Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MORS 200 > Microbiology Compend- True or False > Flashcards

Microbiology Compend- True or False Flashcards

1
Q

Pneumococci are encapsulated when existing in vegetative form.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lobar pneumonia may be prevented by vaccination with killed cultures of the organisms that cause the disease.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gonococci can live for long periods of time outside the body of the host.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Skin abscesses are infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The organisms responsible for tularemia may enter the body through the broken or unbroken skin.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tetanus is an infection that may be transmitted by droplet spray.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The disease epidemic meningitis is caused by a member of the same genus as the causative agent for the disease gonorrhea.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most people are carriers of the disease lobar pneumonia at some time during the year.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gonorrhea is an example of an infection that may be either acute or chronic.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Scarlet fever and rheumatic fever are caused by the same organism.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Infections caused by Salmonella enteritidis may be be transmitted by either direct or indirect contact.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The etiological agents for the disease tuberculosis are capable of forming endospores.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The disease anthrax is caused by a spore-forming bacillus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gonorrhea and ophthalmia neonatorum are diseases caused by the same organism.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Asiatic cholera is a disease caused by an organism named Vibrio cholerae.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Myobacterium tuberculosis are encapsulated bacteria.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Naturally acquired active immunity is established by having had a case of the disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bacteria and their products are the only substances that stimulate the body cells of the host to produce antibodies.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A foreign protein which, when introduced into the body excites the body to produce antibodies, is called an immune serum.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All vaccines are antigenic.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Active immunity resulting from the transmission of antibodies through the placenta is a form of natural immunity.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The control of enteric infections depends primarily on the prevention of contamination of food and water.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Active immunization to tetanus can be produced by the inoculation of an immune serum.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Puncture wounds are in danger of producing gas gangrene because they provide anaerobic conditions and dead tissue for the growth of the organisms that cause the infection.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tetanus and gas gangrene are considered to be non-communicable infections.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Botulism is a form of food intoxication.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces a powerful exotoxin.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The most common type of plague is the pneumonic variety.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Syphilis may be transmitted through the placenta to the unborn child.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gonorrhea may be transmitted through the placenta to the unborn child.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Direct contact is the most common mode of transmission for enteric infections.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative agent for boils.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The organism causing tuberculosis may live in dried sputum for a considerable length of time.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Any foreign protein can act as an antigen in the host.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An antiserum is a blood serum that contains antigens.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Passive immunization is used as a prophylactic measure in regard to a specific infection.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antibacterial serums neutralize exotoxins.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Agglutinins are specific types of antibodies.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Precipitins are a specific type of antigen.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Precipitins are specific types of antibodies.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Naturally acquired passive immunity is established by actually having had the disease for which the immunity is specific.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Naturally acquired active immunity is established by actually having had the disease for which the immunity is specific.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Young infants show a passive immunity to such diseases as measles, chickenpox, and diphtheria due to a transfer of immune bodies from the blood of the mother to the unborn child through the placenta.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Toxoids are used for the treatment of infectious diseases.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease is called virulence.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lack of resistance to a specific disease is called susceptibility.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Puerperal fever is an infection that occurs only in females.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Scarlet fever may be transmitted by contaminated milk.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A case of any infectious disease produces an immunity to that disease.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

All cases of pneumonia are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Gonorrhea may be prevented by the injection of a vaccine for the disease.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Susceptibility is the reverse of immunity.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The “Humoral Immunity Theory” involves the formation of antibodies in the blood.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Agglutinins are antibodies that cause organisms to adhere to each other and form clumps.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The immunity resulting from the use of antibodies is more permanent than that resulting from the use of vaccines.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A vaccine establishes passive immunity.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An antitoxin establishes passive immunity.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antibacterial serums neutralize exotoxins.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

An antibody is a substance which when introduced into the body causes the body to produce antigens.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

An antigen is a substance which when introduced into the body causes the body to produce antibodies.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The important phagocytic cells contained in the blood are leucocytes, particularly the neutrophils.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Opsonins are substances in the blood that dissolve bacteria.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

An antiserum serves as a means of defense against a disease if it contains antibodies specific for that disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Coagulases are chemical substances produced by pathogenic agents which prevent blood from clotting.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Allergy is the natural or spontaneous form of hypersensitivity.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Normal human blood contains agglutinins.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The autoclave utilizes steam under pressure.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Antibodies which act on bacteria or other foreign substances in such a manner as to render them more easily ingested by phagocytes are called opsonins.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Scarlet fever may be transmitted by mosquitos.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The genus Staphylococcus contains both pathogenic and non-pathogenic species.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

All members of the genus Neisseria are pathogenic to humans.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Some streptococci are capable of forming endospores.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes may be the causative agent for scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, gonorrhea, and puerperal fever.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The disease diphtheria may be prevented by producing an artificially acquired active immunity to the disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Tuberculosis may be transmitted by contaminated fomites.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

All members of the genus Clostridium are capable of forming endospores.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Gonorrhea may be transmitted by contaminated fomites.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Influenza is caused by a bacillus.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Epidemic typhus is spread from person to person by the body louse.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by a rickettsia.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The viruses causing acute infections of the respiratory tract are known as dermatropic viruses.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Viruses whose characteristic lesions appear on the skin are known as penumotropic viruses.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Rabies is caused by a neurotropic virus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Varicella is another name for smallpox.

A

False (Chickenpox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Smallpox, if still a threat to man, could be transmitted from person to person by droplet infection.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Rubella is another name for smallpox.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

It is believed that the virus of rubeola enters the body by the mouth and nose.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

German measles is known as rubeola.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Variola is another name for smallpox.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Common colds may be transmitted by droplet spray.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Rabies is caused by a penumotropic virus

A

False

92
Q

Poliomyelitis is caused by a neurotropic virus.

A

True

93
Q

Epidemic parotitis is another name for mumps.

A

True

94
Q

Viral nucleic acid is composed of both RNA and DNA.

A

False

95
Q

Protozoa are morphologically unicellular organisms and are the lowest form of plant life.

A

False

96
Q

Amoebiasis is a protozoan infection caused by Entamoeba histolytica.

A

True

97
Q

The malarial parasite is a protozoan organism which belongs to the genus Plasmodium.

A

True

98
Q

Malaria is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.

A

True

99
Q

The science that studies fungi is named Mycology.

A

True

100
Q

Molds and yeasts are forms of procaryotes.

A

False

101
Q

Molds are nearly spherical in shape and reproduce by budding.

A

False

102
Q

Yeasts possess both sexual and asexual means for reproduction.

A

False

103
Q

The organism causing athlete’s foot is a yeast.

A

False

104
Q

Fungus diseases called dermatomycoses are usually systemic and fatal to the host.

A

False

105
Q

Thrush is another name for Candida infection of the oral cavity.

A

True

106
Q

Epidemic parotitis is caused by a Chlamydia.

A

False

107
Q

Rickettsia is a facultative parasite, therefore it may be grown on artificial media.

A

False

108
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a venereal disease caused by Chlamydia.

A

True

109
Q

Typhus fever diseases are caused by rickettsia and are transmitted by the mosquito.

A

True

110
Q

Spotted fever diseases are caused by rickettsia and are transmitted by the mosquito.

A

False

111
Q

Carriers are important in the spread of malaria.

A

True

112
Q

Amoebic dysentery is most often spread by contaminated food and water.

A

True

113
Q

The dermatropic virus diseases usually enter the body via the skin.

A

False

114
Q

Viruses reproduce by a process called binary fission.

A

False

115
Q

Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a virus.

A

True

116
Q

The flagellates (protozoa) move by means of pseudopodia (false feet).

A

False

117
Q

Pathogenic protozoan parasites are microscopic in size.

A

True

118
Q

There is only one form to the disease poliomyelitis.

A

False

119
Q

Intermittent chills and fever are apparent in malaria.

A

True

120
Q

Recovery from rabies is usually rapid.

A

False

121
Q

Viruses are good antigens.

A

True

122
Q

Infection with 3 day (Rubella) Measles can cause birth defects in the first three months of pregnancy.

A

True

123
Q

Living skin may be sterilized.

A

False

124
Q

Disinfection refers to the killing of all microorganisms present.

A

False

125
Q

Sterilization kills only pathogenic microbes.

A

False

126
Q

An antiseptic is bactericidal in its action.

A

False

127
Q

Direct sunlight is considered to be bactericidal.

A

True

128
Q

A viricide kills yeasts and molds.

A

False

129
Q

Bacteriostasis implies retardation of bacterial growth and reproduction.

A

True

130
Q

A fumigant is a liquid used for disinfection.

A

False

131
Q

Sedimentation is a chemical means of destroying microbes.

A

False

132
Q

Dry heat is more practical than moist heat for sterilization.

A

False

133
Q

Steam under pressure is the most efficient and most widely applicable means of sterilization.

A

True

134
Q

Boiling kills most vegetative bacteria in 5-10 minutes.

A

True

135
Q

Boiling kills most bacterial spores in 5-10 minutes.

A

False

136
Q

Boiling is about as efficient as free-flowing steam.

A

True

137
Q

Cold temperatures are primarily bactericidial in their action.

A

False

138
Q

The autoclave utilize free-flowing steam.

A

False

139
Q

At sea level, boiling occurs at 100 degrees Centigrade.

A

True

140
Q

The autoclave is usually operated at a temperature of about 100 degrees Centigrade.

A

False

141
Q

Phenol is not destructive in living tissues.

A

False

142
Q

The concentration of a disinfectant has no effect on its efficiency.

A

False

143
Q

An increase in temperature generally causes an increase in efficiency of a disinfectant.

A

True

144
Q

A good disinfectant should be chemically stable.

A

True

145
Q

Carbolic acid is used in standardization of disinfectants.

A

True

146
Q

Bichloride of mercury is a good chemical disinfectant for instruments.

A

False

147
Q

Lysol is classified as a cresol

A

True

148
Q

Phenol is corrosive to metal instruments.

A

False

149
Q

Hexachlorophene is a quaternary ammonium compound.

A

False

150
Q

Zephiran chloride is highly toxic to living tissues.

A

False

151
Q

Hexachlorophene is not retarded in its action by combining with soaps.

A

True

152
Q

Ethylene oxide is normally used as a liquid chemical disinfectant.

A

False

153
Q

A communicable disease is always infectious.

A

True

154
Q

An infectious disease is always communicable.

A

False

155
Q

The pathogen is the organism upon which the host lives.

A

False

156
Q

Opportunists never cause endogenous infections.

A

False

157
Q

An organism is said to be attenuated if its virulence is increased.

A

False

158
Q

Exotoxins are released during the life of the bacterial cells producing them.

A

True

159
Q

Hyaluronidase is a bacterial product capable of dissolving “cell cement”.

A

True

160
Q

Leucocidin is a bacterial product that attacks red blood cells.

A

False

161
Q

A passive carrier exhibits symptoms for the disease being transmitted.

A

False

162
Q

Congenital disease transmission results in transmission of a disease from the fetus to the mother.

A

False

163
Q

Droplet spray disease transmission is classified as a direct mode of disease transmission.

A

True

164
Q

Instruments may act as fomites.

A

True

165
Q

Fomites are animate objects which act in disease transmission.

A

False

166
Q

Mosquitos usually transmit disease as biological vectors.

A

True

167
Q

Mechanical vectors transmit disease directly from host to host.

A

False

168
Q

Congenital disease transmission occurs through the placenta.

A

True

169
Q

The intact skin is not an effective barrier to most pathogens.

A

False

170
Q

The term virulence is defined as the ability of the pathogen to overcome the defensive powers of the host.

A

True

171
Q

Chronic infections usually have a swift onset and a severe course.

A

False

172
Q

A focal infection usually remains confined to a particular part of a body.

A

False

173
Q

Communicable infections can only be transmitted directly from host to host.

A

False

174
Q

A primary infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type.

A

False

175
Q

Bacteremia is a condition in which bacteria are found multiplying in the blood.

A

False

176
Q

Bacteremia is the same as bacteriostasis.

A

False

177
Q

Virulence is defined as the ability of the host to overcome the defensive powers of the pathogen.

A

False

178
Q

Pandemic diseases are confined to a single community.

A

False

179
Q

An epidemic disease may spread to become pandemic.

A

True

180
Q

An endemic disease is always present to a degree within a community.

A

True

181
Q

Sporadic diseases occur only as occasional cases within a community.

A

True

182
Q

Inflammation is a pathological disease process.

A

False

183
Q

Antibodies are substances which, when introduced into the body, stimulate the body to produce specific antigens.

A

False

184
Q

Attenuation implies an increase in virulence.

A

False

185
Q

All bacteria contain an organized nucleus.

A

False

186
Q

The flagella of bacteria functions to produce motility.

A

True

187
Q

Putrefaction is the organic decomposition of carbohydrates with the formation of water and carbon dioxide.

A

False

188
Q

The study of molds is mycology.

A

True

189
Q

Rickettsiology is the study of the “true fungi.”

A

False

190
Q

That division of microbiology that studies one-celled true plants is protozoology.

A

False

191
Q

Molds and bacteria are unicellular microorganisms.

A

False

192
Q

The micrometer is equal to approximately 1/1000 of a millimeter.

A

True

193
Q

A visible mass of bacteria growing on a solid surface is a colony.

A

True

194
Q

Organisms that grow in the presence of free oxygen is known as aerobes.

A

True

195
Q

Moisture is necessary for bacterial growth.

A

True

196
Q

Those bacteria in which endospores are forming are known as sporulating bacteria.

A

True

197
Q

The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best is its maximum temperature.

A

False

198
Q

Thermophilic bacteria grow best at low temperatures.

A

False

199
Q

A facultative parasite must obtain its nourishment from living organic matter.

A

False

200
Q

A facultative aerobe can live as an anaerobe, but prefers living as an aerobe.

A

False

201
Q

An endoenzyme is produced inside the cell and then is retained within the cell.

A

True

202
Q

All saprophytic bacteria are heterotrophic.

A

True

203
Q

Sarcinae are bacteria that exist in packets of four.

A

False

204
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria grown best in acidic pH.

A

False

205
Q

An association of two bacteria that is advantageous to one and does not injure the other is commensalism.

A

True

206
Q

Synergism is an association of two organisms with a result that neither species could produce by itself.

A

True

207
Q

Symbiosis is an association of two organisms that is mutually advantageous to them both.

A

True

208
Q

All spirilla, spirochetes, and vibrio are gram-negative.

A

True

209
Q

The hanging drop preparation is used in the examination of unstained microorganisms.

A

True

210
Q

Spore forming bacilli are gram positive.

A

True

211
Q

In an acid fast stain, those organisms that are gram negative would be red in color.

A

False

212
Q

The minimum temperature for a species corresponds to the average temperature of its usual habitat.

A

False

213
Q

Bacteria that parasitize the human body grow optimally at 37 degrees F.

A

False

214
Q

A colony containing only one kind of bacteria is known as a mixed culture.

A

False

215
Q

Saprophytic bacteria that produce infection only under especially favorable conditions are known as opportunists.

A

True

216
Q

Some types of bacilli are able to form a number of endospores within a single parent cell.

A

False

217
Q

A spore that is found near the end of the bacterial cell is called subterminal.

A

True

218
Q

Direct sunlight acts as a germicidial agent.

A

True

219
Q

A limited number of spirilla, spirochetes, and vibrio are capable of forming spores.

A

False

220
Q

Endospores are easily stained using simple staining methods.

A

False

221
Q

Bacteria that exhibit flagella are termed atrichous.

A

False

222
Q

Those bacteria in which endospores are not found are called vegetative bacteria.

A

True

223
Q

An enzyme that is retained within the living cell is called an endoenzyme.

A

True

224
Q

Most non-pathogenic bacteria grow best in an alkaline pH.

A

False

225
Q

That division of biology that studies protozoa is mycololy.

A

False

226
Q

A spore that is formed near but not at the end of a bacilli is classified as a terminal spore.

A

False

227
Q

Those bacteria that exhibit flagella are termed flagellates.

A

True

MORS 200 (112 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions