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A. Equine and Camelid Medicine and Surgery > Neurology Problem-Based Studies Part II > Flashcards

Neurology Problem-Based Studies Part II Flashcards

1
Q

what is the stride length like with general proprioceptive ataxia?

A

dysmetria
long stride length: no GP information, so onset of protraction of limb delayed

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2
Q

does the continuous or intermittent tail pull better assess weakness?

A

continuous tail pull

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3
Q

what is the walking tail pull response like with general proprioceptive deficits?

A

ataxic response

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4
Q

in what lesions would you see general proprioceptive deficits in all four limbs?

A

C1-5
C6-T2

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5
Q

what diseases are associated with focal spinal ataxia?

A

cervical vertebral malformation
trauma

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6
Q

is there a fever in cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy?

A

no

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7
Q

what minimum sagittal diameter is considered normal in thoroughbreds?

A

> 0.5

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8
Q

what view in contrast myelography is best for assessing static compression?

A

neutral position

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9
Q

what are the aims with intervertebral fusion?

A

dynamic: avoid further compression
static: atrophy of hypertrophied areas (remodeling and atrophy of articular processes)

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10
Q

what is equine protozoal myelitis caused by?

A

intracellular protozoa: Sarcocystis neurona, less commonly Neospora hughesi

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11
Q

is there a fever with equine protozoal myelitis?

A

not usually

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12
Q

what are the diagnostic testing options for equine protozoal myelitis?

A

PCR: tissue
western blot
IFAT (indirect fluorescent antibody test)
ELISAs: surface antigens

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13
Q

how is equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy transmitted?

A

respiratory
endogenous reactivation

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14
Q

what are the clinical signs with equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy?

A

ataxia
+/- fever, respiratory signs, abortion
bladder dysfunction
cranial nerve deficits, central depression, behavior changes possible
perineal sensory deficits

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15
Q

how can you diagnose equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy?

A

nasal, blood, CSF PCR

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16
Q

what is the average survival for rabies in horses?

A

5 days
most dead by 10 days

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16
Q

when is the peak prevalence of west nile virus?

A

september and october
fall

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17
Q

what percentage of horses with west nile virus show a fever?

A

25%

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18
Q

how is west nile virus diagnosed?

A

IgM for acute infection: ELISA
post mortem PCR or IHC on CNS tissue

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19
Q

what is the mortality of west nile virus?

A

20-40%

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20
Q

what does neural invasion in eastern equine encephalitis occur secondary to?

A

likely to vascular infection or invasion through olfactory epithelium

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21
Q

how can you manage eastern equine encephalitis?

A

vaccination with killed equine vaccine
mosquito control
not stable in environment

22
Q

what are the common clinical signs with Anaplasma phagocytophila?

A

fever
anorexia
icterus
edema
petechiae

23
Q

how can you treat Anaplasma phagocytophila?

A

tetracycline
minocycline
doxycycline

24
Q

what is lyme disease caused by?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

25
Q

how can you treat Borrelia?

A

minocycline or doxycycline
ceftiofur
steroids

26
Q

what happens in equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy?

A

diffuse non-compressive spinal cord disease
degeneration of neurons in white matter of spinal cord

27
Q

what vitamin plays a significant roll in equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy?

A

deficiencies in vitamin E

28
Q

what is the common stride length with GP deficits?

A

long

29
Q

what causes diffuse spinal ataxia?

A

EDM

30
Q

what causes multifocal spinal ataxia?

A

EPM
viral encephalitis
tick-borne

31
Q

what are the two types of cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy?

A

developmental disease in young horses
spinal cord compression due to osteoarthritic enlargement of articular processes in older horses

32
Q

how is minimum sagittal diameter determined?

A

smallest diameter of cranial aspect of cervical canal
divided by
widest diameter of cranial aspect of vertebral body of same vertebra

33
Q

how can you manage cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy in a youngster?

A

can try dietary management
moderate to severe calorie restriction

34
Q

what is the definitive host of Sarcocystis neurona?

A

opossum

35
Q

what is the best test for equine protozoal myelitis?

A

ELISA of IgG response to unique surface antigens
serum:CSF titer ratio

36
Q

what can you use to treat equine protozoal myelitis?

A

marguis/ponazuril
protazil/diclazuril
rebalance

37
Q

what is the pathogenesis of equine herpesvirus-1?

A

multifocal vasculitis with ischemia
direct viral infection of vascular endothelial cells

38
Q

has vaccination been shown to prevent the neurologic form of equine herpesvirus-1?

A

no

39
Q

what are the classic form of rabies?

A

dumb: progressive depression
furious: progressive aggression

40
Q

what can be seen in CSF with rabies?

A

increased protein and lymphocyes
may be normal

41
Q

is west nile virus spread horse to horse?

A

no- viremia is too low

42
Q

are there pathognomonic signs that distinguish west nile virus from other CNS diseases?

A

no

43
Q

if a horse with west nile virus significantly improves within __________, then full recovery is expected within 1-6 months in 90%

A

3-7

44
Q

is there a vaccine available for west nile virus?

A

yes, safe

45
Q

what is the most important amplifier of virus activity in VEE?

A

horses

46
Q

when does encephalitis occur with EEE?

A

after neuronal or hematogenous spread

47
Q

what can be seen in CSF with EEE?

A

neutrophilia in acute stages

48
Q

what fraction of horses that survive EEE have residual neurologic deficits?

A

2/3

49
Q

how stable is EEE in the environment?

A

not stable

50
Q

how can you diagnose Anaplasma phagocytophila?

A

PCR
inclusion bodies: 10-18 days post infection

51
Q

what can be seen in horses with lyme?

A

ataxia, paresis, weight loss
neck stiffness, behavior
cranial or peripheral neuropathies
concurrent conjunctivitis and uveitis, fever

52
Q

what are the clinical signs with equine degenerativee myeloencephalopathy?

A

age <2years
acute or slowly progressive symmetric proprioceptive ataxia
all limbs
no fever

A. Equine and Camelid Medicine and Surgery (56 decks)

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