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MORS 200 > Microbiology Compend- Multiple Choice > Flashcards

Microbiology Compend- Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

Vaccines bring about a type of immunity refered to as:

  • Innate
  • Active
  • Passive
  • Naturally acquired
A

Active

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2
Q

The type of immunity which is the result of placental transfer of antibodies is called:

  • Naturally acquired active
  • Naturally acquired passive
  • Artifically acquired active
  • Artifically acquired passive
A

Naturally Acquired Active

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3
Q

The serum derived from an animal that has been immunized to an infectious disease and is used to confer immunity to others, including humans, is called:

  • A vaccine
  • Antitoxin
  • Antiserum
  • An antibiotic
A

Antiserum

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4
Q

A foreign protein, which when introduced into the body, excites the body cells to produce antibodies against itself, is called:

  • Antigen
  • Antibody
  • Immune serum
  • Agglutin
A

Antigen

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5
Q

A type of acquied immunity that results from the inoculation of immune serum.

  • naturally acquired active
  • naturally acquired passive
  • artifically acquired active
  • artificially acquired passive
A

Artificially Acquired Passive

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6
Q

Lack of resistance to a specific disease.

  • Virulence
  • Immunity
  • Susceptibility
  • Attenuation
A

Susceptibility

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7
Q

Substances produced by body cells to combat foreign proteins introduced into the living body.

  • Antigens
  • Antibodies
  • Antibiotics
  • Vaccines
A

Antibodies

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8
Q

Antibodies that inactivate invading bacterial cells by causing the cells to form clumps.

  • Antitoxins
  • Agglutinins
  • Opsonins
  • Precipitins
A

Agglutinins

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9
Q

The type of immunity conferred after birth.

  • Innate
  • Acquired
  • Racial
  • Genetic
A

Acquired

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10
Q

The type of immunity that is inherited is called:

  • Acquired
  • Active
  • Passive
  • Innate
A

Innate

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11
Q

The type of immunity that results from the inoculation of a toxoid:

  • Naturally acquired active
  • Naturally acquired passive
  • Artificially acquired active
  • Artificially acquired passive
A

Artificially Acquired Active

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12
Q

The causative agent of a disease modified in such a manner that it will no longer cause the disease but will still promote the production ofo antibodies:

  • Antiserum
  • Vaccine
  • Antitoxin
  • Antibiotic
A

Vaccine

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13
Q

A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease:

  • Virulence
  • Pathogenicity
  • Immunity
  • Susceptibility
A

Immunity

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14
Q

The organisms responsible for the infection epidemic meningitis exit from the host by means of:

  • Droplet spray
  • Bile
  • Feces
  • Urine
A

Droplet Spray

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15
Q

Infection caused by members of the genus Salmonella are primarily transmitted by:

  • Ingestion
  • Droplet spray
  • Direct body contact
  • Insect transmission
A

Ingestion

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16
Q

The portal of entry of Salmonella typhi:

  • Skin
  • Mouth
  • Urinary tract
  • Conjunctiva
A

Mouth

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17
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by a species of bacteria which is a member of the genus:

  • Mycobacterium
  • Corymebacterium
  • Treponema
  • Nisseria
A

Nisseria

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18
Q

Endospore formation is characteristic of the members of the genus:

  • Cocci
  • Staphylococcus
  • Clostridium
  • Neisseria
A

Clostridium

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19
Q

Lockjaw is the common name for the disease:

  • Tuberculosis
  • Tularemia
  • Pertussis
  • Tetanus
A

Tetanus

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20
Q

Gas gangrene and tissue gas is caused by:

  • Corymebacterium diptheriae
  • Shigella dysenteriae
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Clostridium Perfringens

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21
Q

Local skin abscesses are infections usually caused by members of the genus:

  • Streptococcus
  • Corymebacterium
  • Mycobacterium
  • Staphylococcus
A

Staphylococcus

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22
Q

Vibrio cholerae are bacteria responsible for the infection called:

  • Asiatic cholera
  • Infectious jaundice
  • Anthrax
  • Pertussis
A

Asiatic Cholera

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23
Q

Which of the following organisms has a high lipid content of the cell wall?

  • Neisseria gonorrhea
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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24
Q

Pertussis is a disease that is commonly called:

  • Lockjaw
  • Rabbit fever
  • Whooping cough
  • Mumps
A

Whooping Cough

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25
Q

Rabbit fever is the common name for the disease:

  • Plague
  • Tularemia
  • Rabies
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
A

Tularemia

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26
Q

Puerperal sepsis is commonly referred to as:

  • Boils
  • Childbed fever
  • Whooping cough
  • Blood Poisoning
A

Childbed Fever

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27
Q

Which of the following organisms is an exotoxin producer?

  • Neisseria gonorrhea
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Clostridium perfringens
A

Clostridium Perfringens

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28
Q

The causative agent of the infection called septic sore throat:

  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Corynebacerium diptheriae
A

Streptococcus Pyogenes

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29
Q

Which of the following diseases may be caused by the organisms responsible for infection entering the body through the unbroken skin?

  • Tularemia
  • Tetanus
  • Syphilis
  • Gonorrhea
A

Tularemia

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30
Q

Endospore formation is a characteristic of:

  • Hemophilus influenzae
  • Salmonella enteritidis
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Bacillus anthracis
A

Bacillus Anthracis

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31
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for the infectious disease:

  • Meningococcemia
  • Ophthalmia neonatorum
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Pertussis
A

Rheumatic Fever

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32
Q

Which of the following organisms is the causative aget for a venereal disease?

  • Klebsiela pneumoniae
  • Yersinia pestis
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Leptospira interrogans
A

Treponema Pallidum

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33
Q

Weil’s disease is another name for:

  • Asiatic cholera
  • Tularemia
  • Diptheria
  • Infectious jaundice
A

Infectious Jaundice

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34
Q

Silver nitrate prophylaxis was once used for the control of:

  • typhoid fever
  • bacillary dysentery
  • Epidemic meningitis
  • Ophthalmia neonatorum
A

Ophthalmia Neonatorum

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35
Q

The portal of entry of Streptococcus pneumoniae is the:

  • nose and mouth
  • digestive tract
  • skin
  • genitourinary tract
A

Nose and Mouth

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36
Q

Antibodies that cause clumping of the antigenic substances are called:

  • Antitoxins
  • Cytolysins
  • Agglutinins
  • Opsonins
A

Agglutinins

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37
Q

Which of the following organisms is capable of forming capsules when living as parasites?

  • Neisseria gonorrheae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Staphylococcus aureus
A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

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38
Q

Which of the following does NOT play a part in the transmission of salmonellosis?

  • Food
  • Flies
  • Respiratory discharges
  • Water
A

Respiratory Discharges

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39
Q

Which of the following diseases are caused by a spiral-shaped organism?

  • Tetanus
  • Chancroid
  • Syphilis
  • Gonorrhea
A

Syphilis

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40
Q

Syphilis is an infection caused by:

  • Hemophilus ducreyi
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Treponema Pallidum

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41
Q

Septic sore throat is caued by a:

  • coccus
  • bacillus
  • spirochete
  • spirillum
A

Coccus

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42
Q

The disease known as puerperal sepsis occurs in the:

  • Skin
  • Digestive tract
  • Respiratory tract
  • Female reproductive tract
A

Female Reproductive Tract

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43
Q

Those bateria that perfer to live in the presence of free oxygen but can live in its absence are called:

  • Strict aerobes
  • Facultative aerobes
  • Strict anaerobes
  • Facultative anaerobes
A

Facultative Anaerobes

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44
Q

The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best.

  • Minimum temperature
  • Optimum temperature
  • Maximum temperature
  • Thermal death point
A

Optimum Temperature

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45
Q

An organism that can utilize inorganic matter as food:

  • Autotrophic
  • Heterotrophic
  • Saprophytic
  • Parasitic
A

Autotrpohic

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46
Q

A bacterium that prefers dead inorganic material, but can also obtain nourishment from living organic material:

  • Facultative parasite
  • Strict parasite
  • Facultative saprophyte
  • Obligate saprophyte
A

Facultative Parasite

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47
Q

Those spore forming bacteria that currently contain spores.

  • Vegetative
  • Sporulating
  • Flagellates
  • Autotrophic
A

Sporulating

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48
Q

Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively moderate temperature.

  • Psychophilic bacteria
  • Microaerophilic bacteria
  • Mesophilic bacteria
  • Thermophilic bacteria
A

Mesophilic Bacteria

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49
Q

The lowest temperature at which growth for a species will take place:

  • Minimum temperature
  • Optimum temperature
  • Maximum temperature
  • Thermal death point
A

Minumum Temperature

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50
Q

The highest temperature at which growth for a species will take place:

  • Minimum temperature
  • Optimum temperature
  • Maximum temperature
  • Thermal death point
A

Maximum Temperature

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51
Q

A bacteria that grows and reproduces best in the presence of oxygen, but can also grow and reproduce in its absence.

  • facultative anaerobe
  • facultative aerobe
  • facultative saprophyte
  • facultative parasite
A

Facultative Anaerobe

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52
Q

pH is a method for measurement of:

  • colony color
  • colony growth
  • alkalinity
  • colony size
A

Alkalinity

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53
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?

  • They develop within the cell
  • They are obligate parasites
  • They are the smallest of all living organisms
  • They are obligate saprophytes
A

They are Obligate Saprophytes

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54
Q

Bacteria usually reproduce by:

  • Sporulation
  • Trinary fission
  • Binary fission
  • Sexual reproduction
A

Binary Fission

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55
Q

Which organism is acid fast positive?

  • Neisseria
  • Corynebacterium
  • Mycobacterium
  • Salmonella
A

Mycobacterium

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56
Q

Those bacteria that grow best at relatively high temperatures are:

  • Psychophilic
  • Microaerophilic
  • Mesophilic
  • Thermophilic
A

Thermophilic

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57
Q

Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively low temperature.

  • Psychrophilic
  • Microphilic
  • Mesophilic
  • Thermophilic
A

Psychrophilic

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58
Q

Which organisms are known as the “true fungi”?

  • Chlamydiae
  • Rickettsiae
  • Bacteria
  • Yeasts
A

Yeasts

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59
Q

The study of the smallest microscopic life forms.

  • Protozoology
  • Mycology
  • Bacteriology
  • Virology
A

Virology

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60
Q

Self digestion of tissue by enzymes of their own formation.

  • Autolysis
  • Lipolysis
  • Hemolysis
  • Catalysis
A

Autolysis

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61
Q

Which structure functions to protect the organism and to enhance its virulence?

  • Cell wall
  • Capsule
  • Flagella
  • Cytoplasm
A

Capsule

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62
Q

Which structure contains the material of inheritance?

  • Cell wall
  • Cell membrane
  • Nucleic acid
  • Ribosomes
A

Nucleic Acid

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63
Q

Those bacteria that may be capable of forming spores:

  • Bacilli
  • Vibrio
  • Spirochetes
  • Cocci
A

Bacilli

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64
Q

Those bacteria that are spherical in shape.

  • Bacilli
  • Vibrio
  • Spirilla
  • Cocci
A

Cocci

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65
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria.

  • Spirilla
  • Vibrio
  • Cocci
  • Bacilli
A

Bacilli

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66
Q

The study of true fungi.

  • rickettsiology
  • bacteriology
  • mycology
  • myology
A

Mycology

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67
Q

An animal or plant of microscopic size.

  • Macrophage
  • Unicelled organism
  • Microorganism
  • Metazoa
A

Microorganism

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68
Q

Those eucaryotic, true fungi that reproduce by budding.

  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa
  • Yeasts
A

Yeasts

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69
Q

Cocci, bacilli, and spirilla are shapes of:

  • Protozoa
  • Molds
  • Yeasts
  • Bacteria
A

Bacteria

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70
Q

Molds are:

  • Multicellular
  • Unicellular
  • Spore formers
  • Procaryotic
A

Multicellular

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71
Q

Living orgamisms that are composed of a single cell are said to be:

  • Multicellular
  • Unicellular
  • Fusiform
  • Universal
A

Unicellular

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72
Q

Microscopic one-celled animals are called:

  • protozoa
  • rickettsia
  • virus
  • yeasts
A

Protozoa

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73
Q

A micrometer is equal to approximately:

  • 1/25 of an inch
  • 1/2500 of an inch
  • 1/250 of an inch
  • 1/25000 of an inch
A

1/25000 of an Inch

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74
Q

Which of the following are classified as a venereal disease?

  • Lymphogranuoma venereum
  • Pulmonary tuberculosis
  • Tularemia
  • Psittacosis
A

Lymphogranuoma Venereum

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75
Q

The bacteria which contain nuclear bodies.

  • Procaryotic
  • Eucaryotic
  • Involuted
  • Attenuated
A

Procaryotic

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76
Q

The most common mode of transmission for tuberculosis:

  • Genitourinary secretions
  • Soil
  • Water
  • Droplet spray
A

Droplet Spray

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77
Q

The cytoplasm of the typical eucaryotic cell is separated from the nucleus by the:

  • Cytoplasmic membrane
  • Nuclear membrane
  • Cell Wall
  • Endospore
A

Nuclear Membrane

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78
Q

The material of inheritance is contained within the:

  • Metachromatic ganules
  • Vacuoles
  • Nuclear body
  • Polar body
A

Nuclear Body

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79
Q

The basic unit from which all living organisms are made.

  • Vacuole
  • Nuclear membrane
  • Metachromatic granules
  • Cell
A

Cell

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80
Q

An association of two organisms that is detrimental to one.

  • Symbiosis
  • Metabiosis
  • Antibiosis
  • Commensalism
A

Antibiosis

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81
Q

An enzyme that is produced in a bacterial cell but retained inside the cell.

  • An endoenzyme
  • An ectoenzyme
  • An exoenzyme
  • A heteroenzyme
A

Endoenzyme

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82
Q

A visible mass of bacterial growth resulting from the reproduction of a single cell.

  • Bacterial population
  • Mixed culture
  • Colony
  • Sarcinae
A

Colony

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83
Q

Spherical shaped bacteria that form grape-like clusters.

  • Bacilli
  • Cocci
  • Staphylococci
  • Streptococci
A

Staphylococci

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84
Q

Spore formation is characteristic of only a few species of:

  • cocci
  • bacilli
  • Spirilla
  • Vibrio
A

Bacilli

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85
Q

Spores are most likely to form when:

  • The bacteria has plentiful food supply
  • The bacteria is ready to produce
  • The conditions for reproduction are not favorable
  • The cell involved is a spirilla
A

The Conditions for Reproduction are not Favorable

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86
Q

The presence of a capsule may affect a bacterium by:

  • Decreasing virulence
  • Increasing virulence
  • Producing motility
  • Killing the organism
A

Increasing Virulence

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87
Q

The bacterial spore is called an endospore because:

  • It is formed outside the cell
  • It is formed inside the nucleus
  • It is formed outside the nucleus
  • It is formed within the cell
A

It is Formed Within the Cell

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88
Q

Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia?

  • Psittacosis
  • Tuberculosis
  • Scarlet fever
  • Herpes Simplex Type II
A

Psittacosis

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89
Q

The size of bacteria is measured in a special unit called:

  • An inch
  • A micrometer
  • A millimeter
  • A centimeter
A

Micrometer

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90
Q

The smallest unit in which a living organism can survive independently.

  • Nucleus
  • Colony
  • Vacuole
  • Cell
A

Cell

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91
Q

Spore forming bacteria under unfavorable conditions.

  • Lophotrichous
  • Sporulating
  • Attenuated
  • Vegetative
A

Sporulating

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92
Q

Spore formation is characterized as:

  • A protective device
  • A reproductive device
  • A locomotive structure
  • Found in all bacteria
A

A Protective Device

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93
Q

Spore formation occurs in response to:

  • An internal stimulus
  • She shape of the organism
  • Unsuitable living conditions
  • Reproduction
A

Unsuitable Living Conditions

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94
Q

The respiratory tract is the primary portal of entry for all of the following virus diseases except:

  • Influenza
  • Mumps
  • Smallpox
  • Rabies
A

Rabies

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95
Q

Monilia is used synonymously with:

  • Candida
  • Histoplasma
  • Actinomyces
  • Bastomyces
A

Candida

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96
Q

A viral disease primarily of man.

  • mumps
  • psittacosis
  • rabies
  • rocky mountain spotted fever
A

Mumps

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97
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission for gonorrhea?

  • Droplet spray
  • Sexual conduct
  • Contaminated milk
  • Houseflies
A

Sexual Conduct

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98
Q

Which is NOT a viral disease?

  • Epidemic parotitis
  • Rubella
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Typhus fever
A

Typhus Fever

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99
Q

Which is NOT a viral disease?

  • Smallpox
  • Chickenpox
  • Syphilis
  • Herpes
A

Syphilis

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100
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by a:

  • Bacteria
  • Spirochete
  • Chlamydia
  • Virus
A

Chlamydia

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101
Q

Least likely to be a viral disease is:

  • Bubonic plague
  • Mumps
  • Rabies
  • Smallpox
A

Bubonic Plague

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102
Q

Antibiotics have thus far been ineffective against most varieties or types of:

  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Spirochetes
  • Viruses
A

Viruses

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103
Q

The causative agent of typhus fever.

  • Virus
  • Bacterium
  • Rickettisa
  • Fungus
A

Rickettisa

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104
Q

Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from person to person by unsanitary injection procedures?

  • Measles
  • Herpes simplex
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Serum hepatitis
A

Serum Hepatitis

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105
Q

Mycology is the study of:

  • Bacilli
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Protozoa
A

Fungi

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106
Q

Ringworm arises from:

  • Protozoan infection
  • A bacterial infection
  • An allergic reaction
  • A fungal infection
A

A Fungal Infection

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107
Q

Which of the following require living cells for growth?

  • Fungi
  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa
A

Viruses

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108
Q

Malaria is caused by:

  • Molds
  • Viruses
  • Helminths
  • Protozoa
A

Protozoa

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109
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by:

  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Rickettsia conorii
  • Rickettsia rickettsii
  • Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
A

Rickettsia Rickettsii

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110
Q

Serum hepatitis has been attributed to:

  • A cat scratch
  • Exposure to blood
  • A dog bite
  • Contaminated surfaces
A

Exposure to Blood

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111
Q

A virus which causes fever blisters or cold sores.

  • Rubella virus
  • Varicella virus
  • Herpes zoster virus
  • Herpes Simplex virus
A

Herpes Simplex Virus

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112
Q

Hemplysins and leucocidins are classfied as:

  • Vaccines
  • Immune serums
  • Antibodies
  • Bacterial toxins
A

Bacterial Toxins

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113
Q

Which of the following is caused by rickettsia?

  • Mumps
  • Rabies
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Q fever
A

Q Fever

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114
Q

Which of the following is the least effective in the destruction of microbes?

  • Cold temperatures
  • Steam under pressure
  • Dry heat
  • Ultraviolet light radiation
A

Cold Temperatures

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115
Q

Protozoa may be classified as:

  • Multicellular
  • Unicellular
  • Acellular
  • Procaryotic
A

Unicellular

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116
Q

Epidemic typhus fevers are transmitted by:

  • flies
  • mosquitos
  • ticks
  • lice
A

Lice

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117
Q

Parrot fever is:

  • Transmitted by insects
  • A water-borne disease
  • A placental disease
  • Transmitted by air
A

Transmitted by Air

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118
Q

Malaria and amoeabiasis are caused by:

  • Protozoa
  • Bacteria
  • Yeast
  • Virus
A

Protozoa

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119
Q

A virus is a:

  • Strict parasite
  • Strict saprophyte
  • Facultative parasite
  • Toxin
A

Strict Parasite

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120
Q

The common cold is transmitted by:

  • Insect bite
  • Droplet spray
  • Water
  • Food
A

Droplet Spray

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121
Q

Rabies are also called:

  • Parotitis
  • Hydrophobia
  • Coryza
  • Rhinitis
A

Hydrophobia

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122
Q

Rickettsia grow only as:

  • Autotrophs
  • Saprophytes
  • Parasites
  • Thermophiles
A

Parasites

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123
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by:

  • Ticks
  • Rickettsia
  • Virus
  • Fungi
A

Rickettsia

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124
Q

Q fever is caused by:

  • Mites
  • Rickettsia
  • Frambesia
  • Viruses
A

Rickettsia

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125
Q

Histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis are caused by:

  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Rickettsia
  • Chlamydia
A

Fungi

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126
Q

Viruses have been found to be capable of infesting:

  • Man
  • Animals
  • Insects
  • All of these
A

All of These

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127
Q

Which of the following is caused by a member of the genus Staphylococcus?

  • Typhus fever
  • Bubonic plague
  • Food poisoning
  • Leprosy
A

Food Poisoning

128
Q

Ringworm is caused by a:

  • Bacteria
  • Fungus
  • Protozoa
  • Rickettisa
A

Fungus

129
Q

Which organism causes the disease known as thrush?

  • Coccidiodes
  • Candida
  • Histoplasma
  • Plasmodium
A

Candida

130
Q

Which disease is NOT dermatrophic?

  • Shingles
  • Fever blisters
  • Mumps
  • Rubella
A

Mumps

131
Q

Which virus attacks the respiratory tract?

  • Dermatrophic
  • Neurotrophic
  • Pneumotrophic
  • Adenotrophic
A

Pneumotrophic

132
Q

Vaccination with cowpox virus will produce an immunity to:

  • Rubeola
  • Varicella
  • Variola
  • Rabies
A

Variola

133
Q

Which protozoan parasite does NOT have a method for locomotion?

  • Sporozoa
  • Flagellates
  • Ameoba
  • Ciliate
A

Sporozoa

134
Q

The destruction of all microorganisms and their products.

  • Disinfection
  • Barteriostasis
  • Sterilization
  • Antisepsis
A

Sterilization

135
Q

The inhibition of bacterial growth and reproduction without necessarily destroying the organisms is the result of:

  • Disinfectant
  • Sterilant
  • Antiseptic
  • Bactericide
A

Antiseptic

136
Q

The destruction of all pathogens and their products.

  • Bacteriostasis
  • Sterilization
  • Disinfection
  • Antisepsis
A

Disinfection

137
Q

An agent which destroys yeasts and molds.

  • Fungicide
  • Bactericide
  • Viricide
  • Germicide
A

Fungicide

138
Q

An agent which liberates gases or fumes for the purpose of destruction of insects and microorganisms.

  • Sterilant
  • Disinfectant
  • Fumigant
  • Antiseptic
A

Fumigant

139
Q

Which of the following is most efficient in destruction of microorganisms?

  • Cold temperatures
  • Dry heat
  • Boiling
  • Steam under pressure
A

Steam Under Pressure

140
Q

Which of these is primarily bacteriostatic in its action?

  • Dry heat
  • Steam under pressure
  • Free-flowing steam
  • Cold
A

Cold

141
Q

The most diagnosed viral infection.

  • Smallpox
  • Chickenpox
  • The Common Cold
  • Measles
A

The Common Cold

142
Q

The most widely applicable and effective sterilizing agent.

  • Fumigation
  • Filtration
  • Heat
  • Chemical
A

Heat

143
Q

The usual portal for peumotropic viral diseases.

  • Respiratory tract
  • Genitourinary tract
  • Skin
  • Digestive tract
A

Respiratory Tract

144
Q

Free-flowing steam is about equal to:

  • Dry heat
  • Filtration
  • Boiling
  • Steam under pressure
A

Boiling

145
Q

The autoclave usually generates temperature of about:

  • 100 degrees C
  • 121 degrees F
  • 200 degrees C
  • 121 degrees C
A

121 Degrees C

146
Q

The ultraviolet rays contained in direct sunlight:

  • Are essential for bacterial growth
  • Are bactericidal
  • Are ony bacteriostatic
  • Have no effect on bacteria
A

Are Bactericidal

147
Q

German measles are more correctly known as:

  • Rubeola
  • Rubella
  • Herpes simplex type 1
  • Epidemic parotitis
A

Rubella

148
Q

What type of virus would have an affinity for the liver?

  • Dermatropic
  • Neurotropic
  • Viscerotropic
  • Pneumotropic
A

Viscerotropic

149
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in the action of a chemical disinfectant?

  • Concentration of the disinfectant
  • Nature of matrial being disinfected
  • Time of day
  • Number of microorganisms present
A

Time of Day

150
Q

Which of the following is used as a standard to measure the efficiency of chemical disinfectants?

  • Bichloride of mercury
  • Formalin
  • Phenol
  • Alcohol
A

Phenol

151
Q

Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium compound?

  • Mercuric chloride
  • Zephiran chloride
  • Tincture of iodine
  • Carbolic acid
A

Zephiran Chloride

152
Q

Which part of the body is affected by encephalitis?

  • Kidney
  • Brain
  • Liver
  • Spleen
A

Brain

153
Q

The same virus that causes chickenpox wil also cause a second infection in some individuals. This second infection is known as:

  • Shingles
  • Infuenza
  • Herpes
  • Variola
A

Shingles

154
Q

What type of viral diseases would cause lesions of the skin?

  • Adenotropic
  • Viscerotropic
  • Neurotropic
  • Dermatropic
A

Dermatropic

155
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phenolic compound?

  • Phenol
  • Carbolic acid
  • Glutaraldehyde
  • Hexachlorophene
A

Glutaraldehyde

156
Q

A term that may be used to describe the presence of true pathogens on inanimate objects.

  • Infection
  • Infestation
  • Contamination
  • Virulence
A

Contamination

157
Q

Microorganisms that produce disease only under favorable conditions.

  • Saprophytes
  • Obligate aerobes
  • True pathogens
  • Opportunists
A

Opportunists

158
Q

What term refers to the invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites?

  • Contamination
  • Infestation
  • Infection
  • Virulence
A

Infestation

159
Q

What term is defined as the degree of the ability of a microorgansim to cause disease?

  • Infection
  • Pathogenicity
  • Virulence
  • Infestation
A

Virulence

160
Q

What term is defined as the invasion of the body by living microorgansism with subsequent multiplication and disease production?

  • Infection
  • Contamination
  • Infestation
  • Infiltration
A

Infection

161
Q

Attenuation affects a pathogen by:

  • Killing it
  • Increasing virulence
  • Increasing growth rate
  • Decreasing virulence
A

Decreasing Virulence

162
Q

What term refers to the preference of a pathogen for a particular part of the body?

  • Infection
  • Attenuation
  • Elective localization
  • Virulence
A

Elective Localization

163
Q

An infection which is caused by organisms already present in the body is best described as:

  • Sporadic
  • Exogenous
  • Endemic
  • Endogenous
A

Endogenous

164
Q

An infection which has a relatively short and severe course.

  • Acute
  • Chronic
  • Local
  • Endemic
A

Acute

165
Q

An infection which remains confined to a particular part of the body.

  • Endemic
  • Endogenous
  • Focal
  • Local
A

Local

166
Q

What infection is one in which microorganisms or their products are spread by the blood or lymph throughout the entire body?

  • Local
  • Sporadic
  • Terminal
  • General
A

General

167
Q

What infection is one which have a relatively slow onset and long duration?

  • Mixed
  • Focal
  • Chronic
  • Acute
A

Chronic

168
Q

What infection spreads from one are of infection to set up other areas of infection in the body?

  • Local
  • Acute
  • Epidemic
  • Focal
A

Focal

169
Q

What infection is one in which the causative agents enter the body from the outside by entering through one of the portals of entry?

  • Focal
  • Endogenous
  • Extraneous
  • Exogenous
A

Exogenous

170
Q

What infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type?

  • Exogenous
  • General
  • Secondary
  • Sporadic
A

Secondary

171
Q

What infection is one caused by two or more different organisms at about the same time?

  • Local
  • Focal
  • Mixed
  • Terminal
A

Mixed

172
Q

What is a condition in which bacteria are found in the blood but not multiplying there?

  • Septicemia
  • Toxemia
  • Sapremia
  • Bacteremia
A

Bacteremia

173
Q

What infection occurs in an indivdual who has no other active infection?

  • Local
  • Primary
  • General
  • Secondary
A

Primary

174
Q

What is an infection of the blood with actual growth and multiplication of pathogens in the blood?

  • Anemia
  • Toxemia
  • Septicemia
  • Bacteremia
A

Septicemia

175
Q

What infection occurs as a late complication of another disease and is itself the actual cause of death?

  • Primary
  • Endogenous
  • Terminal
  • Sporadic
A

Terminal

176
Q

A communicable disease which is normally present to a greater or lesser degree within a community.

  • Sporadic
  • Endemic
  • Epidemic
  • Pandemic
A

Endemic

177
Q

A communicable disease that attacks a large number of persons in a community at about the same time.

  • Endemic
  • Sporadic
  • Epidemic
  • Pandemic
A

Epidemic

178
Q

A communicable disease that occurs in a community only as an occasional case.

  • Pandemic
  • Endemic
  • Epiemic
  • Sporadic
A

Sporadic

179
Q

A communicable disease that has spread to more than one country.

  • Pandemic
  • Endemic
  • Epidemic
  • Sproadic
A

Pandemic

180
Q

______ are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released into the surrounding medium by the living cells.

  • Endospores
  • Endotoxins
  • Nucleic acids
  • Exotoxins
A

Exotoxins

181
Q

Which of the following substances produced by bacteria will destory white blood cells?

  • Hemolysins
  • Fibrinolysins
  • Coagulates
  • Leucoidins
A

Leucoidins

182
Q

Which of the following substances produced by bacterial cells will destroy red blood cells?

  • Hemolysins
  • Fibrinolysins
  • Coagulates
  • Leucoidins
A

Hemolysins

183
Q

What are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released only when the bacterial cells die and disintegrate?

  • Capsules
  • Endospores
  • Exotoxins
  • Endotoxins
A

Endotoxins

184
Q

Which of the following is true of a carrier?

  • May have never had the disease that is being carried.
  • May have had the disease and recovered
  • Exhibits no symptoms of the disease
  • All of these
A

All of These

185
Q

What carrier harbors and disseminates the causative agents of a disease for along time following recovery from the disease?

  • Active
  • Passive
  • Contact
  • Convalescent
A

Active

186
Q

Which of the following is a mode of direct disease transmission?

  • Contaminated fomites
  • Biological vectors
  • Droplet spray
  • Mechanical vectors
A

Droplet Spray

187
Q

What is the proper term for smallpox?

  • Varicella
  • Variola
  • Herpes simplex 1
  • Rubella
A

Variola

188
Q

Which of these transmit disease by biting the host?

  • Mechanical fomites
  • Mechanical vectors
  • Biological fomites
  • Biological vectors
A

Biological Vectors

189
Q

Which of the following would most likely transmit typhoid fever as a mechanical vector?

  • Tick
  • Housefly
  • Louse
  • Mosquito
A

Housefly

190
Q

Congenital disease transmission occurs through:

  • Broken skin
  • Placenta
  • Respiratory tract
  • Digestive system
A

Placenta

191
Q

Which of the following are mechanical body defenses?

  • Intact skin
  • Mucous membranes
  • Cilia
  • All of the above
A

All of the Above

192
Q

Inflammation is primarily a:

  • Mechanical body defense
  • Chemical body defense
  • Physiological body defense
  • External body defense
A

Physiological Body Defense

193
Q

What substances are produced by the body in response to the entry of a foreign substance into the body.

  • Antigens
  • Lysozymes
  • Antibodies
  • Endotoxins
A

Antibodies

194
Q

Bacteria are considered:

  • Procaryotic
  • Eucaryotic
  • Inorganic
  • Fungicidal
A

Procaryotic

195
Q

Bacteria which prefer inorganic material as their source of nutrition.

  • Autotrophic
  • Parasitic
  • Saprophytic
  • Heterotropic
A

Autotropic

196
Q

A toxin which remains inside a bacteria until the bacteria disintegrates.

  • Endotoxin
  • Exotoxin
  • Antitoxins
  • Atoxin
A

Endotoxin

197
Q

A bacterium which has a high degree of pathogenicity is said to be very:

  • Virulent
  • Attenuated
  • Susceptible
  • Viscous
A

Virulent

198
Q

A bacterium which has had its virulence reduced.

  • Attenuated
  • Organic
  • Hypertonic
  • Hypotonic
A

Attenuated

199
Q

Hydrophobia is a condition often associated with:

  • Rabies
  • Actue coryza
  • Poliomyelitis
  • German measles
A

Rabies

200
Q

The presence of bacteria in the blood with no noticeable growth or reproduction.

  • Bacteremia
  • Aseptic
  • Antiseptic
  • Bacteriocidal
A

Bacteremia

201
Q

A person who harbors a pathogenic microbe but does not exhibit any symptoms of the disease which it is known to cause.

  • A carrier
  • A port of entry
  • A cause of disease
  • A vector of the disease
A

Carrier

202
Q

Tuberculosis is an example of a:

  • Bacterial disease
  • Viral disease
  • Rickettsial disease
  • Fungal disease
A

Bacterial Disease

203
Q

In the name Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the first name is the:

  • Species
  • Order
  • Class
  • Genus
A

Genus

204
Q

The prefix “staphylo” refers to an organism’s tendency to:

  • Occur in grape-like clusters
  • Have a spherical shape
  • Form pus
  • Remain localized in infections
A

Occur in Grape-Like Clusters

205
Q

Which of the following structures interfere most with phagocytosis?

  • Flagella
  • Granules
  • Capsules
  • Vacuoles
A

Capsules

206
Q

Many bacteria possess a thick colorless gelatinous outer covering called a:

  • Capsule
  • Spore
  • Nucleus
  • Inclusion body
A

Capsule

207
Q

What is the classification for the disease poliomyelitis?

  • Adermotropic
  • Dermatropic
  • Viscerotropic
  • Neurotropic
A

Neurotropic

208
Q

Which of the following organisms requires living cells for growth and reproduction?

  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Spirilla
  • Protozoa
A

Viruses

209
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the occurrence of an infection?

  • The gram stain reaction of the microbe
  • The number of microbes present
  • The portal of entry of the microbe
  • The resistance of the host
A

The Gram Stain Reaction of the Microbe

210
Q

The type of lesion most closely associated with tuberculosis.

  • A pseudo membrane
  • An abscess
  • A tubercle
  • A boil
A

A Tubercle

211
Q

A highly communicable disease which is usually spread directly from person to person is considered:

  • Exogenous
  • Endogenous
  • Contagious
  • A general infection
A

Contagious

212
Q

Racial immunity is an example of:

  • Innate immunity
  • Artificially acquired active immunity
  • Naturally acquired passive immunity
  • Artificially acquired passive immunity
A

Innate Immunity

213
Q

What type of substance is secreted by a living cell that can bring about chemical changes in another substance without undergoing any substantive change themselves?

  • Endotoxins
  • Exotoxins
  • Enzymes
  • Antibodies
A

Enzymes

214
Q

The invasion, multiplication and spreading of microorganisms causing harm to the host.

  • Antiseptic
  • Disinfection
  • Contamination
  • Infection
A

Infection

215
Q

What type of pathogen cause disease under most conditions?

  • True pathogens
  • False pathogens
  • Opportunistic pathogens
  • Indigenous flora
A

True Pathogens

216
Q

For disinfection, alcohol is most effective in a:

  • Seventy percent solution
  • One hundred percent solution
  • Twenty percent solution
  • Ten percent solution
A

Seventy Percent Solution

217
Q

Which of these is an example of a physiological defense mechanism of the body against infection?

  • Gastric juices
  • Boney encasement
  • Inflammation
  • Intact mucous membranes
A

Inflammation

218
Q

The process of passing a liquid through a material with pores so small that bacteria cannot pass through is:

  • Sterilization
  • Sedimentation
  • Filtration
  • Disinfection
A

Filtration

219
Q

Which of these chemical agents is a member of the quaternary ammonium compound family?

  • Mercuric chloride
  • Calcium hydroxide
  • Benzalkonium chloride
  • Sodium hypochlorite
A

Benzalkonium Chloride

220
Q

Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from host to host by unsanitary injection procedures?

  • Herpes simplex 1
  • Measles
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Serum hepatitis
A

Serum Hepatitis

221
Q

Oral and vaginal thrush are caused by:

  • Aspergillis negri
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Candida albicans
  • Sterptococcus aureus
A

Candida Albicans

222
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by:

  • Rickettsia
  • Ticks
  • A virus
  • Fungi
A

Rickettsia

223
Q

Q fever is caused by:

  • A virus
  • Bacteria
  • Rickettsia
  • Chlamydia
A

Rickettsia

224
Q

The spread of microorganisms from host to host by food, milk and water is what mode of transmission?

  • Direct contact
  • Indirect contact
  • Insect vector-mechanical transmission
  • Insect vector-biological transmission
A

Indirect Contact

225
Q

A disease that is not transmitted from one host to another is:

  • Contamination
  • Infestation
  • Attenuated
  • Non-communicable
A

Non-Communicable

226
Q

Those microorganisms that do not normally invade the body of the host to produce disease.

  • Normal flora
  • True pathogens
  • Infectious microorganisms
  • Toxigenic microorganisms
A

Normal Flora

227
Q

Which of these is least effective in achieving a sterile environment?

  • Boiling
  • Free-flowing steam
  • Steam under pressure
  • Dry Heat
A

Boiling

228
Q

Which mechanical method of sanitation is likely to be used in the practice of mortuary hygiene?

  • Scrubbing
  • Sedimentation
  • Heat
  • Filtration
A

Scrubbing

229
Q

Which of the following is capable of producing an enterotoxin that will cause food poisoning?

  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus
  • Treponema
  • Mycobacterium
A

Staphylococcus

230
Q

The common cold can be transmitted by:

  • An insect bite
  • Droplet spray
  • Congenital transmission
  • Contaminated food
A

Droplet Spray

231
Q

The structures that produce motility for bacterial cells are the:

  • Spores
  • Capsules
  • Flagella
  • Pili
A

Flagella

232
Q

Which of these is NOT typical of a bacterial spore?

  • They are the most resistant form of life known
  • They are formed inside the microbial cell
  • They are susceptible to small amounts of heat or light.
  • They are formed by bacilli microorganisms
A

They are Susceptible to Small Amounts of Heat or Light

233
Q

Which of these chemical agents is described as a coal-tar derivative?

  • Formaldehyde
  • Ammonia
  • Mercuric chloride
  • Phenol
A

Phenol

234
Q

Which of these is an example of a pathogenic protozoa?

  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Vibrio cholerae
A

Entamoeba histolytica

235
Q

Which of these statements is descriptive of spirochetes?

  • They are spiral-shaped microbes which move with a twisting axis.
  • They are spiral-shaped microbes which move with a fixed axis
  • They are rod-shaped microbes which have no motility
  • They are spherical-shaped microbes which have pseudopods for motility.
A

They are Spiral-Shaped Microbes Which Move With a Twisting Axis

236
Q

A gelatinous envelope that surrounds a bacilli.

  • Spore
  • Capsule
  • Flagella
  • Cell membrane
A

Capsule

237
Q

Where are spores formed?

  • Outside the cell wall
  • Between the cell wall and the cell membrane
  • Within the cell cytoplasm
  • Within the cell nucleoplasm
A

Within the Cell Cytoplasm

238
Q

A thin whip-like organelle of bacterial motility.

  • Spore
  • Cilia
  • Flagellum
  • Capsule
A

Flagellum

239
Q

Diplococci appear:

  • In long chain-like formations
  • In pairs
  • In groups of eight
  • In a cluster
A

In Pairs

240
Q

The optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria.

  • 7.0
  • 6.6
  • 8.0
  • 7.4
A

7.4

241
Q

A bacterium that produces infection only when specific conditions arise.

  • A parasitic pathogen
  • An opportunistic pathogen
  • A host bacteria
  • A true pathogen
A

An Opportunistic Pathogen

242
Q

The degree of the ability of a microbe to produce disease is measured as:

  • Attenuation
  • Toxicity
  • Virulence
  • Infectiousness
A

Virulence

243
Q

A poisonous substance produced by a microorganism is:

  • A toxin
  • An activator
  • An antibody
  • A toxoid
A

Toxin

244
Q

Normal flora bacteria will cause which of the following types of infection?

  • Exogenous
  • Acute
  • Chronic
  • Endogeneous
A

Endogeneous

245
Q

The process of ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes is:

  • Diapedesis
  • Phagocytosis
  • Antibiosis
  • Symbiosis
A

Phagocytosis

246
Q

The humoral theory of immunity involves:

  • Macrophages
  • Mast cells
  • Antibodies
  • Thrombocytes
A

Antibodies

247
Q

The word “streptococcus” describes:

  • Spherical cells arranged in chains
  • Spherical cells arranged in clusters
  • Rod-shaped cells arranged in chains
  • Rod-shaped cells arranged in clusters
A

Spherical Cells Arranged in Chains

248
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effective disinfectant?

  • Quaternary ammonium compounds
  • Iodophores
  • Soap
  • Formaldehyde
A

Soap

249
Q

What body cell is known to perform the process of phagocytosis?

  • An antibody
  • A leukocyte
  • An erythrocyte
  • A thrombocyte
A

Leukocyte

250
Q

Staphlycoccus aureus causes:

  • A nosocomial infection
  • Diphtheria
  • Anthrax
  • Syphilis
A

A Nosocomial Infection

251
Q

Yersinia pestis causes:

  • Hydrocele
  • Hydrophobia
  • Plague
  • Gonorrhea
A

Plague

252
Q

Chlamydia psittaci causes:

  • Yellow fever
  • Scarlet fever
  • Rabbit fever
  • Parrot fever
A

Parrot Fever

253
Q

With what disease is Varicella Zoster identified?

  • Measles
  • Mumps
  • Shingles
  • Fever blisters
A

Shingles

254
Q

With what disease is rubella identified?

  • Fever blisters
  • Chancres
  • Mumps
  • German measles
A

German Measles

255
Q

What disease is identified with the condition called hydrophobia?

  • Chickenpox
  • Mumps
  • Mononucleosis
  • Rabies
A

Rabies

256
Q

Clostridium perfringens causes:

  • Chickenpox
  • Plague
  • Leprosy
  • Tissue Gas
A

Tissue Gas

257
Q

What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?

  • Rabbit fever
  • Scarlet fever
  • Puerperal fever
  • Parrot fever
A

Rabbit Fever

258
Q

What disease is caused by Bacillus anthracis?

  • Rabbit fever
  • Cholera
  • Anthrax
  • Bubonic plague
A

Anthrax

259
Q

Which of the following is most likely to enter the body through the genitourinary tract?

  • Pneumonic plague
  • Bubonic plague
  • Syphilis
  • Tularemia
A

Syphilis

260
Q

Which of the following is classified as pneumotropic?

  • Influenza
  • Chickenpox
  • Shingles
  • Rabies
A

Influenza

261
Q

Which of the following is classified as viscerotropic?

  • Measles
  • Smallpox
  • Hepatitis
  • Chickenpox
A

Hepatitis

262
Q

Which of these is a chemical agent capable of killing viral organisms?

  • Disinfectant
  • Fungicide
  • Viricide
  • Insecticide
A

Viricide

263
Q

Which of these chemical agents is capable of killing molds?

  • Fumigant
  • Disinfectant
  • Insecticide
  • Fungicide
A

Fungicide

264
Q

What type of immunity is based solely on the genus and species of the host?

  • Active immunity
  • Passive immunity
  • Natural immunity
  • Artificial immunity
A

Natural Immunity

265
Q

What control process is used to destroy something of no value?

  • Direct sunlight
  • Incineration
  • Boiling
  • Freezing
A

Incineration

266
Q

What condition is most desired by mesophilic bacteria?

  • Hot temperatures
  • Moderate temperatures
  • Cold temperatures
  • Direct sunlight
A

Moderate Temperatures

267
Q

What agent destroys yeasts and molds?

  • Bacteriocide
  • Fungicide
  • Viricide
  • Sporicide
A

Fungicide

268
Q

An agent that liberates gases for the purpose of destroying macroscopic life:

  • Fungicide
  • Fumigant
  • Germicide
  • Disinfectant
A

Fumigant

269
Q

What type of bacteria grows best between temperatures of 30 degrees celsius and 40 degrees celsius?

  • Psychrophilic
  • Cryophilic
  • Mesophilic
  • Thermophilic
A

Mesophilic

270
Q

Bacteria that require organic chemical compounds for nourishment:

  • Autotrophic
  • Heterotrophic
  • Phototrophic
  • Mesophilic
A

Heterotrophic

271
Q

The structure providing a bacterial cell with rigidity and outlining the shape of the cell.

  • Cell membrane
  • Cell wall
  • Cytoplasm
  • Nuclear membrane
A

Cell Wall

272
Q

Which of these statements best describes a pathogen?

  • An organism capable of producing disease in a susceptible host
  • An organism which utilizes inorganic compounds for nutrition
  • An organism which carries Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
  • An organism which is used as an inoculant.
A

An Organism Capable of Producing Disease in a Susceptible Host

273
Q

An infection that occurs after another infection is already present.

  • An acute infection
  • A chronic infection
  • A secondary infection
  • A primary infection
A

A Secondary Infection

274
Q

Which of these infections occurs with rapid onset and short duration?

  • Primary infection
  • Mixed infection
  • Chronic infection
  • Acute infection
A

Acute Infection

275
Q

The first infection that a person has at any given time.

  • A specific infection
  • A chronic infection
  • A primary infection
  • A mixed infection
A

Primary Infection

276
Q

An infection that is caused by two or more different organisms:

  • Mixed infection
  • Secondary infection
  • Chronic infection
  • Local infection
A

Mixed Infection

277
Q

Which of the following is an example of a fomite?

  • Housefly
  • Mosquito
  • Droplet spray
  • Coffee cup
A

Coffee Cup

278
Q

Which of these is an enzyme that dissolves fibrin?

  • Hemolysin
  • Leucocidin
  • Coagulase
  • Fibrinolysin
A

Fibrinolysin

279
Q

Which of the following enzymes is often referred to as “the spreading factor”?

  • Hemolysin
  • Hyaluronidase
  • Ptyalin
  • Coagulase
A

Hyaluronidase

280
Q

Which of these enzymes destroys red blood cells?

  • Leucocidin
  • Fibrinolysin
  • Coagulase
  • Hemolysin
A

Hemolysin

281
Q

Which of the following enzymes causes blood plasma to clot?

  • Fibrinolysin
  • Coagulase
  • Leucocidin
  • Hemolysin
A

Coagulase

282
Q

An organism upon which a pathogen lives.

  • Vector
  • Fomite
  • Host
  • Parasite
A

Host

283
Q

Which of these is a characteristic of rickettsial organisms?

  • They are spiral-shaped
  • They are non-pathogenic
  • They are arthropod-borne
  • They are smaller than viruses
A

They are Arthropod Borne

284
Q

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of viruses?

  • They are non-pathogenic
  • They are visible under a light microscope
  • They reproduce by binary fission
  • They are intracellular parasites
A

They are Intracellular Parasites

285
Q

What disease is also known as epidemic parotitis?

  • Measles
  • Hepatitis
  • Cold sore
  • Mumps
A

Mumps

286
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by contact with contaminated blood serum?

  • Hepatitis type A
  • Hepatitis type B
  • Mumps
  • Smallpox
A

Hepatitis Type B

287
Q

Which of these describes the virulence of a pathogen?

  • The degree of pathogenicity
  • The toxigenicity of a pathogen
  • The formation of antibodies against a pathogen
  • The ability of a microbe to cause disease
A

The Degree of Pathogenicity

288
Q

Dermatomycosis is caused by:

  • Rickettsia
  • Entameoba histolytica
  • Epidermophyton
  • Chlamydia psittaci
A

Epidermophyton

289
Q

Which of these is a causative agent of dysentery?

  • Rickettsia rickettsii
  • Chlamydia trachoma
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Bacillus anthracis
A

Entamoeba histolytica

290
Q

What disease is caused by the Varicella virus?

  • Smallpox
  • Chickenpox
  • Measles
  • Herpes
A

Chickenpox

291
Q

Which of the following is NOT applicable to viruses?

  • They are autotrophic organisms
  • They are sub-microscopic organisms
  • They are intracellular parasites
  • They contain either DNA or RNA but not both.
A

They are Autotrophic Organisms

292
Q

Which of these describes the movement of bacteria through a medium?

  • Attenuation
  • Virulence
  • Pathogenicity
  • Motility
A

Motility

293
Q

The relationship between two organisms in which neither can survive independent of the other.

  • Symbiotic
  • Antagonistic
  • Commensalistic
  • Ammensalistic
A

Symbiotic

294
Q

A relationship between two organisms in which one is detrimental to the other.

  • Mutualistic
  • Commensalistic
  • Antagonistic
  • Synergistic
A

Antagonistic

295
Q

Which of these microbes is known to produce an endotoxin?

  • Salmonella typhi
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
A

Salmonella typhi

296
Q

The study of all microscopic life forms.

  • Botany
  • Anatomy
  • Microbiology
  • Cytology
A

Microbiology

297
Q

Which of these microbes is described as being “comma” shaped?

  • Vibrio cholera
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Neisseria meningitidis
A

Vibrio Cholera

298
Q

Which of these is a disease caused by a protozoan parasite?

  • Typhus fever
  • Typhoid fever
  • Ameobic dysentery
  • Syphilis
A

Ameobic Dysentery

299
Q

Those organisms that reproduce by budding.

  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Protozoa
A

Fungi

300
Q

Molds are:

  • Acellular
  • Unicellular
  • Multicellular
  • Motile
A

Multicellular

301
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria that form chain-like arrangements.

  • Streptobacilli
  • Staphylococci
  • Staphlyobacilli
  • tetrads
A

Streptobacilli

302
Q

Which of the following substances is most specific to antimicrobial action?

  • Antibiotics
  • Antigens
  • Antibodies
  • Antiseptics
A

Antibodies

303
Q

A mutually advantageous symbiotic relationship between two organisms.

  • Commensalism
  • Antagonism
  • Mutualism
  • Parasitism
A

Mutualism

304
Q

What type of condition is produced by the application of an antiseptic?

  • Aseptic
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Bacteriocidal
  • Sterile
A

Bacteriostatic

305
Q

Which of these terms is synonymous with bacteriostatic?

  • Germicidial
  • Disinfected
  • Antiseptic
  • Bactericidal
A

Antiseptic

306
Q

Ultraviolet rays of sunlight

  • Are bactericidal
  • Are bacteriostatic
  • Are essential for bacterial reproduction
  • Are essential for bacterial metabolism
A

Bactericidal

307
Q

Congenital disease transmission occurs through:

  • The placenta
  • Broken skin
  • The conjunctiva
  • The respiratory tract
A

The Placenta

308
Q

Why are ultraviolet light rays lethal to bacteria?

  • They cause the ionization of the hydroxyl agents
  • They damage the DNA and RNA of the microbe
  • They cause the deamination of the protein
  • They cause the decarboxylation of the amino acids.
A

They Damage the DNA and RNA of the Microbe

309
Q

Another name for the disease “lockjaw” is:

  • Tularemia
  • Syphilis
  • Psittacosis
  • Tetanus
A

Tetanus

310
Q

Acne, boils, and pus formation on the skin is most commonly caused by:

  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Staphylococcus aureus

311
Q

What is the implication of sterilization?

  • The render an object free of all living organisms
  • The render an object free of all living pathogens
  • To prevent the reproduction of all living organisms on an object
  • To render an object free of all vegetative forms of living organisms
A

To Render an Object Free of All Living Organisms

312
Q

An inflammation of the middle ear caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

  • Otitis media
  • Ophthalmia neonatorum
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Meningococcemia
A

Otitis Media

313
Q

The entrance into a host by means of a deep puncture wound may cause:

  • Pneumonia
  • Tetanus
  • Gonorrhea
  • Septic sore throat
A

Tetanus

314
Q

A synonymous term for rabbit fever is:

  • Tularemia
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Tetanus
  • Lockjaw
A

Tularemia

315
Q

Which of the following is caused by a spirochete?

  • Tetanus
  • Syphilis
  • Gas gangrene
  • Tissue gas
A

Syphilis

316
Q

What organism causes the condition of lobar penumonia?

  • Neisseria gonorrheae
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Streptococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

MORS 200 (112 decks)

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