the skin liberally creamed
  • Always use on dry skin
  • Always use it on emaciated areas
  • Always follow its use with an injection of tissue builder
A

Always Keep the Skin Liberally Creamed

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81
Q

One disadvantage in the use of the electric spatula is that it can:

  • Reduce swelling
  • Cause swelling
  • Increase circulation
  • Wrinkle and darken skin
A

Wrinkle and Darken Skin

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82
Q

Protruding eyes are generally an indication of:

  • The use of poor quality fluid
  • Pressure of gas build-up in the cranial cavity
  • Machine pressure too low during injection
  • Machine rate of flow set too low during injection
A

Pressure of Gas Build-up in the Cranial Cavity

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83
Q

In cases of severe eyelid lacerations, it may be necessary to:

  • Use cavity fluid packs
  • Apply one-half inch of wax to cover the lacerations
  • Excise and rebuild with wax
  • Inject a strong humectant
A

Excise and Rebuild with Wax

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84
Q

Eyelids that separate may be corrected by:

  • Stretching and cementing
  • A surface pack of cavity fluid
  • Injection of a bleaching agent
  • Heat from the electric spatula
A

Stretching and Cementing

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85
Q

Which condition requiring restoration would most likely be the immediate result of trauma?

  • Emaciation
  • Laceration
  • Edema
  • Decubitus ulcers
A

Laceration

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86
Q

Which of the following conditions requring restoration would most likely be a direct result of disease?

  • Punctures
  • Lacerations
  • Abrasions
  • Surface lesions
A
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87
Q

Edematous areas can sometimes be treated by:

  • Injecting weaker arterial solutions
  • Injecting stronger arterial solutions
  • Injecting massage cream
  • Injecting tissue builder
A

Injecting Stronger Arterial Solutions

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88
Q

Cosmetizing an abrasion before waxing:

  • Makes the wax adhere better
  • Reproduces natural skin texture
  • Covers the darkened abrasion
  • Promotes better preservation
A

Covers the Darkened Abrasion

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89
Q

A cavity pack will:

  • Reduce dehydration
  • Increase edema
  • Intensify discolorations
  • Dehydrate and bleach tissues
A

Dehydrate and Bleach Tissues

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90
Q

Recreating pores in a wax restoration may NOT be accomplished by using:

  • Stipple brushes
  • Moistened gauze
  • Moistened paper toweling
  • Ligature
A

Ligature

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91
Q

Tissue to be restored with wax must be firm and dry because:

  • This causes less edema
  • The area will receive cosmetics better
  • Wax will not easily adhere to moist surfaces
  • The presence of moisture will change the color of the wax.
A

Wax Will Not Adhere to Moist Surfaces

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92
Q

Removal of the skin cused by friction against a firm object or surface will result in:

  • A bruise
  • An abrasion
  • A contusion
  • A concussion
A

An Abrasion

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93
Q

Instant bond adhesives are best used:

  • On decubitus ulcers
  • To close small clean incisions
  • To draw margins of deep cavity together
  • For skin slip
A

To Close Small Clean Incisions

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94
Q

Which of the following would NOT cause distension during embalming?

  • Excessive machine pressure
  • Blocked venous drainage
  • Ruptured vessels in the area
  • Strong arterial solution
A

Strong Arterial Solution

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95
Q

Scab removal is recommended because:

  • Liquid sealers will not adhere to scabs
  • Wax will not adhere to the scab surface
  • Waxing over a scab can destroy normal skin contours
  • Scabs will increase dehydration
A

Waxing Over a Scab can Destroy Normal Skin Contours

96
Q

A primary reason for applying massage cream to an exposed area:

  • To stimulate circulation during embalming
  • To inhibit dehydration
  • To reduce swelling
  • To prevent leakage
A

To Inhibit Dehydration

97
Q

Arterial dyes can result in:

  • Unpreserved tissues
  • Excessive dehydration
  • Over embalming
  • Blotching
A

Blotching

98
Q

What problems are commonly associated with ecchymosis around the eye?

  • Skin slip and abscesses
  • Red skin and dehydration
  • Blisters and abscesses
  • Swelling and discoloration
A

Swelling and Discoloration

99
Q

Which procedure generally gives best results during embalming when a black eye is present?

  • Weak fluid, low pressure
  • Strong fluid, high pressure
  • Strong fluid, low pressure
  • Weak fluid, high pressure
A

Strong Fluid, Low Pressure

100
Q

Which of the following would NOT prove useful in treating discolored eyelids?

  • A surface compress of bleaching agent
  • Hypodermic injection of bleaching agent
  • External pressure during embalming
  • Application of opaque cosmetic
A

External Pressure During Embalming

101
Q

Reduction of swellings may be accomplished by:

  • Lancing, aspiration, or surgical excision
  • Liberal use of emollient fluids in embalming
  • Massage cream on the surface
  • Closed drain tube during arterial injection
A

Lancing, Aspiration, or Surgical Excision

102
Q

The primary characteristic of a first degree burn:

  • Charring
  • Redness
  • Blisters
  • Pustules
A

Redness

103
Q

The primary characteristic of second degree burns:

  • Redness
  • Intense inflammation and blisters
  • Charring of the tissue
  • Hematomas
A

Intense Inflammation and Blisters

104
Q

The primary characteristic of a third degree burn:

  • Redness
  • Intense inflammation and blisters
  • Charring
  • Skin Slip
A

Charring

105
Q

Burns incurred after death are classified as:

  • First degree
  • Second degree
  • Third degree
  • Postmortem blistering
A

Third Degree

106
Q

Which of the following is not required in treating second degree burns?

  • Blisters punctured
  • Burned area heavily creamed
  • Excising of charred tissue
  • Minor integumentary waxing
A

Excising of Charred Tissue

107
Q

When most of the hair mass remains, singed hair may be treated by:

  • Internal use of dyes
  • Darkening with an eyebrow pencil
  • Cavity fluid packs
  • Hypodermic injections of tissue builder
A

Darkening With an Eyebrow Pencil

108
Q

First degree burns require:

  • Excising of tissue
  • Waxing
  • Excising of tissue, wax reconstruction, and cosmetics
  • Corrective cosmetic treatment
A

Corrective Cosmetic Treatment

109
Q

The need for a cosmetic undercoat in burn cases depends on:

  • Size of the discolored area
  • Success of preservative procedures
  • Darkness of the discoloration
  • Type of complexion before the burn occurred
A

Darkness of the Discoloration

110
Q

In the case of swollen lips and eyes resulting from burns, surgical reduction would:

  • Never be performed
  • Be performed before embalming
  • Be performed during embalming
  • Be performed after embalming
A

Be Performed After Emblaming

111
Q

Unsound tissue in the area of a malignant tumor should be:

  • Excised
  • Treated with bleaching packs
  • Bleached hypodermically
  • Cosmetized
A

Excised

112
Q

A cancerous area should be excised in most instances:

  • After embalming
  • During embalming
  • Before embalming
  • At any time
A

After Embalming

113
Q

When excising malignant tissue, the area should:

  • Receive no further special care
  • Be sufficiently preserved by arterial injection techniques
  • Be hypodermically injected with tissue builder
  • Be dried and sealed
A

Be Dried and Sealed

114
Q

In case of decapitation, the:

  • Torso and head are joined before embalming
  • Head and torso are embalming seprately
  • Head is embalmed, torso is not
  • Torso is embalmed, head is not
A

Head and Torso are Embalmed Seprately

115
Q

In the case of decapitation, torn or jagged tissue should be:

  • Ignored
  • Trimmed away
  • Creamed before embalming
  • Creamed after embalming
A

Trimmed Away

116
Q

When a wood or metal dowel is used to join a decapitated head to a torso, the dowel is usually attached to the torso by:

  • Instant bond sealer
  • Liquid sealer and cotton
  • Forcing into or wiring to the vertebral column
  • Suturing to large muscles of the back
A

Forcing Into or Wiring to the Vertebral Column

117
Q

With the lower end of a dowel attached to the torso in a decapitation case, the upper end is inserted into the:

  • Foramen ovale
  • Occipital protuberance
  • Foramen magnum
  • Masseter muscle
A

Foramen Magnum

118
Q

Distension is a dead human body is NOT caused by:

  • Dehydration
  • Decomposition of tissues
  • Trauma
  • Pathological conditions
A

Dehydration

119
Q

Distension may NOT be reduced by:

  • Injecting a strong arterial solution
  • Arterial injection with a closed drain tube
  • External pressure during and after embalming
  • Lancing and aspiration after embalming
A

Arterial Injection with a Closed Drain Tube

120
Q

Distension could be reduced by:

  • Injecting humectant fluids
  • Surgical reduction
  • Injecting massage cream
  • Injecting tissue builder
A

Surgical Reduction

121
Q

Skin Slip is also known as:

  • Declination
  • Desquamation
  • Delineation
  • Desiccation
A

Desquamation

122
Q

Skin slip is the result of:

  • Dehydration
  • Declination
  • Putrefaction
  • Delineation
A

Putrefaction

123
Q

To treat areas of skin slip:

  • Reattach loose skin with sealer
  • Reattach loose skin with powder sealer
  • Reattach loose skin with instant bond adhesive
  • Remove loose skin
A

Remove Loose Skin

124
Q

Arterial Embalming may:

  • Arrest the cause of putrefaction
  • Increase putrefaction
  • Provide the only treatment needed for skin slip
  • Increase the area affected by skin slip
A

Arrest the Cause of Putrefaction

125
Q

Following embalming, an area of skin slip would be:

  • Aspirated
  • Injected with cavity fluid
  • Coated with massage cream
  • Covered with a cold water compress
A

Injected with Cavity Fluid

126
Q

Following the removal of loose skin and hypodermic injection, an area if skin slip should be:

  • Cosmetized
  • Coated with massage cream
  • Dried with a cavity fluid compress
  • Covered with clean dry cotton
A

Dried with a Cavity Fluid Compress

127
Q

Undercutting an excision helps to

  • prevent leakage
  • stop further spread of discoloration
  • prevent dehydration
  • hold wax in place
A

Hold Wax in Place

128
Q

A fracture of the bone that results in the bone protruding through the skin.

  • Compacted fracture
  • Compound fracture
  • Simple fracture
  • Surface fracture
A

Compound Fracture

129
Q

A fracture with no break in the skin.

  • Compacted fracture
  • Compound fracture
  • Simple fracture
  • Surface fracture
A

Simple Fracture

130
Q

Hair for a restoration would NOT be attached by:

  • suturing
  • cementing
  • embedding in a wax surface
  • using massage cream
A

Using Massage Cream

131
Q

Hair restorations to the sideburns of a male should:

  • Be made with hair shorter than is required
  • He applied from the front to the back
  • Be applied so that each application overlaps the preceding one
  • Be applied from the most superior plane to the most inferior plane
A

Be Applied so that Each Application Overlaps the Preceding one

132
Q

The direction of the hair growth of the eyebrow is:

  • Towards the median line of the face
  • Upward and medial
  • Downward
  • Obliquely upward and outward
A

Obliquely Upward and Outward

133
Q

A danger in hypodermic tissue building is:

  • Overfilling similar parts of the face
  • Dehydration
  • Excessive redness
  • Over embalming
A

Overfilling Similar Parts of the Face

134
Q

Surface lumps caused by tissue building should be:

  • Left untreated until all of the filler is injected
  • Distributed by heat from the electric spatula
  • Withdrawn with a hypodermic syringe
  • Distributed by external pressure immediately
A

Distributed by External Pressure Immediately

135
Q

A hidden point of entry for hypodermic tissue building in the temporal region is:

  • The medial end of the eyebrow
  • Behind the angle of the jaw
  • In the outer canthus
  • The lateral end of the eyebrow
A

The Lateral end of the Eyebrow

136
Q

When injecting liquid tissue builder:

  • The tissue builder should be injected as the needle is withdrawn
  • The tissue builder should be injected while the needle is being inserted
  • The tissue builder should be injected as deep as possible.
  • The tissue builder should be diluted with cavity fluid.
A

The Tissue Builder Should be Injected as the Needle is Withdrawn

137
Q

A pre-embalming treatment when dealing with penetrating wounds is:

  • Creaming the face
  • Plugging the wound
  • Sealing
  • Waxing
A

Plugging the Wound

138
Q

Which suture is used on an exposed area?

  • Baseball
  • Intradermal
  • Lock
  • Sail
A

Intradermal

139
Q

The basket weave suture is used to:

  • Close incisions
  • Relieve sagging tissue
  • Hold the edges of an excision in position
  • Close the trocar puncture
A

Hold the Edges of an Excision in Position

140
Q

The original scientific standard of color.

  • Color wheel
  • Spectrum
  • Complementary scheme
  • Value scale
A

Spectrum

141
Q

The colors of the spectrum are represented by the letters:

  • R.R.G-.G.
  • R.O.-B-G.I.V.
  • ROY-G-BIV
  • R-RO-BP
A

ROY-G-BIV

142
Q

Breaking up white light into its many colors.

  • Fracturing
  • Dispersion
  • Separation
  • Replacement
A

Dispersion

143
Q

The colors seen by the eye are those that are:

  • Absorbed
  • Reflected
  • Tinted
  • Shaded
A

Reflected

144
Q

The lightness or darkness of a hue is referred to as its:

  • Hue
  • Value
  • Intensity
  • Opacity
A

Value

145
Q

The brightness or dullness of a hue is its:

  • Hue
  • Value
  • Intensity
  • Opacity
A

Intensity

146
Q

Red to which white has been added is a:

  • Hue or red
  • Shade of red
  • Tone of red
  • Tint of red
A

Tint of Red

147
Q

Blue to which black has been added is a:

  • Hue of blue
  • Shade of blue
  • Tone of blue
  • Tint of blue
A

Shade of Blue

148
Q

The addition of a small amount of green to a large amount of red creates:

  • Hue or red
  • Shade of red
  • Tone of red
  • Tint of red
A

Tone of Red

149
Q

Pigment color theory that employs the color wheel is the:

  • Munsel system
  • Harvey system
  • Cathey system
  • Prang system
A

Prang System

150
Q

Which hues can be combined to create all other hues?

  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Tertiary
  • Intermediate
A

Primary

151
Q

The mixture of a small amount of cool hue with a large amount of a warm hue creates a:

  • Primary hue
  • Secondary hue
  • Tertiary hue
  • Intermediate hue
A

Tertiary Hue

152
Q

Those hues on the side of the color wheel containing red are identified as:

  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Cool
  • Warm
A

Warm

153
Q

The equal mixture of two primary hues creates a:

  • Primary hue
  • Secondary hue
  • Tertiary hue
  • Intermediate hue
A

Secondary Hue

154
Q

Those hues on the side of the color wheel containing green and blue are identified as:

  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Cool
  • Warm
A

Cool

155
Q

The three primary hues and the three secondary hues in pigment are known as the:

  • Basic hues
  • Standard hues
  • Analogous hues
  • Complementary hues
A

Standard Hues

156
Q

White, gray, and black are identified as:

  • Monochromatic hues
  • Complementary hues
  • Analogous hues
  • Achromatic hues
A

Achromatic Hues

157
Q

How many hues are on the color wheel?

  • 10
  • 11
  • 12
  • 13
A

12

158
Q

Two hues that, when placed side by side, enrich each other are said to be:

  • Monochromatic
  • Complementary
  • Analogous
  • Warm
A

Complementary

159
Q

A color scheme utilizing one hue with its tints, shades, and tones is identified as:

  • Monochromatic
  • Tetrad
  • Analogous
  • Complementray
A

Monochromatic

160
Q

A color scheme utilizing two or more hues that have the same hue in common is identified as:

  • Triad
  • Tetrad
  • Analogous
  • Complementary
A

Analogous

161
Q

A color scheme that uses two hues which lie opposite each other on the color wheel.

  • Triad
  • Tetrad
  • Analogous
  • Complementary
A

Complementary

162
Q

Which of the following would NOT be externally applied?

  • Active dyes
  • Powder cosmetics
  • Liquid cosmetics
  • Cream cosmetics
A

Active Dyes

163
Q

Pigment cosmetics necessary to duplicate almost any complexion coloring include all of hte following EXCEPT:

  • Brown
  • Red
  • Black
  • Yellow
A

Black

164
Q

Orange is an equal mixture of:

  • Red and yellow
  • Yellow and blue
  • Blue and red
  • Green and yellow
A

Red and Yellow

165
Q

Green is an equal mixture of:

  • Red and yellow
  • Yellow and blue
  • Blue and red
  • Green and yellow
A

Yellow and Blue

166
Q

Red-purple is an equal mixture of:

  • Red and yellow
  • Yellow and blue
  • Blue and red
  • Red and purple
A

Red and Purple

167
Q

Purple is an equal mixture of:

  • Red and yellow
  • Yellow and blue
  • Blue and red
  • Green and yellow
A

Blue and Red

168
Q

Yellow-Green is an equal mixture of:

  • Red and yellow
  • Yellow and blue
  • Blue and red
  • Green and Yellow
A

Green and Yellow

169
Q

The complement of a secondary pigmentary hue is:

  • The primary hue not required to mix it
  • The secondary hue directly opposite it on the color wheel
  • A mixture of the three primary hues
  • A mixture of any two primary hues
A

The Primary hue not Required to Mix it

170
Q

Which of the following can be used to produce a shade of a hue?

  • Silver
  • White
  • Red
  • Black
A

Black

171
Q

Two pigmentary hues are said to be complementary if their mixture in equal quantities will produce:

  • Green
  • Red
  • Blue
  • Gray
A

Gray

172
Q

If an object is identified as white, it:

  • Absorbs some colors found in sunlight
  • Reflects some colors found in sunlight
  • Absorbs almost all colors found in sunlight
  • Reflects almost all colors found in sunlight
A

Reflects Almost All Colors Found in Sunlight

173
Q

Terms employed to describe a specific color are hue, value, and:

  • Vivacity
  • Intensity
  • Opactiy
  • Tolerance
A

Intensity

174
Q

Plaster of paris will set quickly if mixed with:

  • Warm salt water
  • Warm vinegar water
  • Distilled water
  • Cold vinegar water
A

Warm Salt Water

175
Q

Plaster of paris will set slowly if mixed with:

  • Hot water
  • Cold salt water
  • Cold vinegar water
  • Warm vinegar water
A

Cold Vinegar Water

176
Q

The surface restorer wax is used primarily for which of the following?

  • Feature reconstruction only
  • Minor integumentary restorations
  • Deep cavity and excision restorations
  • Lip waxing
A

Minor Integumentary Restorations

177
Q

In a warm environment, which restorative wax is recommended for surface restorations?

  • Opaque
  • Wound filler
  • Surface restorer
  • Medium consistency
A

Medium Consistency

178
Q

Which of the following components of restorative wax is incorporated to impart color to the wax?

  • Pigment
  • Wax base
  • Starch
  • Oils
A

Pigment

179
Q

Which of the following is considered the primary anatomical guide for locating and positioning a restored ear?

  • The base of the nose
  • The eyebrows
  • The coronoid process
  • The external auditory meatus
A

The External Auditory Meatus

180
Q

Ligature is suggested for the creation of:

  • Folds
  • Furrows
  • Ridges
  • Eminences
A

Furrows

181
Q

Which of the following would NOT create a firmer restorative wax?

  • Placing the wax in cold water
  • The addition of pigment powder to the wax
  • Teh addition of an opaque cosmetic to the wax
  • The addition of starch to the wax
A

The Addition of an Opaque Cosmetic to the Wax

182
Q

Which of the following ingredients of restorative wax is incorporated to affect wax consistency and degree of hardness?

  • Oils
  • Pigment
  • Scenting agent
  • Starch
A

Starch

183
Q

What is the ideal time interval between embalming and initiation of a wax restoration?

  • 1 to 2 hours
  • 2 to 4 hours
  • 8 to 10 hours
  • 12 to 14 hours
A

8 to 10 Hours

184
Q

Which suture joins the two parietal bones?

  • Coronal
  • Squamosal
  • Sagittal
  • Frontal
A

Sagittal

185
Q

Oribital pouch is associated with which facial feature?

  • The mouth
  • The eye
  • The ear
  • The nose
A

The Eye

186
Q

Supercilium is a term associated with which facial feature?

  • The eye
  • The mouth
  • The nose
  • The ear
A

The Eye

187
Q

If one hue in a complementary color scheme is orange, the remaining hue would be:

  • Blue
  • Yellow
  • Green
  • Purple
A

Blue

188
Q

Which of the following is NOT an acquired facial marking?

  • The submental sulcus
  • The nasolabial sulcus
  • The mandibular sulcus
  • The superior palpebrae sulcus
A

The Submental Sulcus

189
Q

Which of the following is an acquired facial marking?

  • The labiomental sulcus
  • The philtrum
  • The angulus oris eminence
  • The nasolabial sulcus
A

The Nasolabial Sulcus

190
Q

Which of the following is a natural facial marking?

  • The mandibular sulcus
  • The superior palpebral sulcus
  • The oblique palpebral sulcus
  • The inferior palpebral sulcus
A

The Oblique Palpebral Sulcus

191
Q

Which of the following is a natural facial marking?

  • The nasolabial fold
  • The bucco-facial sulcus
  • The superior palpebral sulcus
  • The mandibular sulcus
A

The Nasolabial Fold

192
Q

When measured from the normal hairline to the base of the chin, what is the location of hte superior border of the chin?

  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
  • Eight-ninths
A

Eight-Ninths

193
Q

When measured from the normal hairline to the base of the chin, what is the location of the eyebrows?

  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
  • Three-fourths
A

One-Third

194
Q

Where is the base of the nose found when measured from the normal hairline to the base of the chin?

  • One-third
  • One-half
  • Two-thirds
  • Five-sixths
A

Two-Thirds

195
Q

When measured from the base of the chin to the normal hairline, where is the line of mouth closure found?

  • One-ninth
  • Two-ninths
  • Seven-ninths
  • Eight-ninths
A

Two-Ninths

196
Q

What is the location of the superior border of the chin when measured from the base of the chin to the eyebrows?

  • One-sixth
  • Two-sixths
  • Four-sixths
  • Five-sixths
A

One-sixth

197
Q

What is the location of the superior border of the chin when measured from the eyebrows to the base of the chin?

  • One-sixth
  • Two-sixths
  • Four-sixths
  • Five-sixths
A

Five-Sixths

198
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a quality restorative wax?

  • Loss of shape and form under varying temperature
  • The ability to accept surface applications of cosmetics
  • The ability to adhere to tissue surfaces, even when tapered to a fine or thin edge
  • The same light refractive characteristics as the skin
A

Loss of Shape and Form Under Varying Temperature

199
Q

In which part of the face do the lips meet?

  • Lower one-third
  • Upper one-third
  • Central one-third
  • Upper one-half
A

Lower One-Third

200
Q

The eyebrow is most often thicker at the:

  • Head
  • Tail
  • Body
  • Arch
A

Head

201
Q

The supraorbital area is part of which facial feature?

  • The eye
  • The mouth
  • The ear
  • The nose
A

The Eye

202
Q

Swollen eyelids can be corrected by:

  • Aspiration with a hypodermic syringe
  • Hypodermic injection of tissue builder
  • Cotton support
  • Simple waxing
A

Aspiration With a Hypodermic Syringe

203
Q

Hypodermic tissue building is:

  • A pre-embalming restorative treatment
  • A major restoration
  • An embalming restorative treatment
  • A post-embalming restorative treatment
A

A Post-Embalming Restorative Treatment

204
Q

Points of entry for hypodermic tissue building should be:

  • Hidden
  • Exposed
  • Large
  • Deep
A

Hidden

205
Q

The restoration of hair is:

  • A post-embalming restorative treatment
  • A pre-embalming restorative treatment
  • An embalming restorative treatment
  • A cosmetic treatment
A

A Post-Embalming Restorative Treatment

206
Q

The tail portion of the eyebrow moves:

  • Obliquely downward
  • Obliquely upward
  • Transversly
  • Medially
A

Obliquely Downward

207
Q

Insertion of a rod into the foramen magnum and the spinal column is a technique for restoring:

  • A decapitation
  • A compound fracture
  • An over-riding fracture
  • A crushed cranium
A

A Decapitation

208
Q

A jagged tearing of the flesh best describes:

  • An abrasion
  • A fracture
  • A laceration
  • An excision
A

A Laceration

209
Q

A cancerous tumor located on an exposed area that does NOT distort the face or its features should be:

  • Bleached and waxed
  • Excised after embalming
  • Excised before embalming
  • Removed during embalming
A

Excised After Embalming

210
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for distended tissues?

  • Hypodermic aspiration of fluids
  • Surgical reduction
  • Application of heat with the electric spatula
  • Arterial injection using a rapid rate of flow
A

Arterial Injection Using a Rapid Rate of Flow

211
Q

The normal direction of growth of the supercilium is:

  • Laterally downward and outward
  • Medially upward and outward
  • Laterally upward and outward
  • Medially downward and outward
A

Laterally Upward and Outward

212
Q

How much larger is the superior palpebrae than the inferior palpebrae?

  • Two times larger
  • Three times larger
  • Four times larger
  • Five times larger
A

Three Times Larger

213
Q

Which of the following would NOT be used as a restorative treatment for buck teeth?

  • Disarticulation and wiring of the mandible
  • Wet cotton slings
  • Extraction of teeth
  • A cavity fluid compress
A

A Cavity Fluid Compress

214
Q

Which of the following would NOT be used as a restorative treatment for separated lips?

  • Hypodermic tissue building
  • Waxing
  • Cementing
  • Application of a cavity fluid compress
A

Application of a Cavity Fluid Compress

215
Q

The prominence on the midline of the superior mucous membrane is known as the:

  • Arch of the wing
  • Medial lobe
  • Weather line
  • Lateral lobe
A

Medial Lobe

216
Q

The anterior ridge of the nose is known as the:

  • Protruding lobe
  • Nasal wing
  • Dorsum
  • Columna nasi
A

Dorsum

217
Q

From the profile view of the nose, the concave dip below the glabella is the:

  • Root of the nose
  • Bridge of the nose
  • Dorsum
  • Side of the nose
A

Root of the Nose

218
Q

The lateral lobe of the nose is called the:

  • Wing
  • Root
  • Bridge
  • Tip
A

Wing

219
Q

The most inferior part of the nose.

  • Columna nasi
  • Nasal spine of the maxilla
  • Protruding lobe
  • Tip of the nose
A

Columna Nasi

220
Q

The vertical partition dividing the nasal cavity into two chambers.

  • Arch of the wing
  • Nasal spine of the maxilla
  • Alveolar process
  • Septum
A

Septum

221
Q

The branches of the inner rim of the ear are known as the:

  • Crus
  • Crura
  • Scapha
  • Conchae
A

Crura

222
Q

The concave shell of the central ear.

  • Scapha
  • Triangular fossa
  • Concha
  • Tragus
A

Concha

223
Q

The furrow originating beneath the jawline and rising vertically on the cheek.

  • Bucco-facial sulcus
  • Inferior palpebrae sulcus
  • Mandibular sulcus
  • Nasolabial sulcus
A

Mandibular Sulcus

224
Q

The posterior projection of the superior border of the vertical portion of the mandible.

  • Condyle
  • Mandibular fossa
  • Coronoid process
  • Mental eminence
A

Condyle

225
Q

The wedge-shaped feature projecting from each side of the head.

  • Pinna
  • Parietal eminence
  • Superciliary arch
  • Zygomatic arch
A

Pinna

226
Q

The ear passage lies directly posterior to the:

  • Mastoid process
  • Coronoid process
  • Mandibular fossa
  • Squama
A

Mandibular Fossa

227
Q

How many bony landmarks of the temporal bone can be used to locate a restored ear on the side of the head?

  • Three
  • Four
  • Six
  • Nine
A

Four

228
Q

Which bony structure divides the length of the ear into halves?

  • The squama
  • The mandibular fossa
  • The zygomatic arch
  • The condyle
A

The Zygomatic Arch

229
Q

The outer rim of the ear is known as the:

  • Antihelix
  • Helix
  • Scapha
  • Crus
A

Helix

230
Q

The protruding ridge of the nose that extends from the root of the nose to the protruding lobe is the:

  • Helix
  • Bridge
  • Dorsum
  • Arch of the wing
A

Dorsum

231
Q

The wings of the nose are known as the:

  • Lateral lobes
  • Sides
  • Protruding lobes
  • Anterior nares
A

Lateral Lobes

232
Q

Which of the following can be used as support for the lips when part or all of the teeth are missing?

  • Injector needle wires
  • Sutures
  • Massage cream
  • Thin cardboard
A

Thin Cardboard

233
Q

The superior palpebra is also known as the:

  • Lower eyelid
  • Orbital pouch
  • Upper eyelid
  • Upper lip
A

Upper Eyelid

234
Q

The helix and antihelix of the ear are separated by a long shallow depression known as the

  • Intertragic notch
  • Scapha
  • Triangular fossa
  • Concha
A

Scapha

235
Q

What depression marks the measurement of the central one-third of the ear’s length?

  • The concha
  • The scapha
  • The intertragic notch
  • The triangular fossa
A

The Concha

MORS 200 (112 decks)

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