Equine Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

what types of murmurs are common in horses?

A

soft systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how many heart sounds are normal to hear in a horse?

A

two
three
four
split S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how are cardiac murmurs described?

A

timing
intensity- grade
point of maximum intensity
quality/pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the causes of diastolic murmurs?

A

aortic insufficiency- common
pulmonic insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what can cause a regurgitant quality systolic murmur?

A

mitral regurgitation
tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the options for quality/pitch of a murmur?

A

musical
harsh/soft
squeak
shape- crescendo/decrescendo, band/plateau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what diagnostic procedures can be done for a cardiac murmur?

A

ECG
echocardiography
biomarkers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is electrocardiography useful for in horses?

A

rate and rhythm only
base apex lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is holter ECG useful for?

A

intermittent arrhythmia
monitoring of clinically relevant arrhythmia during treatment
monitoring at-risk patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what heart rate is expected in a horse at a walk?

A

50-80 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what heart rate is expected in a horse at a trot?

A

80-120 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the best non-invasive technique of looking at the heart in real time?

A

echocardiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some indications for an echo?

A

pre-purchase exam
evaluation of murmurs or arrhythmia
unexplained poor performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does elevated cardiac troponin-I indicate?

A

myocardial injury
ruptured aortic jet lesion
sepsis
endurance racing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is there an association between presence of a murmur and racing performance?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what with a “functional” murmur would indicate an echo should be performed?

A

getting louder over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what left-sided systolic or aortic murmurs should you recommend an echo for?

A

grade III-VI/VI

18
Q

what is normal heart rate in a horse?

A

23-44

19
Q

what are the causes of ejection quality systolic murmurs?

A

innocent/functional- common
fever
anemia
ventricular septal defect
aortic stenosis- rare
pulmonic stenosis- rare

20
Q

what is the heart rate for cantering and galloping?

A

canter: 120-150
gallop: 150-200

21
Q

what should you look at with echocardiography?

A

measure chamber size and wall thickness
valve motion
direction, velocity, turbulence of blood flow
systolic and diastolic function

22
Q

when might you see a globoid heart with radiographs?

A

pericarditis/pericardial effusion

23
Q

when should an echo be performed?

A

previously diagnosed functional murmur louder over time
grade >III/VI left sided systolic or aortic murmur
grade >IV/VI right sided systolic murmur
suspected congenital heart lesion
continuous or combined systolic-diastolic murmur
clinically important arrhythmia
suspected myocardial injury
suspicion of congestive heart failure

24
Q

what does atrial fibrillation require?

A

a trigger to start and substrate to maintain it

25
Q

what is paroxysmal atrial fibrillation?

A

resolves spontaneously- usually race horses, resolved by 24 hours

26
Q

when does the loss of atrial contribution in atrial fibrillation become more important?

A

during exercise or with underlying heart disease: heart rate increased

27
Q

does atrial fibrillation shorten the lifespan of most horses with it?

A

no

28
Q

when are horses not suitable to be ridden?

A

cannot achieve performance
maximal heart rate exceeds 220
ventricular ectopy seen with exercise

29
Q

when should you treat atrial fibrillation?

A

persists >48 hours
normal heart rate
no other heart disease or electrolyte abnormalities

30
Q

when should you not treat atrial fibrillation?

A

secondary to underlying heart disease
left atrial diameter enlarged
resting tachycardia

31
Q

how can you convert atrial fibrillation?

A

quinidine sulfate
transvenous electrical cardioversion

32
Q

does quinidine sulfate or transvenous electrical cardioversion have a better conversion rate for atrial fibrillation?

A

transvenous electrical cardioversion is better with longer-standing atrial fibrillation

33
Q

what is the success rate of converting atrial fibrillation?

A

65-90%
better if less than a month, less likely if more than 3 months

34
Q

what can cause acute onset loud murmur?

A

bacterial endocarditis
ruptured chordae tendinae
ruptured sinus of valsalva
previous murmur that was quiet and missed becomes louder

35
Q

what does aortic regurgitation present as?

A

diastolic “musical” murmur
water hammer pulse
very common older horses

36
Q

what is a good indicator of severity of aortic regurgitation?

A

arterial pulse quality: bounding
intensity of murmur is not

37
Q

what is the prognosis of aortic regurgitation?

A

older horse with mild: excellent
young horse with severe: poor

38
Q

what is the prognosis of ruptured chordae tendinae or sinus of valsalva?

A

grave

39
Q

how can you treat ventricular tachycardia?

A

lidocaine
magnesium sulfate
treat underlying disease

40
Q

what are the most common sites of endocarditis in horses?

A

aortic and mitral valves

41
Q

what is the prognosis of endocarditis?

A

poor to guarded for both survival and performance

42
Q

what is the most common congenital heart lesion in horses?

A

ventricular septal defect