Lecture 64 - Bacteriology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

enterobacterales general characteristics

A
  • gram - rods
  • facultative anaerobes
  • opportunistic or primary
  • GI, soil, water
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2
Q

T/F: enterobacterales can survive and reproduce in both aerobic and anaerobic environments

A

TRUE

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3
Q

what bacteria can ferment lactose

A
  1. E. coli
  2. Klebsiella
  3. enterobacter
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4
Q

habitat of escherichia

A
  • lower GI tract, soil, water
  • non-pathogenic, commensal
  • host-dependent
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5
Q

E. coli O-antigen

A

LPS, heat stable

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6
Q

E. coli H-antigen

A

Flagella, protein, heat labile

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7
Q

E. coli K-antigen

A

capsule, carbohydrate or protein made

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8
Q

E.coli F-antigen

A

pilus or fimbrial

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9
Q

what is E. coli pathogenesis

A
  1. attachment to host cells
  2. invasiveness/biofilm
  3. toxin production
  4. endotoxin
  5. siderophores
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10
Q

what is the most common cause of canine pyometra

A

e. coli

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11
Q

how is E. coli caused UTI diagnosed

A
  1. aerobic culture
  2. susceptibility/PCR
  3. urinalysis
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12
Q

if UTI is recurrent, what follow-up diagnostics should be done

A
  1. clinical hx, rx
  2. abdominal ultrasound/rads
  3. bloodwork
  4. contrast radiography
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13
Q

E. coli UTI prevention strategies

A
  1. increase water intake
  2. frequent urination
  3. cranberry and d-mannose supplements
  4. probiotics
  5. regular monitoring
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14
Q

Klebsiella characteristics

A
  • gram-negative rods
  • facultative anaerobe
  • lactose fermenter
  • abundant capsular material (mucoid)
  • opportunistic
  • sawdust
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15
Q

what virulence factors does Klebsiella have

A
  1. capsule
  2. endotoxin
  3. adhesins
  4. siderophores
  5. urease production
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16
Q

how does endotoxin act as a virulence factor

A

released when cell wall is damaged to interact with macrophages and create inflammation, DIC, hypotension

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17
Q

explain siderophores as a virulence mechanism

A

bacteria will siphon iron from the host to use for growth

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18
Q

what does Klebsiella cause clinically

A
  1. equine metritis
  2. bovine coliform matitis
  3. navel ill/joint ill
  4. neonatal septicemia
  5. wound infections
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19
Q

T/F: Klebsiella is an important cause of resistant health-care associated infections

A

TRUE

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20
Q

proteus characteristics

A
  • gram-negative rod
  • facultative anaerobe
  • non-lactose fermenter
  • motile (swarming)
  • soil, water, GI tract
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21
Q

what virulence factors do proteus have

A
  1. urease
  2. endotoxin
  3. fimbriae
  4. hemolysin
  5. siderophores
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22
Q

urease activity can cause

A

struvite stones and high urine pH

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23
Q

cystitis or pyelonephritis is commonly caused by

A

proteus infections

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24
Q

what type of resistance is common to proteus

A

plasmid-associated antibiotic resistance to tetracycline

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25
Q

streptococcus spp. characteristics

A
  • gram-positive
  • cocci
  • facultative anaerobes
  • non-motile
  • commensal of mucous membranes
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26
Q

enterococcus characteristics

A
  • previously classified as streptococcus (group D) but tolerates bile salts and some are motile
  • opportunistic at sites with fecal contamination
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27
Q

how is enterococcus observed on bacterial culture

A

small, grey colonies

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28
Q

T/F: intrinsic AMR due to horizontal gene transfer is common among Enterococcus spp.

A

TRUE

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29
Q

staphylococcus spp. characteristics

A
  • gram-positive
  • clusters
  • facultative anaerobes
  • non-motile
  • EXTRACELLULAR
  • commensal on skin
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30
Q

what are the predisposing factors for pyogenic bacteria

A
  1. catheterization
  2. immunosuppression
31
Q

describe staphylococcus clinically

A
  • cystitis, pyoderma, otitis
  • transient colonizer of normal skin
32
Q

what species does S. aureus affect

A

cattle and poultry primarily

33
Q

what species does S. pseudintermedius affect

A

dogs and cats

34
Q

what species does S. hyicus affect

35
Q

what gene should be tested for if staphylococcus is suspected

A

mecA gene for resistance

36
Q

T/F: veterinary professionals are more frequently colonized with MRSA than the general population

37
Q

Brucella characteristics

A
  • gram-negative
  • small cocci
  • INTRACELLULAR
  • aerobic
  • 2 chromosomes
38
Q

how is brucella transmitted

A
  1. venereal
  2. penetration through skin abrasion
  3. ingestion of contaminated fluids
  4. inhalation
  5. transplacentally
39
Q

if a brucella colony appears smooth on culture what can be inferred

A

pathogenic strain with LPS virulence

40
Q

T/F: smooth brucella colonies do not survive in host cells

41
Q

describe brucella pathogenesis

A
  1. bacteria engulfed by phagocytes
  2. persistence in macrophages because LPS binds lipid rafts
  3. outer membrane prevents phagolysosome fusion
  4. replication within phagosome
  5. transport to regional lymph nodes
  6. localizes in reproductive organs, joints, and IV discs
42
Q

what is a growth factor found in the placenta

A

erythritol

43
Q

what brucella spp. can infect more than their preferred host and cause severe disease

A
  1. B. abortus
  2. B. melitensis
  3. B. suis
44
Q

match the primary host of the brucella spp.

a. B. abortus
b. B. melitensis
c. B. suis
d. B. canis
e. B. ovis

  1. sheep
  2. pigs
  3. small ruminants
  4. dogs
  5. cattle
A

a = 5
b = 3
c = 2
d = 4
e = 1

45
Q

bovine brucellosis

A
  • reduced fertility and milk production
  • “abortion storms” in mid to late gestation
  • cows remain infected in LN and mammary gland
  • infection through ingestion
46
Q

ovine and caprine brucellosis

A
  • high abortion rate
  • orchitis
  • arthritis
47
Q

porcine brucellosis

A
  • rare in USA
  • prolonged bacteremia
  • chronic inflammatory lesions in repro tract, bones, and joints
  • abortion, stillbirth, temporary sterility
  • lameness
48
Q

Canine brucellosis

A
  • permanently in the rough form (low virulence and asymp infections)
  • abortion, decreased fertility, reduced litter size
49
Q

brucellosis in humans

A
  • contact through excretions or secretions of infected animals
  • “Undulant fever” = fluctuating pyrexia
  • fatigue, muscle/joint pain, osteomyelitis, hypersensitivity
50
Q

clinical signs of brucella

A
  1. abortions
  2. swelling and edema in scrotum
51
Q

diagnostic tests for identifying brucella organism

A
  1. modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain
  2. culture
  3. PCR
52
Q

diagnostic tests for identifying brucella antibody

A
  1. ELISA
  2. agar gel immunodiffusion
  3. serum agglutination
  4. complement fixation
53
Q

what are 2 specific tests for brucella

A
  1. rose-bengal plate test
  2. brucella milk ring test
54
Q

rose bengal plate test

A

screening test
antigen suspension added to allow for agglutination of antibodies

55
Q

brucella milk ring test

A

conducted in bulk milk

56
Q

brucella tx

A

long term antimicrobial therapy in dogs (tetra+fluoroquinolone for 4-6weeks)

detection and cull in food animals

57
Q

what are the 2 vaccine used in cattle

A
  1. S19 - female calves up to 5m/o
  2. RB51 - stable, rough mutant
58
Q

T/F: B. melitensis and B. suis have vaccines available

59
Q

how is brucella prevented

A
  • closed herds/groups
  • isolate and retest after 30 days
  • sanitation
  • spay/neuter
60
Q

campylobacter characteristics

A
  • gram-negative rod
  • curved
  • motile
  • microaerophilic
  • commensal GI and genital tracts
61
Q

what virulence factors does campylobacter have

A
  1. flagella
  2. adhesion and invasion
  3. toxin (CDT)
  4. endotoxin
62
Q

what limits campylobacter pathogenesis

A

complex nutritional requirements limit capacity for environmental growth

63
Q

what is the unique structural component of C. fetus

A

microcapsule (or “S” layer) allowing protection against bacteriophages, phagocytosis, lytic enzymes, and pH

64
Q

describe C. fetus subsp. venerealis

A
  • tropism for bovine host
  • survives in prepuce or infected semen
  • cows are asymptomatic
65
Q

describe ovine genital campylobacteriosis

A
  • C. fetus subsp. fetus or C. jejuni
  • GI tract
  • fecal-oral transmission
  • bacteremia, necrotic placentitis
66
Q

how is bovine campylobacteriosis diagnosed

A
  • hx
  • fluorescent antibody
  • culture
  • PCR (abomasal fluid)
  • ELISA
67
Q

how is ovine campylobacteriosis diagnosed

A
  • hepatic lesion
  • culture
68
Q

bovine are treated with ____ and ovine are treated with ____ for campylobacteriosis

A

dihydrostreptomycin; chlortetracycline

69
Q

chlamydia characteristics

A
  • gram-negative cocci/rod
  • cell wall with outer LPS but lacking peptidoglycan
  • aerobic, obligate INTRACELLULAR
  • cannot synthesize ATP
70
Q

describe chlamydia’s biphasic life cycle

A

Elementary (EB) is infectious but metabolically inactive whereas reticulate body is when the EB transforms into a larger metabolically active form

71
Q

summarize chlamydia pathogenesis

A
  1. EB bind to host cell using adhesions
  2. Ebs inject effector proteins into host cells using T3SS (uptake and prevent apoptosis)
  3. EBs transition to RBs and new effector proteins are synthesized
  4. RBs begin to divide causing the inclusion to expand
  5. RBs transition back to EBs
  6. new EBs released by lysis or extrusion
72
Q

C. abortus clinically

A

enzootic abortion of ewes (EAE) characterized by late-term abortion, stillbirth, and weak lambs

73
Q

T/F: C. abortus is zoonotic