Microbiology Compend- Multiple Choice Flashcards
Vaccines bring about a type of immunity refered to as:
- Innate
- Active
- Passive
- Naturally acquired
Active
The type of immunity which is the result of placental transfer of antibodies is called:
- Naturally acquired active
- Naturally acquired passive
- Artifically acquired active
- Artifically acquired passive
Naturally Acquired Active
The serum derived from an animal that has been immunized to an infectious disease and is used to confer immunity to others, including humans, is called:
- A vaccine
- Antitoxin
- Antiserum
- An antibiotic
Antiserum
A foreign protein, which when introduced into the body, excites the body cells to produce antibodies against itself, is called:
- Antigen
- Antibody
- Immune serum
- Agglutin
Antigen
A type of acquied immunity that results from the inoculation of immune serum.
- naturally acquired active
- naturally acquired passive
- artifically acquired active
- artificially acquired passive
Artificially Acquired Passive
Lack of resistance to a specific disease.
- Virulence
- Immunity
- Susceptibility
- Attenuation
Susceptibility
Substances produced by body cells to combat foreign proteins introduced into the living body.
- Antigens
- Antibodies
- Antibiotics
- Vaccines
Antibodies
Antibodies that inactivate invading bacterial cells by causing the cells to form clumps.
- Antitoxins
- Agglutinins
- Opsonins
- Precipitins
Agglutinins
The type of immunity conferred after birth.
- Innate
- Acquired
- Racial
- Genetic
Acquired
The type of immunity that is inherited is called:
- Acquired
- Active
- Passive
- Innate
Innate
The type of immunity that results from the inoculation of a toxoid:
- Naturally acquired active
- Naturally acquired passive
- Artificially acquired active
- Artificially acquired passive
Artificially Acquired Active
The causative agent of a disease modified in such a manner that it will no longer cause the disease but will still promote the production ofo antibodies:
- Antiserum
- Vaccine
- Antitoxin
- Antibiotic
Vaccine
A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease:
- Virulence
- Pathogenicity
- Immunity
- Susceptibility
Immunity
The organisms responsible for the infection epidemic meningitis exit from the host by means of:
- Droplet spray
- Bile
- Feces
- Urine
Droplet Spray
Infection caused by members of the genus Salmonella are primarily transmitted by:
- Ingestion
- Droplet spray
- Direct body contact
- Insect transmission
Ingestion
The portal of entry of Salmonella typhi:
- Skin
- Mouth
- Urinary tract
- Conjunctiva
Mouth
Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by a species of bacteria which is a member of the genus:
- Mycobacterium
- Corymebacterium
- Treponema
- Nisseria
Nisseria
Endospore formation is characteristic of the members of the genus:
- Cocci
- Staphylococcus
- Clostridium
- Neisseria
Clostridium
Lockjaw is the common name for the disease:
- Tuberculosis
- Tularemia
- Pertussis
- Tetanus
Tetanus
Gas gangrene and tissue gas is caused by:
- Corymebacterium diptheriae
- Shigella dysenteriae
- Clostridium perfringens
- Treponema pallidum
Clostridium Perfringens
Local skin abscesses are infections usually caused by members of the genus:
- Streptococcus
- Corymebacterium
- Mycobacterium
- Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus
Vibrio cholerae are bacteria responsible for the infection called:
- Asiatic cholera
- Infectious jaundice
- Anthrax
- Pertussis
Asiatic Cholera
Which of the following organisms has a high lipid content of the cell wall?
- Neisseria gonorrhea
- Treponema pallidum
- Francisella tularensis
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Pertussis is a disease that is commonly called:
- Lockjaw
- Rabbit fever
- Whooping cough
- Mumps
Whooping Cough
Rabbit fever is the common name for the disease:
- Plague
- Tularemia
- Rabies
- Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Tularemia
Puerperal sepsis is commonly referred to as:
- Boils
- Childbed fever
- Whooping cough
- Blood Poisoning
Childbed Fever
Which of the following organisms is an exotoxin producer?
- Neisseria gonorrhea
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Treponema pallidum
- Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium Perfringens
The causative agent of the infection called septic sore throat:
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Clostridium tetani
- Corynebacerium diptheriae
Streptococcus Pyogenes
Which of the following diseases may be caused by the organisms responsible for infection entering the body through the unbroken skin?
- Tularemia
- Tetanus
- Syphilis
- Gonorrhea
Tularemia
Endospore formation is a characteristic of:
- Hemophilus influenzae
- Salmonella enteritidis
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus Anthracis
Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for the infectious disease:
- Meningococcemia
- Ophthalmia neonatorum
- Rheumatic fever
- Pertussis
Rheumatic Fever
Which of the following organisms is the causative aget for a venereal disease?
- Klebsiela pneumoniae
- Yersinia pestis
- Treponema pallidum
- Leptospira interrogans
Treponema Pallidum
Weil’s disease is another name for:
- Asiatic cholera
- Tularemia
- Diptheria
- Infectious jaundice
Infectious Jaundice
Silver nitrate prophylaxis was once used for the control of:
- typhoid fever
- bacillary dysentery
- Epidemic meningitis
- Ophthalmia neonatorum
Ophthalmia Neonatorum
The portal of entry of Streptococcus pneumoniae is the:
- nose and mouth
- digestive tract
- skin
- genitourinary tract
Nose and Mouth
Antibodies that cause clumping of the antigenic substances are called:
- Antitoxins
- Cytolysins
- Agglutinins
- Opsonins
Agglutinins
Which of the following organisms is capable of forming capsules when living as parasites?
- Neisseria gonorrheae
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Which of the following does NOT play a part in the transmission of salmonellosis?
- Food
- Flies
- Respiratory discharges
- Water
Respiratory Discharges
Which of the following diseases are caused by a spiral-shaped organism?
- Tetanus
- Chancroid
- Syphilis
- Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Syphilis is an infection caused by:
- Hemophilus ducreyi
- Clostridium perfringens
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Treponema pallidum
Treponema Pallidum
Septic sore throat is caued by a:
- coccus
- bacillus
- spirochete
- spirillum
Coccus
The disease known as puerperal sepsis occurs in the:
- Skin
- Digestive tract
- Respiratory tract
- Female reproductive tract
Female Reproductive Tract
Those bateria that perfer to live in the presence of free oxygen but can live in its absence are called:
- Strict aerobes
- Facultative aerobes
- Strict anaerobes
- Facultative anaerobes
Facultative Anaerobes
The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best.
- Minimum temperature
- Optimum temperature
- Maximum temperature
- Thermal death point
Optimum Temperature
An organism that can utilize inorganic matter as food:
- Autotrophic
- Heterotrophic
- Saprophytic
- Parasitic
Autotrpohic
A bacterium that prefers dead inorganic material, but can also obtain nourishment from living organic material:
- Facultative parasite
- Strict parasite
- Facultative saprophyte
- Obligate saprophyte
Facultative Parasite
Those spore forming bacteria that currently contain spores.
- Vegetative
- Sporulating
- Flagellates
- Autotrophic
Sporulating
Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively moderate temperature.
- Psychophilic bacteria
- Microaerophilic bacteria
- Mesophilic bacteria
- Thermophilic bacteria
Mesophilic Bacteria
The lowest temperature at which growth for a species will take place:
- Minimum temperature
- Optimum temperature
- Maximum temperature
- Thermal death point
Minumum Temperature
The highest temperature at which growth for a species will take place:
- Minimum temperature
- Optimum temperature
- Maximum temperature
- Thermal death point
Maximum Temperature
A bacteria that grows and reproduces best in the presence of oxygen, but can also grow and reproduce in its absence.
- facultative anaerobe
- facultative aerobe
- facultative saprophyte
- facultative parasite
Facultative Anaerobe
pH is a method for measurement of:
- colony color
- colony growth
- alkalinity
- colony size
Alkalinity
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?
- They develop within the cell
- They are obligate parasites
- They are the smallest of all living organisms
- They are obligate saprophytes
They are Obligate Saprophytes
Bacteria usually reproduce by:
- Sporulation
- Trinary fission
- Binary fission
- Sexual reproduction
Binary Fission
Which organism is acid fast positive?
- Neisseria
- Corynebacterium
- Mycobacterium
- Salmonella
Mycobacterium
Those bacteria that grow best at relatively high temperatures are:
- Psychophilic
- Microaerophilic
- Mesophilic
- Thermophilic
Thermophilic
Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively low temperature.
- Psychrophilic
- Microphilic
- Mesophilic
- Thermophilic
Psychrophilic
Which organisms are known as the “true fungi”?
- Chlamydiae
- Rickettsiae
- Bacteria
- Yeasts
Yeasts
The study of the smallest microscopic life forms.
- Protozoology
- Mycology
- Bacteriology
- Virology
Virology
Self digestion of tissue by enzymes of their own formation.
- Autolysis
- Lipolysis
- Hemolysis
- Catalysis
Autolysis
Which structure functions to protect the organism and to enhance its virulence?
- Cell wall
- Capsule
- Flagella
- Cytoplasm
Capsule
Which structure contains the material of inheritance?
- Cell wall
- Cell membrane
- Nucleic acid
- Ribosomes
Nucleic Acid
Those bacteria that may be capable of forming spores:
- Bacilli
- Vibrio
- Spirochetes
- Cocci
Bacilli
Those bacteria that are spherical in shape.
- Bacilli
- Vibrio
- Spirilla
- Cocci
Cocci
Rod-shaped bacteria.
- Spirilla
- Vibrio
- Cocci
- Bacilli
Bacilli
The study of true fungi.
- rickettsiology
- bacteriology
- mycology
- myology
Mycology
An animal or plant of microscopic size.
- Macrophage
- Unicelled organism
- Microorganism
- Metazoa
Microorganism
Those eucaryotic, true fungi that reproduce by budding.
- Viruses
- Bacteria
- Protozoa
- Yeasts
Yeasts
Cocci, bacilli, and spirilla are shapes of:
- Protozoa
- Molds
- Yeasts
- Bacteria
Bacteria
Molds are:
- Multicellular
- Unicellular
- Spore formers
- Procaryotic
Multicellular
Living orgamisms that are composed of a single cell are said to be:
- Multicellular
- Unicellular
- Fusiform
- Universal
Unicellular
Microscopic one-celled animals are called:
- protozoa
- rickettsia
- virus
- yeasts
Protozoa
A micrometer is equal to approximately:
- 1/25 of an inch
- 1/2500 of an inch
- 1/250 of an inch
- 1/25000 of an inch
1/25000 of an Inch
Which of the following are classified as a venereal disease?
- Lymphogranuoma venereum
- Pulmonary tuberculosis
- Tularemia
- Psittacosis
Lymphogranuoma Venereum
The bacteria which contain nuclear bodies.
- Procaryotic
- Eucaryotic
- Involuted
- Attenuated
Procaryotic
The most common mode of transmission for tuberculosis:
- Genitourinary secretions
- Soil
- Water
- Droplet spray
Droplet Spray
The cytoplasm of the typical eucaryotic cell is separated from the nucleus by the:
- Cytoplasmic membrane
- Nuclear membrane
- Cell Wall
- Endospore
Nuclear Membrane
The material of inheritance is contained within the:
- Metachromatic ganules
- Vacuoles
- Nuclear body
- Polar body
Nuclear Body
The basic unit from which all living organisms are made.
- Vacuole
- Nuclear membrane
- Metachromatic granules
- Cell
Cell
An association of two organisms that is detrimental to one.
- Symbiosis
- Metabiosis
- Antibiosis
- Commensalism
Antibiosis
An enzyme that is produced in a bacterial cell but retained inside the cell.
- An endoenzyme
- An ectoenzyme
- An exoenzyme
- A heteroenzyme
Endoenzyme
A visible mass of bacterial growth resulting from the reproduction of a single cell.
- Bacterial population
- Mixed culture
- Colony
- Sarcinae
Colony
Spherical shaped bacteria that form grape-like clusters.
- Bacilli
- Cocci
- Staphylococci
- Streptococci
Staphylococci
Spore formation is characteristic of only a few species of:
- cocci
- bacilli
- Spirilla
- Vibrio
Bacilli
Spores are most likely to form when:
- The bacteria has plentiful food supply
- The bacteria is ready to produce
- The conditions for reproduction are not favorable
- The cell involved is a spirilla
The Conditions for Reproduction are not Favorable
The presence of a capsule may affect a bacterium by:
- Decreasing virulence
- Increasing virulence
- Producing motility
- Killing the organism
Increasing Virulence
The bacterial spore is called an endospore because:
- It is formed outside the cell
- It is formed inside the nucleus
- It is formed outside the nucleus
- It is formed within the cell
It is Formed Within the Cell
Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia?
- Psittacosis
- Tuberculosis
- Scarlet fever
- Herpes Simplex Type II
Psittacosis
The size of bacteria is measured in a special unit called:
- An inch
- A micrometer
- A millimeter
- A centimeter
Micrometer
The smallest unit in which a living organism can survive independently.
- Nucleus
- Colony
- Vacuole
- Cell
Cell
Spore forming bacteria under unfavorable conditions.
- Lophotrichous
- Sporulating
- Attenuated
- Vegetative
Sporulating
Spore formation is characterized as:
- A protective device
- A reproductive device
- A locomotive structure
- Found in all bacteria
A Protective Device
Spore formation occurs in response to:
- An internal stimulus
- She shape of the organism
- Unsuitable living conditions
- Reproduction
Unsuitable Living Conditions
The respiratory tract is the primary portal of entry for all of the following virus diseases except:
- Influenza
- Mumps
- Smallpox
- Rabies
Rabies
Monilia is used synonymously with:
- Candida
- Histoplasma
- Actinomyces
- Bastomyces
Candida
A viral disease primarily of man.
- mumps
- psittacosis
- rabies
- rocky mountain spotted fever
Mumps
What is the most common mode of transmission for gonorrhea?
- Droplet spray
- Sexual conduct
- Contaminated milk
- Houseflies
Sexual Conduct
Which is NOT a viral disease?
- Epidemic parotitis
- Rubella
- Poliomyelitis
- Typhus fever
Typhus Fever
Which is NOT a viral disease?
- Smallpox
- Chickenpox
- Syphilis
- Herpes
Syphilis
Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by a:
- Bacteria
- Spirochete
- Chlamydia
- Virus
Chlamydia
Least likely to be a viral disease is:
- Bubonic plague
- Mumps
- Rabies
- Smallpox
Bubonic Plague
Antibiotics have thus far been ineffective against most varieties or types of:
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Spirochetes
- Viruses
Viruses
The causative agent of typhus fever.
- Virus
- Bacterium
- Rickettisa
- Fungus
Rickettisa
Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from person to person by unsanitary injection procedures?
- Measles
- Herpes simplex
- Poliomyelitis
- Serum hepatitis
Serum Hepatitis
Mycology is the study of:
- Bacilli
- Viruses
- Fungi
- Protozoa
Fungi
Ringworm arises from:
- Protozoan infection
- A bacterial infection
- An allergic reaction
- A fungal infection
A Fungal Infection
Which of the following require living cells for growth?
- Fungi
- Viruses
- Bacteria
- Protozoa
Viruses
Malaria is caused by:
- Molds
- Viruses
- Helminths
- Protozoa
Protozoa
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by:
- Coxiella burnetii
- Rickettsia conorii
- Rickettsia rickettsii
- Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Rickettsia Rickettsii
Serum hepatitis has been attributed to:
- A cat scratch
- Exposure to blood
- A dog bite
- Contaminated surfaces
Exposure to Blood
A virus which causes fever blisters or cold sores.
- Rubella virus
- Varicella virus
- Herpes zoster virus
- Herpes Simplex virus
Herpes Simplex Virus
Hemplysins and leucocidins are classfied as:
- Vaccines
- Immune serums
- Antibodies
- Bacterial toxins
Bacterial Toxins
Which of the following is caused by rickettsia?
- Mumps
- Rabies
- Poliomyelitis
- Q fever
Q Fever
Which of the following is the least effective in the destruction of microbes?
- Cold temperatures
- Steam under pressure
- Dry heat
- Ultraviolet light radiation
Cold Temperatures
Protozoa may be classified as:
- Multicellular
- Unicellular
- Acellular
- Procaryotic
Unicellular
Epidemic typhus fevers are transmitted by:
- flies
- mosquitos
- ticks
- lice
Lice
Parrot fever is:
- Transmitted by insects
- A water-borne disease
- A placental disease
- Transmitted by air
Transmitted by Air
Malaria and amoeabiasis are caused by:
- Protozoa
- Bacteria
- Yeast
- Virus
Protozoa
A virus is a:
- Strict parasite
- Strict saprophyte
- Facultative parasite
- Toxin
Strict Parasite
The common cold is transmitted by:
- Insect bite
- Droplet spray
- Water
- Food
Droplet Spray
Rabies are also called:
- Parotitis
- Hydrophobia
- Coryza
- Rhinitis
Hydrophobia
Rickettsia grow only as:
- Autotrophs
- Saprophytes
- Parasites
- Thermophiles
Parasites
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by:
- Ticks
- Rickettsia
- Virus
- Fungi
Rickettsia
Q fever is caused by:
- Mites
- Rickettsia
- Frambesia
- Viruses
Rickettsia
Histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis are caused by:
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Rickettsia
- Chlamydia
Fungi
Viruses have been found to be capable of infesting:
- Man
- Animals
- Insects
- All of these
All of These
Which of the following is caused by a member of the genus Staphylococcus?
- Typhus fever
- Bubonic plague
- Food poisoning
- Leprosy
Food Poisoning
Ringworm is caused by a:
- Bacteria
- Fungus
- Protozoa
- Rickettisa
Fungus
Which organism causes the disease known as thrush?
- Coccidiodes
- Candida
- Histoplasma
- Plasmodium
Candida
Which disease is NOT dermatrophic?
- Shingles
- Fever blisters
- Mumps
- Rubella
Mumps
Which virus attacks the respiratory tract?
- Dermatrophic
- Neurotrophic
- Pneumotrophic
- Adenotrophic
Pneumotrophic
Vaccination with cowpox virus will produce an immunity to:
- Rubeola
- Varicella
- Variola
- Rabies
Variola
Which protozoan parasite does NOT have a method for locomotion?
- Sporozoa
- Flagellates
- Ameoba
- Ciliate
Sporozoa
The destruction of all microorganisms and their products.
- Disinfection
- Barteriostasis
- Sterilization
- Antisepsis
Sterilization
The inhibition of bacterial growth and reproduction without necessarily destroying the organisms is the result of:
- Disinfectant
- Sterilant
- Antiseptic
- Bactericide
Antiseptic
The destruction of all pathogens and their products.
- Bacteriostasis
- Sterilization
- Disinfection
- Antisepsis
Disinfection
An agent which destroys yeasts and molds.
- Fungicide
- Bactericide
- Viricide
- Germicide
Fungicide
An agent which liberates gases or fumes for the purpose of destruction of insects and microorganisms.
- Sterilant
- Disinfectant
- Fumigant
- Antiseptic
Fumigant
Which of the following is most efficient in destruction of microorganisms?
- Cold temperatures
- Dry heat
- Boiling
- Steam under pressure
Steam Under Pressure
Which of these is primarily bacteriostatic in its action?
- Dry heat
- Steam under pressure
- Free-flowing steam
- Cold
Cold
The most diagnosed viral infection.
- Smallpox
- Chickenpox
- The Common Cold
- Measles
The Common Cold
The most widely applicable and effective sterilizing agent.
- Fumigation
- Filtration
- Heat
- Chemical
Heat
The usual portal for peumotropic viral diseases.
- Respiratory tract
- Genitourinary tract
- Skin
- Digestive tract
Respiratory Tract
Free-flowing steam is about equal to:
- Dry heat
- Filtration
- Boiling
- Steam under pressure
Boiling
The autoclave usually generates temperature of about:
- 100 degrees C
- 121 degrees F
- 200 degrees C
- 121 degrees C
121 Degrees C
The ultraviolet rays contained in direct sunlight:
- Are essential for bacterial growth
- Are bactericidal
- Are ony bacteriostatic
- Have no effect on bacteria
Are Bactericidal
German measles are more correctly known as:
- Rubeola
- Rubella
- Herpes simplex type 1
- Epidemic parotitis
Rubella
What type of virus would have an affinity for the liver?
- Dermatropic
- Neurotropic
- Viscerotropic
- Pneumotropic
Viscerotropic
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the action of a chemical disinfectant?
- Concentration of the disinfectant
- Nature of matrial being disinfected
- Time of day
- Number of microorganisms present
Time of Day
Which of the following is used as a standard to measure the efficiency of chemical disinfectants?
- Bichloride of mercury
- Formalin
- Phenol
- Alcohol
Phenol
Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium compound?
- Mercuric chloride
- Zephiran chloride
- Tincture of iodine
- Carbolic acid
Zephiran Chloride
Which part of the body is affected by encephalitis?
- Kidney
- Brain
- Liver
- Spleen
Brain
The same virus that causes chickenpox wil also cause a second infection in some individuals. This second infection is known as:
- Shingles
- Infuenza
- Herpes
- Variola
Shingles
What type of viral diseases would cause lesions of the skin?
- Adenotropic
- Viscerotropic
- Neurotropic
- Dermatropic
Dermatropic
Which of the following is NOT a phenolic compound?
- Phenol
- Carbolic acid
- Glutaraldehyde
- Hexachlorophene
Glutaraldehyde
A term that may be used to describe the presence of true pathogens on inanimate objects.
- Infection
- Infestation
- Contamination
- Virulence
Contamination
Microorganisms that produce disease only under favorable conditions.
- Saprophytes
- Obligate aerobes
- True pathogens
- Opportunists
Opportunists
What term refers to the invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites?
- Contamination
- Infestation
- Infection
- Virulence
Infestation
What term is defined as the degree of the ability of a microorgansim to cause disease?
- Infection
- Pathogenicity
- Virulence
- Infestation
Virulence
What term is defined as the invasion of the body by living microorgansism with subsequent multiplication and disease production?
- Infection
- Contamination
- Infestation
- Infiltration
Infection
Attenuation affects a pathogen by:
- Killing it
- Increasing virulence
- Increasing growth rate
- Decreasing virulence
Decreasing Virulence
What term refers to the preference of a pathogen for a particular part of the body?
- Infection
- Attenuation
- Elective localization
- Virulence
Elective Localization
An infection which is caused by organisms already present in the body is best described as:
- Sporadic
- Exogenous
- Endemic
- Endogenous
Endogenous
An infection which has a relatively short and severe course.
- Acute
- Chronic
- Local
- Endemic
Acute
An infection which remains confined to a particular part of the body.
- Endemic
- Endogenous
- Focal
- Local
Local
What infection is one in which microorganisms or their products are spread by the blood or lymph throughout the entire body?
- Local
- Sporadic
- Terminal
- General
General
What infection is one which have a relatively slow onset and long duration?
- Mixed
- Focal
- Chronic
- Acute
Chronic
What infection spreads from one are of infection to set up other areas of infection in the body?
- Local
- Acute
- Epidemic
- Focal
Focal
What infection is one in which the causative agents enter the body from the outside by entering through one of the portals of entry?
- Focal
- Endogenous
- Extraneous
- Exogenous
Exogenous
What infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type?
- Exogenous
- General
- Secondary
- Sporadic
Secondary
What infection is one caused by two or more different organisms at about the same time?
- Local
- Focal
- Mixed
- Terminal
Mixed
What is a condition in which bacteria are found in the blood but not multiplying there?
- Septicemia
- Toxemia
- Sapremia
- Bacteremia
Bacteremia
What infection occurs in an indivdual who has no other active infection?
- Local
- Primary
- General
- Secondary
Primary
What is an infection of the blood with actual growth and multiplication of pathogens in the blood?
- Anemia
- Toxemia
- Septicemia
- Bacteremia
Septicemia
What infection occurs as a late complication of another disease and is itself the actual cause of death?
- Primary
- Endogenous
- Terminal
- Sporadic
Terminal
A communicable disease which is normally present to a greater or lesser degree within a community.
- Sporadic
- Endemic
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Endemic
A communicable disease that attacks a large number of persons in a community at about the same time.
- Endemic
- Sporadic
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Epidemic
A communicable disease that occurs in a community only as an occasional case.
- Pandemic
- Endemic
- Epiemic
- Sporadic
Sporadic
A communicable disease that has spread to more than one country.
- Pandemic
- Endemic
- Epidemic
- Sproadic
Pandemic
______ are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released into the surrounding medium by the living cells.
- Endospores
- Endotoxins
- Nucleic acids
- Exotoxins
Exotoxins
Which of the following substances produced by bacteria will destory white blood cells?
- Hemolysins
- Fibrinolysins
- Coagulates
- Leucoidins
Leucoidins
Which of the following substances produced by bacterial cells will destroy red blood cells?
- Hemolysins
- Fibrinolysins
- Coagulates
- Leucoidins
Hemolysins
What are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released only when the bacterial cells die and disintegrate?
- Capsules
- Endospores
- Exotoxins
- Endotoxins
Endotoxins
Which of the following is true of a carrier?
- May have never had the disease that is being carried.
- May have had the disease and recovered
- Exhibits no symptoms of the disease
- All of these
All of These
What carrier harbors and disseminates the causative agents of a disease for along time following recovery from the disease?
- Active
- Passive
- Contact
- Convalescent
Active
Which of the following is a mode of direct disease transmission?
- Contaminated fomites
- Biological vectors
- Droplet spray
- Mechanical vectors
Droplet Spray
What is the proper term for smallpox?
- Varicella
- Variola
- Herpes simplex 1
- Rubella
Variola
Which of these transmit disease by biting the host?
- Mechanical fomites
- Mechanical vectors
- Biological fomites
- Biological vectors
Biological Vectors
Which of the following would most likely transmit typhoid fever as a mechanical vector?
- Tick
- Housefly
- Louse
- Mosquito
Housefly
Congenital disease transmission occurs through:
- Broken skin
- Placenta
- Respiratory tract
- Digestive system
Placenta
Which of the following are mechanical body defenses?
- Intact skin
- Mucous membranes
- Cilia
- All of the above
All of the Above
Inflammation is primarily a:
- Mechanical body defense
- Chemical body defense
- Physiological body defense
- External body defense
Physiological Body Defense
What substances are produced by the body in response to the entry of a foreign substance into the body.
- Antigens
- Lysozymes
- Antibodies
- Endotoxins
Antibodies
Bacteria are considered:
- Procaryotic
- Eucaryotic
- Inorganic
- Fungicidal
Procaryotic
Bacteria which prefer inorganic material as their source of nutrition.
- Autotrophic
- Parasitic
- Saprophytic
- Heterotropic
Autotropic
A toxin which remains inside a bacteria until the bacteria disintegrates.
- Endotoxin
- Exotoxin
- Antitoxins
- Atoxin
Endotoxin
A bacterium which has a high degree of pathogenicity is said to be very:
- Virulent
- Attenuated
- Susceptible
- Viscous
Virulent
A bacterium which has had its virulence reduced.
- Attenuated
- Organic
- Hypertonic
- Hypotonic
Attenuated
Hydrophobia is a condition often associated with:
- Rabies
- Actue coryza
- Poliomyelitis
- German measles
Rabies
The presence of bacteria in the blood with no noticeable growth or reproduction.
- Bacteremia
- Aseptic
- Antiseptic
- Bacteriocidal
Bacteremia
A person who harbors a pathogenic microbe but does not exhibit any symptoms of the disease which it is known to cause.
- A carrier
- A port of entry
- A cause of disease
- A vector of the disease
Carrier
Tuberculosis is an example of a:
- Bacterial disease
- Viral disease
- Rickettsial disease
- Fungal disease
Bacterial Disease
In the name Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the first name is the:
- Species
- Order
- Class
- Genus
Genus
The prefix “staphylo” refers to an organism’s tendency to:
- Occur in grape-like clusters
- Have a spherical shape
- Form pus
- Remain localized in infections
Occur in Grape-Like Clusters
Which of the following structures interfere most with phagocytosis?
- Flagella
- Granules
- Capsules
- Vacuoles
Capsules
Many bacteria possess a thick colorless gelatinous outer covering called a:
- Capsule
- Spore
- Nucleus
- Inclusion body
Capsule
What is the classification for the disease poliomyelitis?
- Adermotropic
- Dermatropic
- Viscerotropic
- Neurotropic
Neurotropic
Which of the following organisms requires living cells for growth and reproduction?
- Viruses
- Fungi
- Spirilla
- Protozoa
Viruses
Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the occurrence of an infection?
- The gram stain reaction of the microbe
- The number of microbes present
- The portal of entry of the microbe
- The resistance of the host
The Gram Stain Reaction of the Microbe
The type of lesion most closely associated with tuberculosis.
- A pseudo membrane
- An abscess
- A tubercle
- A boil
A Tubercle
A highly communicable disease which is usually spread directly from person to person is considered:
- Exogenous
- Endogenous
- Contagious
- A general infection
Contagious
Racial immunity is an example of:
- Innate immunity
- Artificially acquired active immunity
- Naturally acquired passive immunity
- Artificially acquired passive immunity
Innate Immunity
What type of substance is secreted by a living cell that can bring about chemical changes in another substance without undergoing any substantive change themselves?
- Endotoxins
- Exotoxins
- Enzymes
- Antibodies
Enzymes
The invasion, multiplication and spreading of microorganisms causing harm to the host.
- Antiseptic
- Disinfection
- Contamination
- Infection
Infection
What type of pathogen cause disease under most conditions?
- True pathogens
- False pathogens
- Opportunistic pathogens
- Indigenous flora
True Pathogens
For disinfection, alcohol is most effective in a:
- Seventy percent solution
- One hundred percent solution
- Twenty percent solution
- Ten percent solution
Seventy Percent Solution
Which of these is an example of a physiological defense mechanism of the body against infection?
- Gastric juices
- Boney encasement
- Inflammation
- Intact mucous membranes
Inflammation
The process of passing a liquid through a material with pores so small that bacteria cannot pass through is:
- Sterilization
- Sedimentation
- Filtration
- Disinfection
Filtration
Which of these chemical agents is a member of the quaternary ammonium compound family?
- Mercuric chloride
- Calcium hydroxide
- Benzalkonium chloride
- Sodium hypochlorite
Benzalkonium Chloride
Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from host to host by unsanitary injection procedures?
- Herpes simplex 1
- Measles
- Poliomyelitis
- Serum hepatitis
Serum Hepatitis
Oral and vaginal thrush are caused by:
- Aspergillis negri
- Treponema pallidum
- Candida albicans
- Sterptococcus aureus
Candida Albicans
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by:
- Rickettsia
- Ticks
- A virus
- Fungi
Rickettsia
Q fever is caused by:
- A virus
- Bacteria
- Rickettsia
- Chlamydia
Rickettsia
The spread of microorganisms from host to host by food, milk and water is what mode of transmission?
- Direct contact
- Indirect contact
- Insect vector-mechanical transmission
- Insect vector-biological transmission
Indirect Contact
A disease that is not transmitted from one host to another is:
- Contamination
- Infestation
- Attenuated
- Non-communicable
Non-Communicable
Those microorganisms that do not normally invade the body of the host to produce disease.
- Normal flora
- True pathogens
- Infectious microorganisms
- Toxigenic microorganisms
Normal Flora
Which of these is least effective in achieving a sterile environment?
- Boiling
- Free-flowing steam
- Steam under pressure
- Dry Heat
Boiling
Which mechanical method of sanitation is likely to be used in the practice of mortuary hygiene?
- Scrubbing
- Sedimentation
- Heat
- Filtration
Scrubbing
Which of the following is capable of producing an enterotoxin that will cause food poisoning?
- Staphylococcus
- Streptococcus
- Treponema
- Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus
The common cold can be transmitted by:
- An insect bite
- Droplet spray
- Congenital transmission
- Contaminated food
Droplet Spray
The structures that produce motility for bacterial cells are the:
- Spores
- Capsules
- Flagella
- Pili
Flagella
Which of these is NOT typical of a bacterial spore?
- They are the most resistant form of life known
- They are formed inside the microbial cell
- They are susceptible to small amounts of heat or light.
- They are formed by bacilli microorganisms
They are Susceptible to Small Amounts of Heat or Light
Which of these chemical agents is described as a coal-tar derivative?
- Formaldehyde
- Ammonia
- Mercuric chloride
- Phenol
Phenol
Which of these is an example of a pathogenic protozoa?
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Treponema pallidum
- Vibrio cholerae
Entamoeba histolytica
Which of these statements is descriptive of spirochetes?
- They are spiral-shaped microbes which move with a twisting axis.
- They are spiral-shaped microbes which move with a fixed axis
- They are rod-shaped microbes which have no motility
- They are spherical-shaped microbes which have pseudopods for motility.
They are Spiral-Shaped Microbes Which Move With a Twisting Axis
A gelatinous envelope that surrounds a bacilli.
- Spore
- Capsule
- Flagella
- Cell membrane
Capsule
Where are spores formed?
- Outside the cell wall
- Between the cell wall and the cell membrane
- Within the cell cytoplasm
- Within the cell nucleoplasm
Within the Cell Cytoplasm
A thin whip-like organelle of bacterial motility.
- Spore
- Cilia
- Flagellum
- Capsule
Flagellum
Diplococci appear:
- In long chain-like formations
- In pairs
- In groups of eight
- In a cluster
In Pairs
The optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria.
- 7.0
- 6.6
- 8.0
- 7.4
7.4
A bacterium that produces infection only when specific conditions arise.
- A parasitic pathogen
- An opportunistic pathogen
- A host bacteria
- A true pathogen
An Opportunistic Pathogen
The degree of the ability of a microbe to produce disease is measured as:
- Attenuation
- Toxicity
- Virulence
- Infectiousness
Virulence
A poisonous substance produced by a microorganism is:
- A toxin
- An activator
- An antibody
- A toxoid
Toxin
Normal flora bacteria will cause which of the following types of infection?
- Exogenous
- Acute
- Chronic
- Endogeneous
Endogeneous
The process of ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes is:
- Diapedesis
- Phagocytosis
- Antibiosis
- Symbiosis
Phagocytosis
The humoral theory of immunity involves:
- Macrophages
- Mast cells
- Antibodies
- Thrombocytes
Antibodies
The word “streptococcus” describes:
- Spherical cells arranged in chains
- Spherical cells arranged in clusters
- Rod-shaped cells arranged in chains
- Rod-shaped cells arranged in clusters
Spherical Cells Arranged in Chains
Which of the following is NOT an effective disinfectant?
- Quaternary ammonium compounds
- Iodophores
- Soap
- Formaldehyde
Soap
What body cell is known to perform the process of phagocytosis?
- An antibody
- A leukocyte
- An erythrocyte
- A thrombocyte
Leukocyte
Staphlycoccus aureus causes:
- A nosocomial infection
- Diphtheria
- Anthrax
- Syphilis
A Nosocomial Infection
Yersinia pestis causes:
- Hydrocele
- Hydrophobia
- Plague
- Gonorrhea
Plague
Chlamydia psittaci causes:
- Yellow fever
- Scarlet fever
- Rabbit fever
- Parrot fever
Parrot Fever
With what disease is Varicella Zoster identified?
- Measles
- Mumps
- Shingles
- Fever blisters
Shingles
With what disease is rubella identified?
- Fever blisters
- Chancres
- Mumps
- German measles
German Measles
What disease is identified with the condition called hydrophobia?
- Chickenpox
- Mumps
- Mononucleosis
- Rabies
Rabies
Clostridium perfringens causes:
- Chickenpox
- Plague
- Leprosy
- Tissue Gas
Tissue Gas
What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?
- Rabbit fever
- Scarlet fever
- Puerperal fever
- Parrot fever
Rabbit Fever
What disease is caused by Bacillus anthracis?
- Rabbit fever
- Cholera
- Anthrax
- Bubonic plague
Anthrax
Which of the following is most likely to enter the body through the genitourinary tract?
- Pneumonic plague
- Bubonic plague
- Syphilis
- Tularemia
Syphilis
Which of the following is classified as pneumotropic?
- Influenza
- Chickenpox
- Shingles
- Rabies
Influenza
Which of the following is classified as viscerotropic?
- Measles
- Smallpox
- Hepatitis
- Chickenpox
Hepatitis
Which of these is a chemical agent capable of killing viral organisms?
- Disinfectant
- Fungicide
- Viricide
- Insecticide
Viricide
Which of these chemical agents is capable of killing molds?
- Fumigant
- Disinfectant
- Insecticide
- Fungicide
Fungicide
What type of immunity is based solely on the genus and species of the host?
- Active immunity
- Passive immunity
- Natural immunity
- Artificial immunity
Natural Immunity
What control process is used to destroy something of no value?
- Direct sunlight
- Incineration
- Boiling
- Freezing
Incineration
What condition is most desired by mesophilic bacteria?
- Hot temperatures
- Moderate temperatures
- Cold temperatures
- Direct sunlight
Moderate Temperatures
What agent destroys yeasts and molds?
- Bacteriocide
- Fungicide
- Viricide
- Sporicide
Fungicide
An agent that liberates gases for the purpose of destroying macroscopic life:
- Fungicide
- Fumigant
- Germicide
- Disinfectant
Fumigant
What type of bacteria grows best between temperatures of 30 degrees celsius and 40 degrees celsius?
- Psychrophilic
- Cryophilic
- Mesophilic
- Thermophilic
Mesophilic
Bacteria that require organic chemical compounds for nourishment:
- Autotrophic
- Heterotrophic
- Phototrophic
- Mesophilic
Heterotrophic
The structure providing a bacterial cell with rigidity and outlining the shape of the cell.
- Cell membrane
- Cell wall
- Cytoplasm
- Nuclear membrane
Cell Wall
Which of these statements best describes a pathogen?
- An organism capable of producing disease in a susceptible host
- An organism which utilizes inorganic compounds for nutrition
- An organism which carries Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
- An organism which is used as an inoculant.
An Organism Capable of Producing Disease in a Susceptible Host
An infection that occurs after another infection is already present.
- An acute infection
- A chronic infection
- A secondary infection
- A primary infection
A Secondary Infection
Which of these infections occurs with rapid onset and short duration?
- Primary infection
- Mixed infection
- Chronic infection
- Acute infection
Acute Infection
The first infection that a person has at any given time.
- A specific infection
- A chronic infection
- A primary infection
- A mixed infection
Primary Infection
An infection that is caused by two or more different organisms:
- Mixed infection
- Secondary infection
- Chronic infection
- Local infection
Mixed Infection
Which of the following is an example of a fomite?
- Housefly
- Mosquito
- Droplet spray
- Coffee cup
Coffee Cup
Which of these is an enzyme that dissolves fibrin?
- Hemolysin
- Leucocidin
- Coagulase
- Fibrinolysin
Fibrinolysin
Which of the following enzymes is often referred to as “the spreading factor”?
- Hemolysin
- Hyaluronidase
- Ptyalin
- Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
Which of these enzymes destroys red blood cells?
- Leucocidin
- Fibrinolysin
- Coagulase
- Hemolysin
Hemolysin
Which of the following enzymes causes blood plasma to clot?
- Fibrinolysin
- Coagulase
- Leucocidin
- Hemolysin
Coagulase
An organism upon which a pathogen lives.
- Vector
- Fomite
- Host
- Parasite
Host
Which of these is a characteristic of rickettsial organisms?
- They are spiral-shaped
- They are non-pathogenic
- They are arthropod-borne
- They are smaller than viruses
They are Arthropod Borne
Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of viruses?
- They are non-pathogenic
- They are visible under a light microscope
- They reproduce by binary fission
- They are intracellular parasites
They are Intracellular Parasites
What disease is also known as epidemic parotitis?
- Measles
- Hepatitis
- Cold sore
- Mumps
Mumps
Which of the following diseases is caused by contact with contaminated blood serum?
- Hepatitis type A
- Hepatitis type B
- Mumps
- Smallpox
Hepatitis Type B
Which of these describes the virulence of a pathogen?
- The degree of pathogenicity
- The toxigenicity of a pathogen
- The formation of antibodies against a pathogen
- The ability of a microbe to cause disease
The Degree of Pathogenicity
Dermatomycosis is caused by:
- Rickettsia
- Entameoba histolytica
- Epidermophyton
- Chlamydia psittaci
Epidermophyton
Which of these is a causative agent of dysentery?
- Rickettsia rickettsii
- Chlamydia trachoma
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Bacillus anthracis
Entamoeba histolytica
What disease is caused by the Varicella virus?
- Smallpox
- Chickenpox
- Measles
- Herpes
Chickenpox
Which of the following is NOT applicable to viruses?
- They are autotrophic organisms
- They are sub-microscopic organisms
- They are intracellular parasites
- They contain either DNA or RNA but not both.
They are Autotrophic Organisms
Which of these describes the movement of bacteria through a medium?
- Attenuation
- Virulence
- Pathogenicity
- Motility
Motility
The relationship between two organisms in which neither can survive independent of the other.
- Symbiotic
- Antagonistic
- Commensalistic
- Ammensalistic
Symbiotic
A relationship between two organisms in which one is detrimental to the other.
- Mutualistic
- Commensalistic
- Antagonistic
- Synergistic
Antagonistic
Which of these microbes is known to produce an endotoxin?
- Salmonella typhi
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella typhi
The study of all microscopic life forms.
- Botany
- Anatomy
- Microbiology
- Cytology
Microbiology
Which of these microbes is described as being “comma” shaped?
- Vibrio cholera
- Bacillus anthracis
- Treponema pallidum
- Neisseria meningitidis
Vibrio Cholera
Which of these is a disease caused by a protozoan parasite?
- Typhus fever
- Typhoid fever
- Ameobic dysentery
- Syphilis
Ameobic Dysentery
Those organisms that reproduce by budding.
- Bacteria
- Viruses
- Fungi
- Protozoa
Fungi
Molds are:
- Acellular
- Unicellular
- Multicellular
- Motile
Multicellular
Rod-shaped bacteria that form chain-like arrangements.
- Streptobacilli
- Staphylococci
- Staphlyobacilli
- tetrads
Streptobacilli
Which of the following substances is most specific to antimicrobial action?
- Antibiotics
- Antigens
- Antibodies
- Antiseptics
Antibodies
A mutually advantageous symbiotic relationship between two organisms.
- Commensalism
- Antagonism
- Mutualism
- Parasitism
Mutualism
What type of condition is produced by the application of an antiseptic?
- Aseptic
- Bacteriostatic
- Bacteriocidal
- Sterile
Bacteriostatic
Which of these terms is synonymous with bacteriostatic?
- Germicidial
- Disinfected
- Antiseptic
- Bactericidal
Antiseptic
Ultraviolet rays of sunlight
- Are bactericidal
- Are bacteriostatic
- Are essential for bacterial reproduction
- Are essential for bacterial metabolism
Bactericidal
Congenital disease transmission occurs through:
- The placenta
- Broken skin
- The conjunctiva
- The respiratory tract
The Placenta
Why are ultraviolet light rays lethal to bacteria?
- They cause the ionization of the hydroxyl agents
- They damage the DNA and RNA of the microbe
- They cause the deamination of the protein
- They cause the decarboxylation of the amino acids.
They Damage the DNA and RNA of the Microbe
Another name for the disease “lockjaw” is:
- Tularemia
- Syphilis
- Psittacosis
- Tetanus
Tetanus
Acne, boils, and pus formation on the skin is most commonly caused by:
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Treponema pallidum
Staphylococcus aureus
What is the implication of sterilization?
- The render an object free of all living organisms
- The render an object free of all living pathogens
- To prevent the reproduction of all living organisms on an object
- To render an object free of all vegetative forms of living organisms
To Render an Object Free of All Living Organisms
An inflammation of the middle ear caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- Otitis media
- Ophthalmia neonatorum
- Conjunctivitis
- Meningococcemia
Otitis Media
The entrance into a host by means of a deep puncture wound may cause:
- Pneumonia
- Tetanus
- Gonorrhea
- Septic sore throat
Tetanus
A synonymous term for rabbit fever is:
- Tularemia
- Rheumatic fever
- Tetanus
- Lockjaw
Tularemia
Which of the following is caused by a spirochete?
- Tetanus
- Syphilis
- Gas gangrene
- Tissue gas
Syphilis
What organism causes the condition of lobar penumonia?
- Neisseria gonorrheae
- Treponema pallidum
- Streptococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
