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Brain Anatomy > NEUR532 Quiz exam prep > Flashcards

NEUR532 Quiz exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

A neuroscientist is investigating how different neural circuits in the brain analyze sensory information, form perceptions of the external world, make decisions, and execute movements. At what level of analysis is this research conducted? Choose the correct option.
Select one:

A.
Molecular neuroscience level

B.
Cellular neuroscience level

C.
Systems neuroscience level

D.
Cognitive neuroscience level

A

C.
Systems neuroscience level

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2
Q

At which level of analysis do neuroscientists study the different types of neurons and their functions? Choose the correct option.
Select one:

A.
Cellular neuroscience

B.
Cognitive neuroscience

C.
Molecular neuroscience

D.
Behavioral neuroscience

A

A.
Cellular neuroscience

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3
Q

On what basis did Broca defend functional localization of the brain? Choose the correct option.
Select one:

A.
By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the right frontal lobe

B.
By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the occipital lobe

C.
By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the left frontal lobe

D.
By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the cerebellum

A

C.
By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the left frontal lobe

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4
Q

In the above diagram of the primary vesicles of the brain, the structure labelled c corresponds to the:

Select one:

A.
prosencephalon

B.
rhombencephalon

C.
diencephalon

D.
mesencephalon

E.
myelencephalon

A

B.
rhombencephalon

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5
Q

From which layer of the embryo does the nervous system develop?

Select one:

A.
ectoderm

B.
mesoderm

C.
endoderm

D.
the nervous system develops from tissue found outside the embryo

E.
the CNS and the PNS develop from different layers of the embryo

A

A.
ectoderm

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6
Q

During brain development, which major brain structure is formed from the rhombic lips?

Select one:

A.
pons

B.
cerebellum

C.
midbrain tectum

D.
medulla oblongata

E.
cerebrum

A

B.
cerebellum

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7
Q

The “neuron doctrine” of Cajal states that:

Select one:

A.
neurons are the only cells worthy of study

B.
all the cells in the brain are neurons

C.
neurons in the CNS are all connected together to form a syncytium

D.
the neuron is the functional unit of the nervous system

E.
neurons are the only excitable cells in the body

A

D.
the neuron is the functional unit of the nervous system

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8
Q

Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells differ in that:

Select one:

A.
oligodendrocytes are myelinating glia, whereas Schwann cells are microglia

B.
one oligodendrocyte will surround only a single axon, whereas each Schwann cell is associated with several axons

C.
oligodendrocytes are found in the central nervous system, whereas Schwann cells are found in the peripheral nervous system

D.
oligodendrocytes form nodes of Ranvier, while Schwann cells do not

E.
oligodendrocytes can divide, but Schwann cells cannot

A

C.
oligodendrocytes are found in the central nervous system, whereas Schwann cells are found in the peripheral nervous system

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9
Q

Fast axoplasmic transport:

Select one:

A.
depends on passive diffusion of substances along the axon from the cell body

B.
occurs only in the anterograde direction

C.
occurs only in the retrograde direction

D.
depends on motor proteins moving along microtubules

E.
carries substances along the axon at a maximum speed of 1 mm per day

A

D.
depends on motor proteins moving along microtubules

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10
Q

When used to stain a sample of CNS tissue, the Golgi stain:

Select one:

A.
stains only the rough endoplasmic reticulum of neurons

B.
stains all neurons completely

C.
stains a small proportion of neurons completely

D.
stains the myelin sheaths of axons only

E.
does not stain neuroglial cells

A

C.
stains a small proportion of neurons completely

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11
Q

Concerning cutaneous plexuses, which of the following is correctly matched?

Select one:

a.
The Subcutaneous plexus lies within the densely collagenous reticular layer

b.
The Papillary plexus lies immediately beneath the epidermis

c.
Dermal plexus lies in the loose connective tissue deep to the skin

d.
No answers are correct

A

b.
The Papillary plexus lies immediately beneath the epidermis

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12
Q

Neuromuscular spindles have the following characteristics except:
Select one:

a.
They are about 6 mm long, and less than 1 mm in width

b.
They may contain up to 14 intrafusal muscle fibres

c.
They are innervated by sensory neurons only

d.
They function as a receptor for stretch reflex

A

c.
They are innervated by sensory neurons only

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13
Q

The following are examples of Free nerve endings in the subcutaneous tissue and dermis except:
Select one:

a.
Peritrichial ending

b.
Merkel endings

c.
Meissner s tactile corpuscle

d.
Plexuses

A

c.
Meissner s tactile corpuscle

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14
Q

The image shown is that of a:

Select one:

a.
Peritrichial ending

b.
Merkel ending

c.
Meissner s corpuscle

d.
Ruffini ending

A

d.
Ruffini ending

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15
Q

Which of the following concerning general sensory endings is correct?
Select one:

a.
Sensory endings are special structures, which act as biological transducers, in which chemical and or physical stimuli produce action potentials in nerve endings.

b.
The three types of sensory endings are Exteroceptive endings, Medioceptive endings and proprioceptive endings.

c.
Interioceptive endings are internally located in muscles, tendons and joints where they provide data for reflex adjustment.

d.
Propioceptive endings are superficially located.

A

a.
Sensory endings are special structures, which act as biological transducers, in which chemical and or physical stimuli produce action potentials in nerve endings.

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16
Q

Concerning the Medulla Oblongata, which of the following is not TRUE?
Select one:

a.
The medulla oblongata is about 9 cm long and it widens gradually in a caudal direction.

b.
It rests on the midline part of the occipital bone and is covered dorsally by the cerebellum.

c.
The rostral limit of the medulla is marked ventrally by a prominent sulcus

d.
The dorsal surface contains the caudal half of the fourth ventricle (also known as the open part)

e.
The caudal part of the medulla is called the closed part (this contains a continuation of the central canal of the spinal cord)

A

a.
The medulla oblongata is about 9 cm long and it widens gradually in a caudal direction.

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17
Q

Concerning the white matter, which of the following is incorrect?

Select one:

a.
The dorsal funiculus (posterior column) is bounded by the midline and the dorsal gray horn.

b.
The posterior column consists of a centrally placed cuneate fasciculus.

c.
There is no anatomical demarcation between the Lateral and ventral funiculi.

d.
It consists of partially overlapping bundles of fibres

A

b.
The posterior column consists of a centrally placed cuneate fasciculus.

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18
Q

The categories of neurons/nuclei in the spinal gray matter include the following except?
Select one:

a.
Motor cells of the ventral horn

b.
The cell bodies of tract cells, whose axons constitute the ascending fasciculi of the white matter (located mainly in the dorsal horn).

c.
Interneurons (even though many of them have quite long axons)

d.
Nuclei of the Cranial Nerves

A

d.
Nuclei of the Cranial Nerves

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19
Q

Which hole provides the principal communication between the ventricular system and the subarachnoid space?
Select one:

a.
Central canal

b.
Foramen of Luschka

c.
Foramen of Magendie

d.
Spinal canal

A

c.
Foramen of Magendie

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20
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic description of the medial division of dorsal root fibres?
Select one:

a.
They consist of unmyelinated axons, including the rapidly conducting sensory fibres.

b.
They enter the spinal white matter medial to the dorsal horn where they divide into ascending and descending branches.

c.
The descending branches run caudally within the dorsal funiculi for varying distances and eventually terminate in the dorsal horn.

d.
Many of the ascending sensory fibres in the dorsal funiculus terminate in the gracile and cuneate nuclei in the medulla.

e.
Primary sensory axons conveying signals from muscle spindles have some branches that terminate on motor neurons and are involved in the stretch reflex.

A

a.
They consist of unmyelinated axons, including the rapidly conducting sensory fibres.

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21
Q

Cerebellar cortex ridges are called:
Select one:

a.
Tonsils

b.
Folia

c.
Vermis

d.
Lobes

A

b.
Folia

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22
Q

The major output of the cerebellar cortex to the deep cerebellar nuclei arise from the:
Select one:

a.
Basket cells

b.
Purkinje cells

c.
Granule cells

d.
Golgi cells

A

b.
Purkinje cells

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23
Q

What is the role of neurons in the deep cerebellar nuclei? Choose the correct option.
Select one:

a.
Relay information from cortex to the cerebellum

b.
Relay information from the cerebellum to various brain stem structures

c.
Relay sensory information to the cerebellum

d.
Relay motor information to the cerebellum

A

b.
Relay information from the cerebellum to various brain stem structures

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24
Q

Which of the following is (are) not a major part of the cerebellum?
Select one:

a.
Tegmentum

b.
Flocculonodular lobe

c.
Vermis

d.
Lateral hemispheres

A

a.
Tegmentum

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25
Q

Which of the following structures are included in the motor loop through the cerebellum? Choose the correct option.
Select one:

a.
Sensory input through pontine nuclei to cerebellum to motor cortex through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

b.
Sensory input through the rubrospinal tract and cerebellar output through the pontine nuclei

c.
Sensory input through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus and motor output through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

d.
Sensory input through the vestibulospinal tract and motor output through the rubrospinal tract

A

a.
Sensory input through pontine nuclei to cerebellum to motor cortex through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

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26
Q

Concerning the nuclei of the reticular formation, which of the following nuclei are not a member?

Select one:

a.
The precerebellar nuclei and the lateral parvocellular reticular area

b.
The raphe nulei and central group of nuclei

c.
The cholinergic and catecholinergic cell groups

d.
Nucleus tractus solitarus and Red nucleus

A

d.
Nucleus tractus solitarus and Red nucleus

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27
Q

Which of the following groups of neurons/nuclei of the reticular formation is not primarily involved in consciousness and sleep?
Select one:

a.
Noradrenergic neurons

b.
The central group of reticular nuclei

c.
Superficial medullary neurons

d.
Cholinergic neurons

A

c.
Superficial medullary neurons

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28
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic description of the raphe nuclei?
Select one:

a.
They are groups of neurons either in or adjacent to the midline of the brain stem

b.
Raphe nuclei have cells with different architecture

c.
Many raphe neurons synthesize and secrete serotonin (5-hydroxytryp-tamine) as their principal synaptic transmitter.

d.
The axons of the serotonergic raphe neurons are thick, myelinated, and unbranched.

A

d.
The axons of the serotonergic raphe neurons are thick, myelinated, and unbranched.

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29
Q

Which of the following is correctly matched?
Select one:

a.
Thalamus/ Neurohypophysis

b.
Subthalamus/ Reticular Nucleus

c.
Epithalamus/ Pineal gland

d.
Hypothalamus/ Sensory fasciculi

A

c.
Epithalamus/ Pineal gland

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30
Q

What does the prosencephalon create?

A
  • Telencephalon
  • Diencephalon
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31
Q

What does the rhombencephalon create?

A
  • Metencephalon
  • myelincephalon
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32
Q

What sensory nerve is this?

A

Free nerve ending

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33
Q

What side are sensory neurons in the spinal cord usually associted with?

A

as the dorsal (posterior) regions

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34
Q

What side of the spinal cord are motor pathways usually associated with?

A

ventral (anterior) regions of the spinal cord

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35
Q

What are the 9 sensory tracts in the spinal cord?

A
  • Dorsal Root Ganglia
  • gracile fasciculus
  • cuneate fasciculus
  • Lateral and anterior Spinothalamic Tract
  • Dorsal Spinocerebellar Tract
  • Ventral Spinocerebellar Tract
  • Spinoolivary-fibres
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36
Q

What are the 7 MOTOR nuclei in the spinal cord?

A
  • Reticulospinal tracts (lateral medial)
  • Corticospinal tracts anterior and lateral (PYRAMIDAL TRACTS)
  • Olivospinal tracts
  • Vestibulospinal tracts
  • Tectospinal tracts
  • Rubrospinal tracts
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37
Q

what is the dentate gyrus associated with?

A
  • Memory
  • Neurogenesis
  • Spatial navigation
  • Learning
  • Mossy fibres
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38
Q

What is this image A part of?

A

Subiculum

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39
Q

Referring to the figure above, the fibres identified in A are:

A

the schaffer collaterals

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40
Q

Which is NOT one of the three recognised layers of the dentate gyrus?

Select one:

a.
Hilus

b.
Mossy fibres

c.
Granule cell layer

d.
Polymorphic layer

A

d.
Polymorphic layer

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41
Q

Which region of the hippocampus is adjacent to the subiculum?
Select one:

a.
CA2

b.
CA1

c.
dendate gyrus

d.
CA3

A

b.
CA1

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42
Q

In the spinal cord, the zone which contains both myelinated and unmyelinated fibers represents the:

Select one:

a.
Fasciculus Proprius

b.
Lateral corticospinal tract

c.
Reticulospinal tract

d.
White matter of the dorsal horn

A

a.
Fasciculus Proprius

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43
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the regional differences of the spinal cord is true?
Select one:

a.
There is decreased volume in the gray matter due to limb enlargements.

b.
The lateral horn of gray matter is characteristic of the thoracic and upper lumbar segments.

A

a.
There is decreased volume in the gray matter due to limb enlargements.

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44
Q

Damage to area V4 would most likely result in:
Select one:

a.
peripheral vision deficit

b.
total vision deficit

c.
motion perception deficit

d.
colour perception deficit

A

d.
colour perception deficit

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45
Q

If the magnocellular layers of a monkey’s LGN were bilaterally inactivated then we might expect:
Select one:

a.
The monkey would lose normal colour vision

b.
The ventral processing stream would be affected much more than the dorsal processing stream

c.
The monkey would be unable to detect motion

d.
The monkey would be unable to distinguish the shapes of objects

A

c.
The monkey would be unable to detect motion

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46
Q

What does the lateral geniculate nucleus LGN primarily do?

A

part of the visual pathway and receives input from the optic tract and transmits to the primary visual cortex

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47
Q

Efferent fibres of the dentate gyrus form the:

Select one:

a.
Perforant pathway

b.
Schaffer collaterals

c.
Mossy fibres

d.
Fornix

A

c.
Mossy fibres

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48
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gap junctions is INCORRECT?

Select one:

a.
Gap junctions consist of clusters of channels; each channel is comprised of two hexameric hemichannels

b.
Gap junctions are membrane channels that connect the cytoplasm with the extracellular fluid

c.
Gap junctions can coordinate and synchronize the electrical activity of the cells they inerconnect

d.
Gap junctions can pass net ionic current proportional to the voltage difference across the entire gap junction

e.
Gap junctions are permeable to most ions and small organic molecules

A

b.
Gap junctions are membrane channels that connect the cytoplasm with the extracellular fluid

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49
Q

Which of the following happens when a rod photoreceptor absorbs light?

Select one:

a.
The rod depolarizes because membrane Na+ channels open as a result of a decrease in the second messenger cGMP

b.
The rod hyperpolarizes because membrane K+ channels open as a result of a decrease in the second messenger cGMP

c.
The rod hyperpolarizes because membrane Na+ channels close as a result of a decrease in the second messenger cGMP

d.
The rod depolarizes because membrane K+ channels close as a result of an increase in the second messenger cGMP

e.
The rod releases glutamate due to the opening of membrane voltage gated Ca++ channels

A

c.
The rod hyperpolarizes because membrane Na+ channels close as a result of a decrease in the second messenger cGMP

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50
Q

What role do voltage-gated potassium channels play in the action potential? Choose the correct option.
Select one:

A.
Voltage-gated potassium channels maintain the resting membrane potential.

B.
Voltage-gated potassium channels help depolarize the membrane toward the threshold for an action potential.

C.
Voltage-gated potassium channels interfere with sodium conductance.

D.
Voltage-gated potassium channels restore negative membrane potential after the spike.

A

D.
Voltage-gated potassium channels restore negative membrane potential after the spike.

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51
Q

What does the sylvian fissure separate?

A

Temporal lobe from frontal lobe

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52
Q

What is this part of the brain?

A

Optic tracts

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53
Q

What are the name of these 2 ventral tracts in the medulla oblongata?

A

Gracile tubercle
(upper regions)

and lower regions
Gracile fasciculus

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54
Q

What area is this?

A

Olivary nuclei

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55
Q

What area is this?

A

pons

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56
Q

What area is this?

A

Basilar artery groove

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57
Q

What area is this?

A

Middle cerebellar peduncles

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58
Q

What area is this?

A

Cerebral peduncles

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59
Q

What area is this?

A

Substantia nigra

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60
Q

What area is this?

A

mamillary bodies
(posterior boundary of the hypothalamus)

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61
Q

What area is this?

A

Pituitary infundibulum
(anterior boundary of the hypothalamus)

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62
Q

Name 3 optic related areas in this image

A
  • Optic nerve
  • Optic chiasm
  • Optic tracts
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63
Q

What are these nerves?

A

Olfactory nerves, tracts and bulbs

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64
Q

What area is this

A

Medial aspect of temporal lobe
PARAHIPPOCAMPAL GYRI

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65
Q

What area is this?

A

Uncus
Deeply in the gyri you would find the amygdaloid nucleus

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66
Q

What direction are each arrows?

A

red: rostral
Pink: caudate

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67
Q

What is this fissure called? and what does it separate?

A

Sylvian fissure

Separates Temporal lobe from frontal lobe

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68
Q

What sulcus is this?

A

Central sulcus

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69
Q

What is this gyri?

A

Precentral gyrus
(primary MOTOR cortex)

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70
Q

What is this gyri?

A

post central gyrus
(primary SENSORY cortex)

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71
Q

What area is this?

A

Frontal cortex
(Bound by central sulcus and sylvian fissure)

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72
Q

What area is this?

A

Brocas (motor speech) area

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73
Q

What area is this?

A

Wernicke’s (auditory association) area

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74
Q

What is this sulcus called?

A

Calcarine sulcus

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75
Q

What area is this?

A

Primary visual cortex
(V1)
Striate cortex
Brodmann Area 17:

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76
Q

What area is this?

A

Visual association areas (18 and 19)

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77
Q

What is the name of this fissure?

A

LONGITUDINAL FISSURE

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78
Q

What type of view is this?

A

Saggital

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79
Q

What direction are the coloured arrows?

A
  • Pink: anterior (rostral)
  • Blue: dorsal (caudal)
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80
Q

What junction is this?

A

The pontomedullary junction

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81
Q

What area is this?

A

Cerebral pedunculi

82
Q

What are these areas called?

A

Folia of the cerebellum

83
Q

What area is this?

A

Cerebral aqueduct
(connects 3rd and 4th ventricles)

84
Q

What area is this? and what 2 areas does it comprise?

A

Tectum
comprises superior and inferior colliculi

85
Q

What area is this?

A

Tegmentum

86
Q

What are these 2 areas called?

A

Superior and inferior colliculus

87
Q

What area is this and what does the wall lining bind to?

A
  • Thalamus
  • 3rd ventricle
87
Q

What area is this and what does the wall lining bind to?

A
  • Thalamus
  • 3rd ventricle
88
Q

What area is this?

A

Mamillary body

89
Q

What area is this?

A

Hypothalamus

90
Q

What area is this?

A

Optic chiasm

91
Q

What area is this?

A

Anterior commissure

92
Q

What area is this?

A

Posterior commissure

93
Q

What area is this?

A

Pineal gland

94
Q

What area is this?

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

95
Q

What is this area?

A

Substantia nigra
(Dopamine)

96
Q

What area is this?

A

Substantia nigra pars reticulata
(basal ganglia)

97
Q

What area is this?

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta
(basal ganglia)

98
Q

What area of the midbrain is this?

A

Red nucleus
(involved in rubrospinal tract)

99
Q

What area is this?

A

Peri-aquaductal grey matter

100
Q

What area is this?

A

Peri-aqueduct

101
Q

What area is this?

A

Peri-aqueductal grey matter

102
Q

What area is this?

A

Body of fornix

103
Q

What area is this?

A

Corpus callosum

104
Q

What cells are primarily found in this region?

A

Ependymal cells
To produce and circulate CSF
Line ventricles and central canal

105
Q

Name these 4 areas of the corpus callosum

A
  1. Rostrum
  2. Genu
  3. Body
  4. Splenium
106
Q

What directions are the arrows?

A
  • Blue: anterior
  • Purple: dorsal
107
Q

What area is this?

A

Cingulate gyrus

108
Q

What area is this?

A

Cingulate gyrus

109
Q

What sulcus is this?

A

Calcarine sulcus

110
Q

What sulcus is this?

A

Calcarine sulcus

111
Q

What area is this?

A

Primary visual cortex
Area 17
Striate cortex

112
Q

What area is this? Inside the lateral ventricle

A

Body of fornix

113
Q

What area is this?

A

Head of the caudate nucleus

114
Q

What area is this?

A

Tail of the caudate nucleus

115
Q

What area is this?

A

Intraventricular foramen

116
Q

What area is this?

A

The cingulum

117
Q

What area is this?

A

Head of the caudate nucleus

118
Q

What area is this?

A

Caudate nucleus
(basal ganglia)

119
Q

What is this fluffy substance?

A

Choroid plexus
(produced CSF)

120
Q

What is this structure?

A

Thalamus

121
Q

What area is this?

A

Stria terminalis
(runs between thalamus and the body of caudate)

122
Q

What brain hemisphere is this?

A

Left hemisphere

123
Q

What area is this?

A

Insula lobe (5th lobe)

124
Q

What fissure is this?

A

Sylvian fissure

125
Q

What gyrus is this?

A

Superior temporal gyrus

126
Q

What cortex is this?

A

Insula cortex

127
Q

What is this structure?

A

Lentiform nucleus

128
Q

What structure is this?

A

Putamen
(basal ganglia)

129
Q

What area is this inside the lentiform nucleus?

A

Globus Pallidus
(basal ganglia)

130
Q

What structure is circled? and what does it connect?

A

Nucleus accumbens
Connects the caudate nucleus and putamen

131
Q

What structure is this?

A

Insula cortex

132
Q

What is the blue and purple structures circled?

A

Blue: putamen
Pink: Internal Capsule

133
Q

What is this structure?

A

The parahippocampal gyrus

134
Q

What is this structure? (with brain stem removed)

A

The parahippocampal gyrus

134
Q

What is this structural parahippocampal fold? (with brain stem removed)

A

Uncus
++ Deep within the uncus is the amygdaloid nuclei
Encircles the midbrain

134
Q

What is this structure that feeds into the parahippocampal gyrus? (with brain stem removed)

A

entorhinal cortex

135
Q

What structure is this?

A

Dentate gyrus
(core of the hippocampus)

136
Q

What structure is this?

A

Uncus

137
Q

What is this frill-like structure? (formed by the alveus thin layer of white matter and covers the hippocampal formation)

A

Frimbria

138
Q

What structure is this?

A

Hippocampal formation

139
Q

What is found deep within the uncus?

A

Amygdaloid nucleus

140
Q

What is this structure?

A

Body of fornix

141
Q

What is this structure?

A

Uncus

142
Q

What area is this?

A

Crus of the fornix

143
Q

What is the ponto-reticulospinal tract primarily involved in regulating?

A

Innovate Extensor muscles

144
Q

Where are cortical interneurons found?

A

Cerebral cortex

145
Q

What do cortical interneurons do?

A

shaping cortical circuits.

  • balance of excitation and inhibition
  • timing, synchronization, and information processing
  • sensory perception, motor control, learning, memory, and cognition.
146
Q

What is the primary cortical interneuron?

A

Pyramidal cells/neurons

147
Q

What motor neurons does the reticulospinal tract innervate in spinal cord (efferent)?

A

Gamma motor neurons
Alpha motor neurons

148
Q

What do alpha motor neurons do?

A
  1. directly activate muscle fibers
  2. generate the force necessary for muscle contraction
  3. voluntary movements and reflexes.
  4. large, fast-contracting extrafusal muscle fibers,
149
Q

What do gamma motor neurons do?

A

1 - innervate intrafusal muscle fibers,

2 - detect changes in muscle proprioception

3 - innervate smaller, slower-contracting intrafusal muscle fibers,

150
Q

What is 206?

A

Internal capsule

151
Q

What does the internal capsule do?

A

motor and sensory information, connecting the cerebral cortex with the spinal cord, brainstem

152
Q

what is a key neurobiological/anatomical feature of huntingtons disease?

A

Striatum degeneration

153
Q

Is the striatum part of the basal ganglia? y/n?

A

YES

154
Q

What is the key function of basal ganglia?

A

movement control and coordination.

155
Q

What is 190 ?

A

Hippocampus

156
Q

What is the hippocampus main function?

A
  1. formation and consolidation of new memories.
  2. spatial navigation and the formation of cognitive maps.
  3. retrieval of memories from long-term storage.
  4. learning and memory processes, including declarative memory (memory for facts and events).
  5. Damage to the hippocampus can result in memory impairments, particularly in the formation of new memories
  6. regulation of emotions
  7. modulation of stress responses
  8. neuroplasticity
  9. Dysfunction associated with psychiatric disorders, such as Alzheimer’s disease, epilepsy, and depression.
157
Q

What is 188?

A

Caudate nucleus

158
Q

What is 191?

A

choroid plexus

159
Q

What is circled?

A

Fornix

160
Q

What is 145?

A

Corpus callosum
(made from commissure fibres e.g. mylinated axons)

161
Q

What’s 146?

A

septum pellucidum
(lateral ventricle underneath)

162
Q

148

A

Fornix

163
Q

154

A

Intermediate mass or interthalamic adhesion

164
Q

circled

A

pineal gland

165
Q

170

A

optic chiasm

166
Q

circled?

A

Infundibulum

167
Q

What is the stick pointing to?

A

Mammillary bodies

168
Q

`circled

A

Midbrain
Mesencephalon

169
Q

Circled - scientific name

A

Metencephalon
(pons)

170
Q

What is the scientific name for medulla oblongata?

A

Mylencephalon

171
Q

Where is the 3rd ventricle located?

A

On the diencephalon

172
Q

Line

A

Cerebral aqueduct

173
Q

circled

A

4th ventricle

174
Q

Line

A

Central canal

175
Q

Circled

A

Superior colliculi
(head response to visual stimuli)

176
Q

`circled

A

Inferior colliculi
(head response to auditory stimuli)

177
Q

182

A

Cerebral peduncles
(midbrain)

178
Q

183

A

Descending motor fibres
Pyramidal decussation
Top (gracalis tubercle)
bottom (gracalis fasciculus)

179
Q

184 and 179

A

Superior and inferior olivary nuclei

180
Q

White matter tree of life tracts in the cerebellum are called what?

A

arbor vitae - translates to tree. oflife

181
Q

what does the middle cerebellar peduncle join to?

A

pons

182
Q

what does the Superior Cerebellar Peduncle join to?

A

Midbrain

183
Q

Inferior Cerebellar Peduncle joins to?

A

Medulla oblongata and spinal cord

184
Q

Lines of the cerebellar are called?

A

Folia

185
Q

Line structure inside cerebellum?

A

Vermis

186
Q

Stick is pointing to what?

A

CNIII - oculomotor nerve

187
Q

Cirlced white thing is?

A

Trochlear nerve CN IV

188
Q

Circled?

A

Trigeminal nerve V
larger - sensory
small - motor

189
Q

Circled?

A

CN VI
Abducens

190
Q

Circled

A

Facial nerve
CN VII

191
Q

Circled

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve
CN VIII

192
Q

Circled

A

CN IX
Glossopharyngeal

193
Q

Circled

A

CN X
Cranial nerve

194
Q

Circled

A

CN XI
Accessory nerve

195
Q

Circled

A

Hypoglossal nerve

196
Q

Where does the dentate gyrus recieve neuronal inputs?

A
  • entorhinal cortex
  • To CA3 region
197
Q

what part of the temporal lobe is the entorhinal cortex?

A

medial temporal lobe
Next to parahippocampus

198
Q

What is the key gateway to the parahippocampus?

A

Entorhinal cortex

Brain Anatomy (59 decks)

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