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2 - Animal Health & Disease > Lecture 17 - Respiratory Bacteriology 2 > Flashcards

Lecture 17 - Respiratory Bacteriology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

describe the morphology of Bordetella

A

gram-negative, coccobacilli, strict aerobe, motile

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2
Q

T/F: bordetella is typically commensal until a phase change

A

TRUE

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3
Q

what is the virulence control system for bordetella

A

BvdAS gene

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4
Q

how does bordetella attach to host cells

A

Filamentous haemagglutinin acts as a protein for attachment to ciliated epithelial cells

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5
Q

describe the pathogenesis of bordetella in 5 steps

A
  1. environmental change (temp, resp. epithelial damage)
  2. activation of BvdAS locus
  3. FHA and toxin production
    4a. tissue death and immune modulation
    4b. ciliostasis and destruction of clearance
  4. respiratory tract inflammation
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6
Q

what are the predisposing factors for bordetella

A
  1. young animals
  2. primary or co- infection
  3. chemical fumes/smoke damage lungs
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7
Q

a swine farmer calls you regarding suckling pigs that have s+ and nasal discharge. Sows have malformations of the nose and decreased growth at adulthood

necropsy reveals turbinate atrophy and deviation of septum. what is the diagnosis?

A

atrophic rhinitis

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8
Q

what is atrophic rhinitis

A

co-infection between B. bronchiseptica and P. multocida type d

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9
Q

what is the effect of toxins produced by P. multocida

A

disruption of oncogenesis and stimulated bone resorption of nasal turbinates

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10
Q

what predisposes swine to atrophic rhinitis

A
  1. high dust environment
  2. poor ventilation
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11
Q

a client from south dakota brings you an unvaccinated dog from an Indian reserve. the dog has a fever, discharge, v+/d+/c+, and dyspnea which has progressed to neurologic signs.

the necropsy reveals interstitial pneumonia and exudate in airways. microscopy reveals neutrophils and viral inclusion bodies. what is the diagnosis

A

bordetella and canine distemper

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12
Q

T/F: canine infectious respiratory disease complex (CIRD)/kennel cough is generally self-limiting

A

TRUE

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13
Q

a 36 d/o turkey poult is submitted for postmortem exam after c+ and swollen sinuses.

tracheal collapse is present and cilia-associated bacteria are present on histopathology. what bacteria will be cultured?

A

bordetella bronchiseptica

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14
Q

describe the morphology of Moraxella

A

gram-negative rods, aerobic, non-motile

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15
Q

how does Moraxella adhere to the cornea

A

fimbriae

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16
Q

describe the action of RTX cytotoxin

A

lysis of corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils

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17
Q

T/F: avirulent strains of Moraxella lack either cytotoxins or fimbriae

A

TRUE

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18
Q

describe Moraxella

common name?
risk factor?
transmission?

A

common: “pink eye”, IBK

risk factor: animal <2 y/o

transmission: direct contact, aerosol, vector

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19
Q

samples for Moraxella should be taken from where

A

laminal secretions

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20
Q

what are the 3 ways Moraxella is treated/controlled

A
  1. antimicrobials
  2. vaccine
  3. management - fly control, isolation, reduced irritant exposure
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21
Q

The Pastuerellaceae family has what RNA sequence

A

16S rRNA

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22
Q

Pasteurella is considered both ____ and ____

A

commensal and opportunistic

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23
Q

describe P. multocida

A

gram-negative, rod to cocci, non-motile, facultative anaerobe

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24
Q

capsule type A and B of Pasteurella are made of

A

hyaluronic acid

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25
Q

capsule type D of Pasteurella is made of

A

heparin

26
Q

capsule type F of Pasteurella is made of

A

chondroitin

27
Q

what is the somatic typing of Pasteurella

A

16 somatic serotypes divided by O antigen

28
Q

describe the adhesion, replication, and toxin production of P. multocida

A

adhesion: fimbriae, FHA

replication: iron-dependent, type a capsule predominant

toxin production: type D PMT

29
Q

T/F: it is unknown the mechanism that contributes to virulence differences among P. multocida strains

A

TRUE

30
Q

what are the 3 disease forms of P. multocida

A
  1. resp. - pneumonia, pleuropneumonia, URT
  2. septicemia - B and E serotypes
  3. skin wound - trauma associated
31
Q

what are risk factors for P. multocida

A
  1. young
  2. stress
  3. immunosuppression
  4. co-infection
  5. primary viral infection
32
Q

describe pasteurellosis in rabbits

A

*snuffles
associated w type A
purulent rhinitis

33
Q

50 w/o broiler breeder spike males are submitted to necropsy for swollen necrotic waddles, fibrinous synovitis/airsaculitis/pneumonia, and heavy fowl mite infestation

histology reveals airways with exudate and bacterial colonization. what is your diagnosis

A

septicemia pasteurellosis

34
Q

T/F: Young birds are more resistant to fowl cholera

A

TRUE

35
Q

what are the acute and chronic phases of fowl cholera characterized by

A

acute = sudden death due to hemorrhage

chronic = reduced production

36
Q

what antibiotics are P. multocida susceptible to

A

penicillin and tetracycline

37
Q

is P. multocida vaccinated for

A

yes - killed/MLV for poultry and ruminants, toxoid for swine

38
Q

describe mannheimia haemolytica

A

gram-negative, rod, non-motile, facultative anaerobe

39
Q

what grows of MacConkey agar:

M. haemolytica or P. multocida

A

M. haemolytica although both are gram-negative

40
Q

describe the 3 steps of M. haemolytica pathogenesis

A
  1. adhere
  2. replicate
  3. toxin damage
41
Q

what toxin is produced by M. haemolytica

A

leukotoxin

42
Q

describe bibersteinia trehalosi

A

gram-negative, rod, non-motile, facultative anaerobe

43
Q

what are the 3 disease manifestations of Bibersteinia trehalosi

A
  1. bronchopneumonia
  2. septicemic pasteurellosis
  3. mastitis
44
Q

what are the special growth requirements for Haemophilus

A
  1. hemin (factor X)
  2. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD/Factor V)
45
Q

What else would you need if you wanted to grow Haemophilus on blood agar?

A

Staphylococcus aureus nurse

46
Q

describe the disease caused by Glasesserella parasuis

A

commensal in pigs, requires NAD/factor V to grow

causes glasses disease - bronchopneumonia + polyserositis/meningitis/arthritis

47
Q

how is G. parasuis treated

A

penicillin, tetra, tiamulin or vax

48
Q

describe the disease caused by avibacterium paragallinarum

A

chickens; requires factor V to grow

infectious coryza characterized by facial swelling, S+ with discharge

49
Q

T/F: depop, cleaning, and vax are treatments for A. paragallinarum

A

TRUE

50
Q

describe Histophilus somni

A

commensal in bovine

causes bronchopneumonia +/- speticemia

51
Q

what are the benefits of the endotoxin produced by H. somni

A

Lipooligosaccharide (LOS) helps initiate antigenic shift which evades the immune system

resistant to complement-mediated lysis

52
Q

T/F: vaccines for H. somni are safe and effective

A

FALSE - IgG protective for systemic infections, but not respiratory and adverse effects have been reported

53
Q

describe actinobacillus

A

gram-negative, rod, non-motile

commensal in mares

54
Q

what is the primary respiratory pathogen for pigs

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

55
Q

what exotoxin is produced by A. pleuropneumoniae

A

Apx toxin I-IV (resulting in cell lysis and tissue damage)

56
Q

15 w/o finishing pigs are brought to necropsy upon sudden death with history of respiratory issues.

necropsy reveals multifocal pulmonary hemorrhage and consolidation with fibrin. PCR is negative for PCV2 and ASFV. what is your diagnosis

A

A. suis

57
Q

how are carriers of APP identified

A
  1. tonsilar scraping in sows
  2. serological screening
58
Q

how do actinobacillus spp. differ

A

A. pleuropneumonia - classic lesions, only lung changes at death

A. suis - common lesion but more disease processes (inflammation)

A. equuli - more common in foal, acute bacterial sepsis and endocarditis in pigs

59
Q

T/F: MALDI-TOF testing can confirm ID from contaminated samples

A

FALSE - need pure isolates

60
Q

what two bacterial species need a nurse streak of Staph aureus

A
  1. glaesserella
  2. actinobacillus

2 - Animal Health & Disease (21 decks)

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