Ch 48 skin integrity & wound care Flashcards

1
Q

, the largest organ in the body, is a protective barrier against disease-causing organisms and a sensory organ for pain, temperature, and touch

A

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

skin has two layers: the

A

epidermis and the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

epidermis and the dermis separated by a membrane, often referred to as the

A

dermal-epidermal junction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is the thin outermost layer of the epidermis

A

stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

consists of flattened, dead, keratinized cells

A

stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

cells originate from the innermost epidermal layer, commonly called the

A

basal layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

divide, proliferate, and migrate toward the epidermal surface
-After they reach the stratum corneum, they flatten and die

A

Cells in the basal layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

protects underlying cells and tissues from dehydration and prevents entrance of certain chemical agents

A

thin stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

allows evaporation of water from the skin and permits absorption of certain topical medications.

A

stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

, the inner layer of the skin, provides tensile strength; mechanical support; and protection for the underlying muscles, bones, and organs

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Collagen (a tough, fibrous protein), blood vessels, and nerves are found in the dermal layer

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

, which are responsible for collagen formation, are the only distinctive cell type within the dermis

A

Fibroblasts (dermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

such as reduced skin elasticity, decreased collagen, and thinning of underlying muscle and tissues cause the older adult’s skin to be easily torn in response to mechanical trauma, especially shearing forces

A

Age-related changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Existing medical conditions and polypharmacy are factors that interfere with wound healing. Aging causes a diminished inflammatory response, resulting in slow epithelialization and wound healing

A

Age-related changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

decrease in subcutaneous padding over bony prominences, where impaired skin integrity and injury to other tissues are most likely to occur

A

Age-related changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

patient experiencing decreased mobility, decreased sensory perception, fecal or urinary incontinence, and/or poor nutrition is

A

risk for pressure injury development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  • Older adults, those who have experienced trauma
  • Those with spinal-cord injuries (SCI)
  • Those who have sustained a fractured hip
  • Those in long-term homes or community care, the acutely ill, or those in a hospice setting
  • Individuals with diabetes
  • Patients in critical care settings
A

people at risk for pressure injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Prolonged, intense pressure affects cellular metabolism by decreasing or obliterating blood flow, resulting in tissue ischemia and ultimately tissue death.

A

affects cellular metablolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

is the major element in the cause of pressure injuries.

A

Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Current theory suggests that skin and soft tissue damage can begin at the surface and progress inward or begin at the muscle and progress outward, depending on causation

A

skin theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Top-down damage (superficial) is thought to be caused by superficial shear or friction, presenting as red skin

A

(stage 1 pressure injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

damage is believed to be caused by several pressure-related factors: (1) pressure intensity, (2) pressure duration, and (3) tissue tolerance.

A

Bottom-up (deep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

as the minimal amount of pressure required to collapse a capillary (e.g., when the pressure exceeds the normal capillary pressure range of 15 to 32 mm Hg)

A

capillary closing pressure (pressure intensity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when the pressure applied over a capillary exceeds the normal capillary pressure and the vessel is occluded for a prolonged period of time,

A

tissue ischemia can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

if the pressure is relieved and the blood flow returns, the

A

skin turns red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

clinical presentation of obstructed blood flow occurs when evaluating areas of pressure. After a period of tissue ischemia, if the pressure is relieved and the blood flow returns, the skin turns red. The effect of this redness is vasodilation (blood vessel expansion), called

A

hyperemia (redness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

erythema returns when you remove your finger, the hyperemia is transient and is an attempt to overcome the ischemic episode, thus called

A

blanchable hyperemia (no longterm damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the erythematous area does not blanch (nonblanchable erythema) when you apply pressure, deep tissue damage is probable.

A

nonblanchable erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

occurs when the normal red tones of the light-skinned patient are absent

A

Blanching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When checking for pressure injuries in patients with darkly pigmented skin, dark skin may not show the blanch response. Inspect suspected pressure-related skin alterations with an adjacent or opposite area of the body for comparison

A

check blanching w/ dark pigmented skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

assessment of changes in skin tissue, consistency (firm vs. boggy [less than normal stiffness or mushy] when palpated), sensation (pain), edema, and warmer or cooler temperature

A

Skin inspection should include

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

do not confuse the normal hyperpigmentation of Mongolian spots that are seen on the sacrum of African, Native American, and Asian patients with cyanosis

A

Mongolian spots in AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Assess for changes in sensation, temperature, or tissue consistency, which may precede visual skin changes
-examine w/ least pigmentation ex: under arms

A

skin assessment in dark pigmented skin (do NoT rely only on visual inspection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

localized area of skin may be purple/blue or violet instead of red. Purple or maroon discoloration may indicate deep tissue injury.

A

deep tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

may occur with induration of more than 15 mm in diameter, and skin may appear taut and shiny

A

Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pressure duration include evaluating the amount of pressure

A

(checking skin for nonblanching hyperemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

determining the amount of time that a patient tolerates pressure

A

(checking to be sure after relieving pressure that the affected area blanches).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

extrinsic factors of shear, friction, and moisture affect the ability of the skin to

A

tolerate pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Systemic factors such as poor nutrition, aging, hydration status, and low blood pressure affect the tolerance of the tissue to externally applied pressure.

A

systemic factors affecting tolerance of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Patients who are comatose, confused or disoriented; those who have expressive aphasia or the inability to verbalize; and those with changing levels of consciousness are

A

unable to protect themselves from pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

causes occurs at the deeper fascial level of the tissues over the bony prominence

A

damage that shear cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

death of cells or tissue thru disease or injury

A

necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

effects dermal area

A

shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

effects epidermis area

-sheet burn- denuded skin (upper part) appears red & painful

A

friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

occurs in patients who are restless, in those who have uncontrollable movements such as spastic conditions,

A

friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

is defined as inflammation and erosion to the skin caused by prolonged exposure to various sources of moisture, including wound drainage, urine or stool, perspiration, wound exudate, mucus or saliva (

A

moisture-associated skin damage (MASD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

classifies pressure injuries

A

staging system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

dead tissue separating from living tissue

A

slough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

dead tissue that falls off

A

eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

commonly result from adverse microclimate and shear in the skin over the pelvis and shear in the heel
-Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis

A

Stage 2 pressure ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If slough or eschar obscures the extent of tissue loss, this is an

A

Unstageable Pressure Injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

This injury results from intense and/or prolonged pressure and shear forces at the bone-muscle interface.

A

Deep-Tissue Pressure Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

If necrotic tissue, subcutaneous tissue, granulation tissue, fascia, muscle or other underlying structures are visible, this indicates a full-thickness pressure injury

A

(Unstageable, Stage 3, or Stage 4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

is a disruption of the integrity and function of tissues in the body

A

wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

tissue layers involved and their capacity 1241for regeneration determine the mechanism for repair for any wound

A

repair of wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

are shallow in depth, moist, and painful, and the wound base generally appears red.

A

Partial-thickness wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

extends into the subcutaneous layer, can be painful, and the depth and tissue type varies, depending on body location

A

full-thickness wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

partial-thickness wound heals by

A

regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

by forming new tissue, a process that can take longer than the healing of a partial-thickness wound

A

full-thickness wound heals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

clean surgical incision is an example of a

A

wound with little tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

surgical incision

A

heals by primary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

contrast, a wound involving loss of tissue such as a burn, stage II pressure injury, or severe laceration

A

heals by secondary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

wound healed by regenerating ex: partial-thickness

A

epidermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ex: scrape or abrasion

A

partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

full thickness

A

stage 3&4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

wound: inflammatory response, epithelial proliferation (reproduction) and migration, and reestablishment of the epidermal layers.

A

3 components are involved in the healing process of a partial-thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

causes the inflammatory response, which in turn causes redness and swelling to the area with a moderate amount of serous exudate

A

Tissue trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

wound that is kept moist can resurface in 4 days, whereas one left open to air can resurface within 6 to 7 days

A

wound moist (partial thickness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

4 phases occur in full-thickness wound repair are

A

hemostasis, inflammatory, proliferative, and maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

primary-acting white blood cell is the neutrophil, which begins to ingest bacteria and small debris.

A

inflammation to heal (neutrophil,)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

filling of a wound with granulation tissue, wound contraction, and wound 1242resurfacing by epithelialization

A

proliferative phase (full thickness healing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

usually results from systemic factors such as age, anemia, hypoproteinemia, and zinc deficiency.

A

Impairment of healing during proliferative phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

by looking for distention or swelling of the affected body part, a change in the type and amount of drainage from a surgical drain, or signs of hypovolemic shock

A

detect internal hemorrhaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

is a localized collection of blood underneath the tissues.

A

hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

appears as swelling, change in color, sensation, or warmth that often takes on a bluish discoloration

A

hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

can include erythema; increased amount of wound drainage; change in appearance of the wound drainage (thick, color change, presence of odor); and periwound warmth, pain, or edema.
-fever and an increase in white blood cell count

A

local clinical signs of wound infection

77
Q

occur within 30 days of surgery; risk factors include hyperglycemia, smoking, untreated peripheral vascular disease, obesity, age, and emergency surgery

  • fever, tenderness, and pain at the wound site and an elevated white blood cell count
  • edges of the wound will appear inflamed. If drainage is present, it is odorous and purulent, which causes a yellow, green, or brown color, depending on the causative organism
A

Surgical site infections

78
Q

show signs of infection early, within 2 to 3 days

A

contaminated or traumatic wounds

79
Q

Clear, watery plasma

A

Serous

80
Q

Thick, yellow, green, tan, or brown

A

Purulent

81
Q

Pale, pink, watery; mixture of clear and red fluid

A

Serosanguineous

82
Q

Bright red; indicates active bleeding

A

Sanguineous

83
Q

is the partial or total separation of wound layers

A

Dehiscence

84
Q

poor nutritional status, infection, or underlying diseases such as diabetes mellitus or peripheral vascular disease) is at risk for dehiscence.
-obese

A

risk for Dehiscence

85
Q

abdominal surgical wounds and occurs after a sudden strain such as coughing, vomiting, or sitting up in bed
-serosanguineous drainage from a wound in the first few days after surgery

A

indication of Dehiscence

86
Q

(protrusion of visceral organs through a wound opening)

A

evisceration

87
Q

place sterile gauze soaked in sterile saline over the extruding tissues to reduce chances of bacterial invasion and drying of the tissues

A

implementation of evisceration

88
Q

is the most widely used risk-assessment tool for pressure injuries and is in the WOCN guidelines as being a valid tool to use for pressure injury risk assessment

A

Braden Scale

89
Q

sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear.

A

Braden Scale contains 6 subscales

90
Q

total score ranges from 6 to 23; a lower total score indicates a higher risk for pressure injury development

  • 18 score is cut off not at risk for adult
  • onset of risk of intensive care pt is 13
A

Braden Scale score

91
Q

no longer receive reimbursement for care related to stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries that occur during a hospitalization

A

Reimbursement for hospitals

92
Q

is a protein formed from amino acids acquired by fibroblasts from protein ingested in food.

A

Collagen

93
Q

is necessary for synthesis of collagen

A

Vitamin C

94
Q

reduces the negative effects of steroids on wound healing

A

Vitamin A

95
Q

for epithelialization and collagen synthesis

A

zinc

96
Q

for collagen fiber linking

A

copper pg 1243

97
Q

provide the energy source needed to support the cellular activity of wound healing.

A

Calories

98
Q

needs especially are increased and are essential for tissue repair and growth.

A

Protein

99
Q

A balanced intake of various nutrients (i.e., protein, fat, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals) is

A

critical to support wound healing

100
Q

because it reflects not only what the patient has recently ingested but also what the body has absorbed, digested, and metabolized

A

best measure of nutritional status is prealbumin

101
Q

are biochemical indicators of malnutrition

A

Serum proteins

102
Q

, which leads to additional tissue destruction

A

proinflammatory cytokines

103
Q

is present include the presence of purulent drainage; change in odor, volume, or character of wound drainage; redness in the surrounding tissue; fever; or pain.

A

wound infection (signs & symptoms)

104
Q

decrease in the functioning of macrophages leads to a delayed inflammatory response, delayed collagen synthesis, and slower epithelialization.

A

physiological changes associated with aging affect all phases of wound healing.

105
Q

Body image changes often impose a great stress on a patient’s adaptive mechanisms. They also influence self-concept and sexuality

A

psychosocial impact of wounds

106
Q

include: location, the presence of scars, stitches, drains (often needed for weeks or months), odor from drainage, and temporary or permanent prosthetic devices.

A

Factors that affect a patient’s perception of a wound

107
Q

is an occurrence in which erythema and/or other manifestation of cutaneous abnormality (including but not limited to vesicle, bulla, erosion, or skin tear) persists 30 minutes or more after removal of the adhesive.

A

Medical adhesive–related pressure injury

108
Q

Skin stripping, or tape burns, from

A

adhesives is the most commonly reported injury;

109
Q

is red, moist tissue composed of new blood vessels, the presence of which indicates progression toward healing

A

Granulation tissue

110
Q

Soft yellow or white tissue is characteristic of slough (stringy substance attached to wound bed), and it must eventually be removed by a qualified clinician or by an appropriate wound dressing before the wound is able to heal.

A

slough

111
Q

Black, brown, tan or necrotic tissue is eschar, which also needs to be removed before healing can occur.

A

eschar

112
Q

to measure wound width and length.

A

disposable wound-measuring device

113
Q

Measure depth (wound) by using a

A

cotton-tipped applicator in the wound bed

114
Q

Frequent exposure to urine and fecal contents increases patients’ risk for

A

incontinence-associated dermatitis (IAD)

115
Q

exposure to gastric and pancreatic drainage has the

A

highest risk for skin breakdown

116
Q

is superficial with little bleeding and is considered a partial-thickness wound.
-appears “weepy” because of plasma leakage from damaged capillaries

A

abrasion

117
Q

sometimes may bleed more profusely (especially if the patient is taking anticoagulants or other blood thinners), depending on the depth and location of the wound

A

laceration

118
Q

bleed in relation to the depth, size, and location of the wound

  • small, circular wound with the edges coming together toward the center.
  • main danger= infection & internal bleeding
A

Puncture wounds

119
Q

provide a means for fluid or blood that accumulates within a wound bed to drain out of the body

A

Drains

120
Q

lies under a dressing; at the time of placement a pin or clip is placed through the drain to prevent it from slipping farther into a wound

A

Penrose drain

121
Q

is a liquid tissue adhesive that forms a strong bond across approximated wound edges, allowing normal healing to occur below

A

Dermabond

122
Q

(1) skin care and management of incontinence;
(2) mechanical loading and support devices, which include proper positioning and the use of therapeutic surfaces;
(3) education

A

3 major areas of nursing interventions for prevention of pressure injuries are

123
Q

can sometimes be better managed with proper diet and medications

A

Bowel incontinence

124
Q

is treated with behavioral techniques, medication, and surgery. Behavioral techniques help patients learn ways to control their bladder and sphincter muscles.

A

Urinary incontinence

125
Q
  • reduce friction and shear.
  • Use for moderate- to high-risk patients
  • Not indicated for those with existing stage 3 or 4 pressure injuries
  • Hot and may trap moisture
A

Foam Overlay (type mattress)

126
Q
  • Use for high-risk patients
  • make procedures (e.g., dressing changes, CPR) difficult
  • Patient transfers out of bed are difficult.
A

Water Overlay (type mattress)

127
Q
  • Use for moderate- to high-risk patients
  • patients who are wheelchair dependent
  • Multiple-patient use
A

Gel Overlay (type mattress)

128
Q
  • Use for moderate- to high-risk patients
  • Use for patients who can reposition themselves
  • downside- Damaged by punctures from needles and sharps
A

Nonpowered Air-Filled Overlay(type mattress)

129
Q
  • managing the heat and humidity (microclimate) of the skin
  • moderate- to high-risk patients
  • Deflates to facilitate transfer and CPR
  • req battery or electrical outlet
  • moist control
A

Low-Air-Loss Overlay

130
Q
  • Use for high-risk patients
  • patients with stage 3 or 4 pressure injuries or burns
  • Becomes firm for CPR or other treatments when device is turned “off”
  • May facilitate management of copious (heal by secondary intention) wound drainage or incontinence
  • May not be wide enough for use with obese patients or patients with contractures
  • cant lie prone= suffocate
A

Air-Fluidized Bed (type bed)

131
Q
  • Contraindicated in patients with unstable spinal column
  • used for those who cannot be repositioned frequently, or those who have skin breakdown
  • Easy transfer in and out of bed but slippery
A

Low-Air-Loss Bed (type bed)

132
Q
  • Provides continuous passive motion to promote mobilization of pulmonary secretions
  • Used primarily to facilitate pulmonary hygiene in patients with acute respiratory conditions
  • not be used when the patient is hemodynamically unstable
  • Reduces pulmonary complications associated with restricted mobility
  • Does not reduce shear or moisture
  • Cannot be used with cervical or skeletal traction
A

Kinetic Therapy

133
Q

which should prevent positioning directly over the bony prominence

A

recommend a 30-degree lateral position

134
Q

require close monitoring (every 4-8 hours;

A

Acute wounds (monitoring)

135
Q

assessment occurs less frequently

A

Chronic wound (monitoring)

136
Q
  • addresses 15 wound characteristics.
  • You score individual items and calculate the sum total, providing an overall indication of wound status.
  • scoring helps to evaluate whether the goals of the wound management are effective.
A

Bates-Jensen Wound Assessment Tool (BWAT)

137
Q

only with noncytotoxic wound cleaners such as normal saline or commercial wound cleaners

A

Clean pressure injuries (ONLY WITH NONCYTOTOXIC)

138
Q

is to use a 19-gauge angiocatheter and a 35-mL syringe, which delivers saline to a pressure injury at 8 psi

A

ensure an irrigation pressure within the correct range

139
Q

is the removal of nonviable, necrotic tissue

A

Debridement

140
Q

include mechanical, autolytic, chemical, and sharp/surgical.

A

Methods of debridement

141
Q

is the removal of dead tissue via lysis of necrotic tissue by the white blood cells and natural enzymes of the body

A

Autolytic debridement(Methods of debridement)

142
Q

with the use of a topical enzyme preparation, Dakin’s solution, or sterile maggots

A

chemical debridement (Methods of debridement)

143
Q

breaks down and loosens dead tissue in a wound

A

Dakin’s solution ( chemical debridement)

144
Q

used in wound because ingest the dead tissue.

A

Sterile maggots ( chemical debridement)

145
Q

is the removal of devitalized tissue with a scalpel, scissors, or other sharp instrument.
-usually indicated when the patient has signs of cellulitis or sepsis.

A
Surgical debridement (Methods of debridement)
QUICKEST METHOD
146
Q

are wound irrigation (high-pressure irrigation and pulsatile high-pressure lavage) and whirlpool treatments

A

mechanical debridement (Methods of debridement)

147
Q

is used initially to autolytically debride (liquefy the tissue using body moisture) a necrotic wound.

A

transparent film dressing

148
Q

is to place a folded thin blanket or pillow over an abdominal wound so that a patient can splint the area during coughing

A

prevent surgical wound dehiscence

149
Q

promotes collagen synthesis, capillary wall integrity, fibroblast function, and immunological function.

A

Vitamin C promotes

150
Q

, first rinse the wound with normal saline and lightly cover the area with a dressing.

A

cleaning abrasions, minor lacerations, and small puncture wounds

151
Q

, only brush away surface contaminants and concentrate on hemostasis

A

laceration is bleeding profusely (cleaning)

152
Q

place the moist dressing (contact dressing) over the wound bed, cover with a clean gauze, and allow the contact layer to dry. In this case the contact dressing is allowed to dry so that it sticks to underlying tissue and debrides the wound during removal
-recommended for debridement in a necrotic wound

A

debridement is nonselective

153
Q

dressings pulls excess drainage into the dressing and away from the wound

A

woven gauze

154
Q

occur at the face and head region, and the ears specifically
-MOST COMMON ex oxygen tubing and masks

A

MDRPIs (medical device–related pressure injury)

155
Q

adheres to undamaged skin, does not need a secondary dressing, and permits viewing of the wound.
-ideal for small superficial wounds such as a stage 1 pressure injury or a partial-thickness wound.

A

transparent dressing

156
Q

as a secondary dressing and for autolytic debridement of small wounds.
-does not need a secondary dressing,

A

film dressing

157
Q

are dressings with complex formulations of colloids and adhesive components.

  • support healing in clean granulating wounds and autolytically debride necrotic wounds
  • can be left in place for 3 to 5 days
  • slowly liquefies necrotic debris
  • useful on shallow-to–moderately deep dermal injuries.
  • contraindicated for use in full-thickness and infected wounds
  • cannot absorb drainage from heavily draining wounds
A

Hydrocolloid dressings

158
Q

are gauze or sheet dressings impregnated with water or glycerin-based amorphous gel

  • hydrates wounds and absorbs small amounts of exudate
  • indicated for use in partial-thickness and full-thickness wounds, deep wounds with some exudate, necrotic wounds, burns, and radiation-damaged skin
  • debride necrotic tissue by softening the necrotic area.
  • disadvantage is that some hydrogels require a secondary dressing and you must take care to prevent periwound maceration.
A

Hydrogel dressings

159
Q

are for wounds with large amounts of exudate and those that need packing
-foam absorb drainage

A

Foam and alginate dressings

160
Q

are manufactured from seaweed and come in sheet and rope form.

  • alginate forms a soft gel when in contact with wound fluid
  • for wounds with an excessive amount of drainage and do not cause trauma when removed from the wound
  • Do not use these in dry wounds, and they require a secondary dressing.
A

Calcium alginate dressings

161
Q

, which combine two different dressing types into one dressing.

A

composite dressings

162
Q

(add dressings without removing the original one)

A

“reinforce dressing prn”

163
Q

you will use clean medical aseptic technique for a dressing change

A

chronic nonsurgical wounds

164
Q

is the application of subatmospheric (negative) pressure to a wound through suction to facilitate healing and collect wound fluid

  • used for 24 hours to 5 days
  • enhances the adherence of split-thickness skin grafts
  • airtight seal must be maintained
A

NPWT(negative-pressure wound therapy )

165
Q

is a device that helps in wound closure by applying localized negative pressure to draw the edges of a wound together
- remove fluid from area surrounding wound, reducing edema and improving

A

vacuum-assisted closure (V.A.C.)

166
Q

adheres well to the surface of the skin

A

Common adhesive tape

167
Q

compresses closely around pressure bandages and permits more movement of a body part.

A

elastic adhesive tape

168
Q

open, deep wounds; wounds involving an inaccessible body part such as the ear canal; or when cleaning sensitive body parts such as the conjunctival lining of the eye.
- use 35-mL syringe with a 19-gauge soft angiocatheter to deliver solution

A

Irrigation should be used for following body areas

169
Q

is a clear gel or paste applied to the edges of clean small wounds to hold the edges of the wound togethe

  • peels off 5-7 days
  • avoid touching the glue for 24 hours, to try to keep the wound dry for the first 5 days,
  • avoid soaking the wound
  • not used over joints, the hand, or the groin area
A

Skin glue (alternate for sutures)

170
Q

are threads or metal used to sew body tissues together

A

Sutures

171
Q
  • silk, steel, cotton, linen, wire, nylon, and Dacron. (nonabsorbable)
  • types sutures can be absorbed: PDS, Vicryl, and Monocryl
A

types sutures

172
Q

, as the name implies, is a series of sutures with only two knots, one at the beginning and one at the end of the suture line.

A

Continuous suturing

173
Q

are placed more deeply than skin sutures

A

Retention sutures

174
Q

are convenient portable units that connect to tubular drains lying within a wound bed and exert a safe, constant low-pressure vacuum to remove and collect drainage

A

Drainage evacuators

175
Q

are lightweight and inexpensive, mold easily around contours of the body, and permit air circulation to prevent skin maceration

A

Gauze bandages

176
Q

conform well to body parts but are also for exerting pressure.

A

Elastic bandages

177
Q

are bandages that are made of large pieces of material to fit a specific body part. Most binders are made of elastic or cotton
-ex: abdominal binder and a breast binder

A

Binders

178
Q

support arms with muscular sprains or fractures.

A

Slings

179
Q

secure or support dressings over irregularly shaped body parts.

A

Rolls of bandage

180
Q

increasing muscle and ligament flexibility; promoting relaxation and healing; and relieving spasm, joint stiffness, and pain

A

Moist heat applications therapeutically beneficial

181
Q

acute phase of a musculoskeletal injury and during and after childbirth, surgery, and superficial thrombophlebitis
- applications include warm compresses and commercial moist heat packs, warm baths, soaks, and sitz baths

A

Moist heat indications

182
Q

is also used to reduce pain and increase healing by increasing blood flow in tissues and can be used at a low level for a longer period with little chance of tissue injury

A

Dry heat

183
Q

is designed to treat the localized inflammatory response of an injured body part that presents as edema, hemorrhage, muscle spasm, or pain

  • improvement joint therapy
  • pain and swelling, inhibiting muscle spasm, and reducing muscle tension
  • used immediately after soft tissue and musculoskeletal injuries such as sprains or strains;
A

Cold therapy

184
Q

when a patient has an acute, localized inflammation such as appendicitis because the heat could cause the appendix to rupture.
-do NOT cover an active area bleeding w/ warm application= continuous bleeding

A

Warm applications are contraindicated

185
Q

cardiovascular problems, it is unwise to apply heat to large parts of the body because the resulting massive vasodilation disrupts blood supply to vital organs

A

Warm applications are contraindicated

186
Q
  • if the site of injury is already edematous. It further retards circulation to the area and prevents absorption of the interstitial fluid. If a patient has impaired circulation (e.g., arteriosclerosis), it further reduces blood supply to the affected area.
  • Cold therapy is also contraindicated in the presence of neuropathy, because the patient is unable to perceive temperature change and damage resulting from temperature extremes.
  • contraindication for cold therapy is shivering
A

Cold therapy is contraindicated

187
Q

occur through heat-loss mechanisms (sweating and vasodilation) or mechanisms promoting heat conservation (vasoconstriction and piloerection) and heat production (shivering)

A

Systemic responses to heat & cold

188
Q

occur through stimulation of temperature-sensitive nerve endings within the skin.

A

Local responses to heat and cold