Exam 3 Part three Flashcards

1
Q

What are the effects of oxytocin hormone

A

Also called “cuddle hormone”
Females: Stimulates smooth muscle contraction in uterine wall; stimulates milk ejection from mammary glands
Male: Stimulates contraction of smooth muscle of male reproductive tract

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2
Q

What are the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

Stimulates reabsorption of H20 from tubular fluid in kidneys; stimulates vasoconstriction in arterioles of body, thereby raising blood pressure

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3
Q

What are the effects of glucagon

A

Increases blood glucose levels, glycogen breakdown in liver cells, lipid breakdown in adipose cells

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4
Q

What are the effects of insulin hormone

A

Decreases glucose levels in the body fluids, glucose transport into target cells; promotes glycogen & lipid formation & storage

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5
Q

What are the effects of glucocorticoids?

A

Stimulate lipid & protein metabolism; regulate blood glucose levels

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6
Q

What are the effects of adrenalin/noradenalin (epinephrine/norepinephrine)

A

Work with the systemic division of the ANS to stimulate fight-or-flight response

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7
Q

Stimulates contraction of uterine wall

A

Oxytocin

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8
Q

Stimulates milk production

A

Prolactin

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9
Q

Made by alpha cells of pancreas

A

Glucagon

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10
Q

Have receptors for specific hormones

A

Target cells

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11
Q

Stimulates thyroid hormone release

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

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12
Q

Synthesized by adrenal medulla

A

Epinephrine

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13
Q

Produces regulatory hormones

A

Hypothalamus

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14
Q

Retention of both water and sodium from the kidney occurs as a result of the production & release of?

A

Glucocortcoid

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15
Q

When glucose levels in the blood are elevated,

A

Insulin is released

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16
Q

Which of the following is a tropic hormone: Glucagon, epinephrine, melatonin, growth hormone

A

Growth hormone

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17
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates the production of?

A

Gamets (sperm & oocytes) in males & females

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18
Q

Which hormone is NOT synthesized by cells in the pituitary gland: Adrenocorticotropic hormone, growth hormone, luteinizing hormone, thyroid hormone

A

Thyroid hormone

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19
Q

What is the function of glucocorticoids?

A

Elevate blood glucose levels during periods of stress

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20
Q

Which hormone is antagonistic to parathyroid hormone?

A

Calcitonin

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21
Q

Parathyroid hormone is released from the parathyroid gland when blood levels of ____ fall.

A

Calcium

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22
Q

The secretion of epinephrine & norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla is stimulated by

A

Sympathetic nerve innervation

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23
Q

What is the otolithis structure?

A

Small calcium carbonate crystals, also called statoconia. The gelatinous layer (in the utricle & saccule) & crystals from the otolithic membrane.

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24
Q

The semicircular canals

A

Part of the bony labyrinth. Within the semicircular canals of the vestibular complex, the membranous labyrinth is called the semicircular ducts.

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25
Q

Ampulla is

A

Contained within each semicircular duct region. Located at the end furthest from the utricle connection. Contains an elevated region (crista ampullaris) (or ampullary crest), that is covered by an epithelium of hair cells & supporting cells.

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26
Q

Copula is

A

Hair cells embed both their kinocilia & stereocilia into an overlying gelatinous dome. Extends completely across the semicircular duct to the roof over the ampulla

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27
Q

Ceruminous glands produce

A

A waxlike secretion called cerumen, which combines with dead, sloughed skin cells to form earwax. This material may help reduce infection within the external acoustic meatus by impeding microorganism growth

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28
Q

Amplitude is

A

The maximum extent of a vibration or oscillation, measured from the position of equilibrium

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29
Q

Stapedius is

A

One of two tiny skeletal muscles located w/in the middle ear. Restricts ossicle movement when loud noises occur & protect the sensitive receptors in the inner ear

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30
Q

Tensor tympani is

A

One of two tiny skeletal muscles located w/in the middle ear. Restricts ossicle movement when loud noises occur & protect the sensitive receptors in the inner ear

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31
Q

Detects tension in tendons, position of joints

A

Proprioceptors

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32
Q

Malleus, incus, stapes

A

Auditory ossicles

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33
Q

Fluid in the membranous labyrinth

A

Endolymph

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34
Q

Detects pain stimuli

A

Nociceptor

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35
Q

Supports the spiral organ

A

Basilar membrane

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36
Q

Pigmented middle layer of eye

A

Choroid

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37
Q

Sensation of taste

A

Gustation

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38
Q

Attaches to lens

A

Suspensory ligaments

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39
Q

Sensitivity reduced due to constant stimulus

A

Adaptation

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40
Q

Sensation of smell

A

Olfaction

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41
Q

Unencapsulated, terminal branches of dendrites are called

A

Free nerve endings

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42
Q

Baroreceptors are a class of mechanoreceptor that respond to

A

Changes in pressure

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43
Q

Which sensory structure has stereocilia of hair cells embedded in a gelatinous structure called a cupula?

A

Semicircular duct

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44
Q

The photoreceptors that perceive color & sharp vision are?

A

Cones

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45
Q

The tarsal glands secrete?

A

A lipid-rich product the prevents the eyelids from sticking together

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46
Q

The arrangement of tunics in the eye, from the center of the eye to the periphery, is

A

Retina, vascular, fibrous

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47
Q

Receptors in the walls of blood vessels that respond to discrete changes in gas concentration in the blood are called?

A

Chemoreceptors

48
Q

The lacrimal glands produce lacrimal fluid for each of the following functions except: Cleansing the eye surfae, preventing bacterial infection, humidifying the eye orbit, moistening the eye surface

A

Humidifying the eye orbit

49
Q

Which statement is true about the cochlear duct?; It is part of the bony labyrinth, it is filled with perilymph, it contains hair cells that convert sound waves into nerve impulses, it contains a spiral organ that rests on a vestibular membrane

A

It contains hair cells that convert sound waves into nerve impulses

50
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A

Transportation, regulation, protection

51
Q

Which protein is involved in blood clotting?

A

Fibrinogen

52
Q

Plasma

A

Complex mixture of water, proteins, & other solutes. When the blood cells, platelets and clotting proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is termed serum

53
Q

What is the most abundant compound in plasma?

A

Water (92%)

54
Q

What are the plasma proteins?

A

Albumin, globulins, fibrinogen, regulatory proteins

55
Q

What are other salutes in plasma

A

Electrolytes, nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes

56
Q

Albumins are

A

Smallest & most abundant of plasma proteins (58%). Regulate H2O movement between blood & interstitial fluid by providing some of the plasma solutes to drive osmosis. Act as transport proteins that carry ions, hormones, & some lipids in the blood

57
Q

Globulins are

A

The second largest group of plasma proteins (37%). Smaller alpha-globulins & larger beta-globulins bind, support, & protect water-insoluble (hydrophobic) molecules, hormones, & ions. Gamma globulins (immunoglobulins) or antibodies, are soluble proteins produced by some defense cells to protect the body against pathogens that may cause disease

58
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Makes up 4% of plasma proteins. Responsible for blood clot formation. Following trauma to the walls of blood vessels, fibrinogen is converted into long, insoluble strands of fibrin, which help form a blood clot

59
Q

What is the survival time for a typical RBC?

A

About 120 days because the absence of both a nucleus & cellular organelles reduce its life span. Aging & the wear and tear of circulation through blood vessels cause them to become more fragile & less flexible

60
Q

Agranulocyte that can develop into macrophage

A

Monocyte

61
Q

Protein that can be converted into blood clot fibers

A

Fibrinogen

62
Q

The most numerous luekocyte

A

Neutrophil

63
Q

Immature form of erythrocyte with a nucleus

A

Erythroblast

64
Q

Blood cell formation and development

A

Hemopoiesis

65
Q

Binds to antigens

A

Antibody

66
Q

The most abundant compound in plasma

A

Water

67
Q

Formation of erythrocytes

A

Erythropoiesis

68
Q

In the adult, the stem cell for leukocytes reside in the

A

Red bone marrow

69
Q

Which type of leukocyte increases during allergic reactions & parasitic worm infections?

A

Eosinophil

70
Q

Which cell forms platelets in the red bone marrow?

A

Megakaryocyte

71
Q

Which of the following is not a function of blood: Prevention of fluid loss, nutrient & waste transport, maintenance of constant pH levels, production of hormones

A

Production of hormones

72
Q

A person with blood type A has

A

Anti-B antibodies in her blood plasma

73
Q

The hematocrit is a measure of

A

The percentage of formed elements in the blood

74
Q

Oxygen attaches to an ____ion in hemogloblin

A

Iron

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte: Biconcave disc shape, absence of organelles, life span of about 12 months, filled with hemoglobin

A

Life span of about 12 months

76
Q

Veins that carry blood to the left atrium

A

Pulmonary veins

77
Q

Also known as bicuspid or mitral valve

A

Left AV valve

78
Q

Period of relaxation

A

Diastole cells

79
Q

Origin of heartbeat

A

SA node

80
Q

Veins that carry blood to the right atrium

A

Venae cavae

81
Q

Specialized junction between cardiac muscle cells

A

Intercalated disc

82
Q

Contains three cusps; also known as tricuspid valve

A

Right AV valve

83
Q

Period of contraction

A

Systole

84
Q

Muscle impulses are spread rapidly between cardiac muscle cells by

A

Intercalated discs

85
Q

Venous blood from the heart wall enters the right atrium through the

A

Coronary sinus

86
Q

How is blood prevented from flowing into the right ventricle from the pulmonary trunk?

A

Closing of the pulmonary semilunar valve

87
Q

What is the correct circulatory sequence for blood to pass through part of the heart?

A

R. atrium>r. av valve> r. ventricle> pulmonary semilunar valve

88
Q

The pericardial cavity is located between the

A

parietal & visceral layers of the serous pericardium

89
Q

The irregular muscular ridges in the ventricular walls are the

A

Trabeculae carneae

90
Q

Sympathetic innervation of cardiac muscle originates from

A

T1-T5 segments of the spinal cord

91
Q

When the ventricles contract, all of the following occur except: Closing of the AV valves, blood ejecting into the pulmonary trunk & aorta, closing of the semilunar valves, opening of the semilunar valves

A

Closing of the semilunar valves

92
Q

The thickest part of the heart wall is the?

A

Myocardium

93
Q

Superior mesenteric vein drains into it

A

Hepatic portal vein

94
Q

Composed of endothelium & basement membrane only

A

Capillary

95
Q

Bifurcation of descending abdominal aorta

A

Common iliac artery

96
Q

Drains right posterior intercoastal veins

A

Azygos vein

97
Q

Continuation of femoral artery

A

Popliteal artery

98
Q

Sends oxygenated blood to right upper limb

A

Brachiocephalic trunk

99
Q

Drains directly into left atrium

A

Pulmonary vein

100
Q

All of the following are direct branches of the celiac trunk except the: splenic artery, right gastric artery, left gastric artery, common hepatic artery

A

Right gastric artery

101
Q

Which statement is true about veins?
Veins always carry deoxygenated blood, veins drain into smaller vessels called venues, the largest tunic in a vein is the tunic externa, the lumen of a vein tends to be smaller than that of a comparably sized artery

A

The largest tunic in a vein is the tunic externa

102
Q

What is the correct pathway that blood flows through the upper limb arteries

A

Subclavian>axillary>brachial>radial & ulnar

103
Q

Which of the following veins typically does not drain directly into the inferior vena cava?
Renal, hepatic portal, common iliac, right gonadal

A

Hepatic portal

104
Q

After birth, the umbilical vein becomes the

A

Round ligament of the liver

105
Q

Pulmonary surfactant

A

Alveolar type II cells secrete this. A fluid composed of lipids & proteins that coats the inner alveolar surface to reduce surface tension & prevent the collapse of the alveoli

106
Q

Type I cells

A

One of two types of cells that form the alveolar wall. Predominate cell. Also called squamous alveolar cell. Promotes rapid gas diffusion across the alveolar wall.

107
Q

Type II cell

A

Also called septal cell, is part of a smaller population of cells w/in the alveolar wall. Almost cuboidal shape. Secrete pulmonary surfactant

108
Q

Fights invaders

A

Macrophage

109
Q

What is a pneumothorax & what are its consequences?

A

Condition that occurs when free air gets into the pleural cavity. Can develop in 2 ways: air may be introduced externally from a penetrating injury to the chest. Or from internally when a broken rib lacerates the surface of the lung.
Consequences: the air in the space can cause the affected lung to deflate until the air has been removed from the pleural space. If it is large it is a medical emergency and can cause death if not treated

110
Q

Pleural cavity

A

Between the serous membrane layers. When the lungs are fully inflated, the pleural cavity is a potential space because the visceral & parietal pleurae are almost in contact w/each other.

111
Q

pleural membranes

A

The outer lung surfaces & adjacent internal thoracic wall are lined by a serous membrane called pleura, which is formed from simple squamous epithelium called mesothelium. The outer surface of each lung is tightly covered by visceral pleura, while the internal thoracic walls, the lateral surfaces of the mediastinum, & the superior surface of the diaphragm are lined by the parietal pleura

112
Q

Boyle’s law

A

The pressure of a gas decreases if the volume of the container increases, & vice versa

113
Q

separates the 2 pleural cavities

A

Mediastinum

114
Q

What is the function of the nasal cavity?

A

Filtration, conditioning, olfaction, contributes to sound production

115
Q

What muscles are involved in breathing?

A

Diaphragm, abdominals, ext. & int. intercostals, scalene, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor, transversus thoracis