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Pathology I > P33 - Alimentary Part 2 > Flashcards

P33 - Alimentary Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

dental lamina proliferates into 3 embryonic structures

A
  • enamel organ
  • dental papilla
  • dental follicle
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2
Q

enamel organ gives rise to ____ which is produced by ____

A
  • enamel

- ameloblasts

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3
Q

dental pulp formed from _____ tissue enclosed by __-___ dental lamina

A
  • mesenchymal

- cup-shaped

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4
Q

dentin formed by _____ which continuously renew dentin matrix throughout life of tooth

A
  • odontoblasts
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5
Q

dental follicle gives rise to cells that produce

A
  • cementum (cementoblasts)
  • bony sockets (osteoblasts)
  • periodontal ligament (fibroblasts)
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6
Q

malocclusions are

A
  • congenital malformations of the mandible/maxilla

- failure of upper and lower incisors to oppose due to abnormal jaw conformation

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7
Q

malocclusions are common in what breeds

A
  • brachycephalic breeds
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8
Q

prognathism

A
  • protrusion of mandible (underbite)
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9
Q

brachygnathism

A
  • shortening of mandible (overbite)
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10
Q

malocclusions of teeth in rodents and rabbits may lead to

A
  • locked jaw

- ingrown teeth

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11
Q

tooth agenesis

A
  • tooth fails to develop
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12
Q

anodontia

A
  • no teeth
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13
Q

oligodontia

A
  • too few teeth
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14
Q

supernumerary tooth

A
  • extra tooth develops
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15
Q

polyodontia

A
  • too many teeth
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16
Q

dentigerous cyst

A
  • results from dental dysgenesis
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17
Q

viral infection of ameloblasts most commonly by

A
  • canine distemper virus
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18
Q

segmental enamel hypoplasia is a viral infection of

A
  • ameloblasts
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19
Q

segmental enamel hypoplasia infection must occur before

A
  • enamel formation is completed

- before 6 months of age

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20
Q

feline external resorptive neck lesions also known as

A
  • feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions
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21
Q

feline external resorptive neck lesions caused by

A
  • ondotoclastic resorption of cementum at neck area and root
  • reabsorb minerals from tooth
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22
Q

feline external resorptive neck lesions result in

A
  • external neck cavities (caries) -> secondarily harbor bacterial plaques that result in further decay and inflammation
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23
Q

periodontal disease is damage to

A
  • periodontal ligament
24
Q

dental plaques leads to

A
  • atrophy and inflammation of adjacent gingiva
25
Q

pathogenesis of periodontal disease

A
  • bacteria produced acids, enzymes and toxins that damage enamel substrate (cavities)
  • destroy adjacent gingiva (gingivitis) and periodontal ligament (periodontal disease) resulting in loosening of tooth and eventual loss
26
Q

periodontal disease has similar pathogenesis as

27
Q

infundibular impaction important disease of what species

28
Q

feed impacted into _____ ____ encourages bacterial growth

A
  • infundibular cups
29
Q

damage of infundibulum leads to exposure and infection of

A
  • pulp cavity -> infection leads to tooth root abscess and fistulous tracts that may rupture into paranasal sinuses (suppurative exudate)
30
Q

dental neoplasia (3)

A
  • peripheral odontogenic fibroma (POF)
  • ameloblastoma
  • odontoma
31
Q

peripheral odontogenic fibroma (POF) arises from

A
  • periodontal ligament and dental mesenchyme
32
Q

ameloblastoma arises from

A
  • structures of dental lamina
33
Q

ameloblastoma tumors tend to be

A
  • large tumors that are slowly invasive and locally destructive and osteolytic (lysis of bone)
34
Q

odontoma originate from

A
  • enamel organ
35
Q

common types of tonsillar neoplasia (2)

A
  • lymphosarcoma (bilateral)

- squamous cell carcinoma (unilateral)

36
Q

sialadenitis

A
  • inflammation of salivary gland

- rabies and distemper can cause

37
Q

ranula

A
  • salivary mucocele

- cystic saliva-filled distention of salivary duct

38
Q

actinobacillosis also known as

A
  • wooden tongue
39
Q

opportunistic invader of actinobacillus lignieresii causes

A
  • chronic granulomatous glossitis with fibrosis that leads to tongue enlargement and reduced lingual mobility
40
Q

candidiasis also known as

41
Q

candidiasis caused by

A
  • overgrowth of candida albicans
42
Q

candidiasis occurs secondarily to underlying

A
  • immunosuppressive condition
43
Q

uremic glossitis is tissue damage caused by 2 mechanisms

A
  • uremic vasculopathy (endothelial injury)

- uremic toxicity (ammonia)

44
Q

achalasia

A
  • congenital neurogenic disorder causing reduced esophageal motility
45
Q

achalasis occurs most often in what breeds

A
  • terriers
  • cocker spaniels
  • miniature poodles
46
Q

achalasis clinical signs (5)

A
  • dysphagia
  • gagging
  • choking
  • regurgitation
  • aspiration pneumonia
47
Q

megaesophagus

A
  • dilation of esophagus due to insufficient, absent or uncontrolled peristalsis
48
Q

megaesophagus recognized clinically by

A
  • regurgitation of solid food
49
Q

megaesohpagus may predispose to

A
  • aspiration pneumonia
50
Q

hiatal hernia is protrusion of

A
  • abdominal esophagus and cardia of stomach through diaphragm into thoracic cavity
51
Q

hiatal hernia may result in

A
  • intermittent regurgitation or gastroesophageal intussusception
52
Q

spirocerca lupi form ____ adjacent to esophagus

53
Q

equine idiopathic esophageal muscular hypertrophy effect on esophagus

A
  • thickened of distal esophageal smooth muscle
54
Q

chronic cases of acid reflux esophagitis can lead to

A
  • erosion
  • ulceration
  • mucosal hyperplasia
55
Q

acid reflux esophagitis may predispose to

A
  • esophageal squamous cell carcinoma

Pathology I (42 decks)

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