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Mental status > ch 43 potter sleep > Flashcards

ch 43 potter sleep Flashcards

1
Q

is a cyclical physiological process that alternates with longer periods of wakefulness.

A

Sleep

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2
Q

familiar rhythm is the 24-hour, day-night cycle known as the

A

diurnal or circadian rhythm

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3
Q

nerve cells in the hypothalamus control the rhythm of the sleep-wake cycle and coordinate this cycle with other circadian rhythms

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

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4
Q

influence the pattern of major biological and behavioral functions.
- sleep disorders are caused by a misalignment between the timing of sleep and individual desires or the societal norm.

A

Circadian rhythms

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5
Q

predictable changing of body temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, hormone secretion, sensory acuity, and mood depend on the maintenance of the

A

24-hour circadian cycle

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6
Q

Factors such as light, temperature, social activities, and work routines

A

affect circadian rhythms and daily sleep-wake cycles

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7
Q

All people have biological clocks that synchronize their sleep cycles

A

biological clocks

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8
Q

, which measures electrical activity in the cerebral cortex;

A

electroencephalogram (EEG)

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9
Q

which measures muscle tone

A

electromyogram (EMG)

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10
Q

which measures eye movements provide information about some structural physiological aspects of sleep.

A

electrooculogram (EOG)

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11
Q

major sleep center in the body is the

A

hypothalamus

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12
Q

hypocretins (orexins) that promote wakefulness and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.

A

hypothalamus secretes

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13
Q

Prostaglandin D2, L-tryptophan, and growth factors

A

control sleep

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14
Q

located in the upper brainstem contains special cells that maintain alertness and wakefulness

A

reticular activating system (RAS)

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15
Q

receives visual, auditory, pain, and tactile sensory stimuli.
- cerebral cortex (e.g., emotions or thought processes) stimulate RAS

A

RAS (reticular activating system)

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16
Q
  • The homeostatic process (Process S), which primarily regulates the length and depth of sleep;
  • circadian rhythms (Process C: “biological time clocks”), which influence the internal organization of sleep and the timing and duration of sleep-wake cycles, operate simultaneously to regulate sleep and wakefulness
A

2 processes help to regulate sleep/wake cycles.

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17
Q

nonrapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

A

two sleep phases

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18
Q

sleep, people progress through four stages during a typical 90-minute sleep cycle.

A

NREM ( nonrapid eye movement)

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19
Q

Lighter sleep is characteristic of ? when a person is more easily arousable.

A

stages 1 and 2, NREM ( nonrapid eye movement)

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20
Q

involve a deeper sleep called slow-wave sleep, from which a person is more difficult to arouse
-Called slow-wave sleep.

A

Combined stages 3 and 4 NREM ( nonrapid eye movement)

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21
Q

sleep is the phase at the end of each 90-minute sleep cycle.

-Stage usually begins about 90 minutes after sleep has begun.

A

REM (rapid eye movement)

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22
Q

decreases the last sleep stage

A

Hypothyroidism

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23
Q

causes people to take more time to fall asleep.

A

hyperthyroidism

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24
Q

which occurs before sleep onset

  • CNS disorder.
  • risk of lower levels of iron, pregnancy, renal failure, stress, diet, Parkinson’s disease, or a side effect of drugs
A

restless legs syndrome (RLS)

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25
Q

often awaken in the middle of the night

A

peptic ulcer disease

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26
Q

gastric acid secretion and stages of sleep are conflicting.

A

GI conflict with sleep

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27
Q

three problems:

insomnia, abnormal movements or sensation during sleep or when waking up at night, or excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS)

A

Sleep disorders

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28
Q

which classifies sleep disorders into eight major categories

A

International Classification of Sleep Disorders version 2 (ICSD-2)

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29
Q

are sleep disturbances that result in daytime sleepiness and are not caused by disturbed sleep or alterations in circadian rhythms

A

Hypersomnias

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30
Q

are undesirable behaviors that occur usually during sleep.

A

parasomnias

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31
Q

involves the use of EEG, EMG, and EOG to monitor stages of sleep and wakefulness during nighttime sleep.

A

polysomnogram

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32
Q

provides objective information about sleepiness and selected aspects of sleep structure by measuring eye movements, muscle-tone changes, and brain electrical activity during at least four napping opportunities spread throughout the day.
-takes 8 to 10 hours to complete

A

Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)

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33
Q

on the wrist to measure sleep-wake patterns over an extended period of time such as one week.
-data provide information about sleep time, sleep efficiency, number and duration of awakenings, and levels of activity and rest

A

Actigraph device

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34
Q

is symptomatic, including improved sleep-hygiene measures, biofeedback, cognitive techniques, and relaxation techniques

A

Treatment for insomnia

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35
Q

is a disorder in which an individual is unable to breathe and sleep at the same time
-lack of flow 10 seconds to 1 to 2 minutes in length.

A

Sleep apnea

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36
Q

obstructive; central; and mixed apnea, which has both an obstructive and a central component.

A

3 types of sleep apnea

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37
Q

, which is a cessation or stopping of airflow despite the effort to breathe

A

most common form is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA

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38
Q

hypoxic and must awaken to breathe. Structural abnormalities such as a deviated septum, nasal polyps, narrow lower jaw, or enlarged tonsils sometimes
-Obesity and hypertension major risk

A

leads to obstructive sleep apnea:

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39
Q

involves dysfunction in the respiratory control center of the brain.

  • impulse to breathe fails temporarily, and nasal airflow and chest wall movement cease
  • common in brainstem injury, stroke, obesity, muscular dystrophy, and encephalitis.
  • Mild and intermittent snoring is also present.
A

Central sleep apnea (CSA)// type of sleep apnea

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40
Q

is a common complaint in people experiencing OSA and CSA.

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS)

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41
Q

bilevel positive airway pressure (BPAP or BiPAP), continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP),

  • weight-reduction program in people who are obese, improved sleep hygiene
  • surgery, and oral repositioning devices for the jaw and tongue
A

treatments for OSA

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42
Q

is a dysfunction of the processes that regulate sleep and wake states

  • most complaint is . Excessive daytime sleepiness
  • REM sleep occurs within 15 minutes of falling asleep.
  • vivid dreams
  • symptom: Sleep paralysis, or the feeling of being unable to move or talk just before waking or falling asleep,
  • treated wtih stimulants, antidepressant meds
A

Narcolepsy

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43
Q

, or sudden muscle weakness during intense emotions such as anger, sadness, or laughter that occurs at any time during the day, is a symptom of narcolepsy type 1, differentiating it from narcolepsy type 2
-lasts only a few seconds

A

Cataplexy (symptom of Narcolepsy type 1)

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44
Q

is severe, a patient loses voluntary muscle control and falls to the floor

A

cataplectic attack

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45
Q

associated w/ obesity, type 2 diabetes, poor memory, depression, digestive problems, and the development of cardiovascular disease

A

sleep deprivation

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46
Q 
Physiological Symptoms
• Ptosis, blurred vision
• Fine-motor clumsiness
• Decreased reflexes
• Slowed response time
• Decreased reasoning and judgment
• Decreased auditory and visual alertness
• Cardiac arrhythmias
A

sleep deprivation physiological symptoms

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47
Q 
Psychological Symptoms
• Confused and disoriented
• Increased sensitivity to pain
• Irritable, withdrawn, apathetic
• Agitated
• Hyperactive
• Decreased motivation
• Excessive sleepiness
A

sleep deprivation psychological symptoms

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48
Q

are sleep problems that are more common in children

-hypothesized that sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

A

parasomnias

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49
Q

occur among older children include confusional arousals, somnambulism (sleepwalking), night terrors, nightmares, nocturnal enuresis (bed-wetting), body rocking, and bruxism (teeth grinding).

A

Parasomnias (older children)

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50
Q

they are in a state of mental, physical, and spiritual activity that leaves them feeling refreshed, rejuvenated, and ready to resume the activities of the day.

A

rest (does not imply inactivity)

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51
Q

age of 3 months averages about 16 hours of sleep a day

-REM sleep which stimulates the higher brain centers

A

Neonates sleep

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52
Q

usually develop a nighttime pattern of sleep by 3 months of age

  • 8 to 10 hours during the night for a total daily sleep time of 15 hours
  • 30% of sleep is in REM cycle
A

Infants

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53
Q

2 children usually sleep through the night and take daily naps

  • 12 hours day sleep
  • after age 3> give up day time sleep
  • fear of sleep bc autonomy or fear separation from their parents
A

Toddlers

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54
Q

sleeps about 12 hours a night

  • REM 20%
  • age 5 rarley takes day naps
  • awake period the child exhibits brief crying, walking around, unintelligible speech, sleepwalking, or bed-wetting.
A

preschooler

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55
Q

6-year-old averages 11 to 12 hours of sleep nightly, whereas an 11-year-old sleeps about 9 to 10 hours
-older child often resists sleeping because he or she is unaware of fatigue or has a need to be independent.

A

school age

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56
Q

teenagers get about 7 hours or less of sleep per night, although the recommended requirement is 8 to 10 hours
-school demands, after-school social activities, and part-time jobs, which reduce the time spent sleeping

A

Adolescent

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57
Q

6 to 8½ hours of sleep a night

  • 20% sleep time REM
  • common for the stresses of jobs, family relationships, and social activities to frequently lead to insomnia, and some may use medication to help them sleep
  • Pregnancy increases the need for sleep and rest
A

young adult

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58
Q

First-trimester sleep disturbances include a reduction in overall sleep time and quality

A

First-trimester sleep disturbances//young adult

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59
Q

Daytime drowsiness, insomnia, and nighttime awakenings also increase because of frequent nocturnal voiding.

A

second trimester//young adult

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60
Q

Insomnia, periodic limb movements, RLS, and sleep-disordered breathing are common problems during the

A

third trimester of pregnancy //young adult

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61
Q

7 to 9 hours per night

  • night begins to decline.
  • Anxiety, depression, or certain physical illnesses cause sleep disturbances.
  • Women experiencing menopausal symptoms often experience insomnia.
A

Middle adults

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62
Q

spend more time in stage 1 and less time in stages 3 and 4

  • REM sleep tend to shorten. Older adults experience fewer episodes of deep sleep and more episodes of lighter sleep
  • Changes in sleep pattern are often caused by changes in the CNS that affect the regulation of sleep.
  • insomnia have co-morbid psychiatric illness or medical conditions, take medications that disrupt sleep patterns, or use drugs or alcohol.
  • Sensory impairment reduces an older person’s sensitivity to time cues that maintain circadian rhythms.
A

older adults

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63
Q

subjective experience

A

sleep

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64
Q

Hunger, excessive warmth, and separation anxiety

A

disturb infant sleep

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65
Q

contains eight questions about the likeliness of a patient being sleepy during certain activities (e.g., watching television, reading, sitting and talking with someone) on a scale of 0 (would never doze or sleep) to 3 (high chance of dozing or sleeping). A score of 0 to 5 indicates lower normal daytime sleepiness; 6 to 10 is considered higher than normal daytime sleepiness; a score of 11 or 12 is mild excessive daytime sleepiness; 13 to 15 is moderate excessive daytime sleepiness; and a score of 16 to 24 is severe excessive daytime sleepiness

A

Epworth Sleepiness Scale (tool assess sleepiness)

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66
Q

assesses sleep quality and patterns

A

Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index(tool assess sleepiness)

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67
Q

effective method for assessing sleep quality is the use of a
-straight horizontal line 100 mm (4 inches) long. Opposing statements such as “best night’s sleep” and “worst night’s sleep” are at opposite ends of the line. Ask patients to place a mark on the horizontal line at the point corresponding to their perceptions of the previous night’s sleep

A

visual analog scale. (assess quality of sleep)

-used for individual pt not comparison

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68
Q

is a reliable evidence-based tool used to screen for OSA and is frequently used in preanesthesia and/or preoperative assessments

A

STOP-BANG sleep assessment tool

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69
Q

irritability, disorientation (similar to a drunken state), frequent yawning, and slurred speech
-sometimes delusions and paranoia

A

sleep deprivation behaviors

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70
Q

dairy product such as warm milk or cocoa that contains L-tryptophan is often helpful in promoting sleep.

A

snacks increase sleep

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71
Q

Coffee, tea, colas, and chocolate

A

drinks act as stimulants (dont have before bed time)

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72
Q

Caffeinated foods and liquids and alcohol act as

A

caffeine act as diuretics

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73
Q

is a neurohormone produced in the brain that helps control circadian rhythms and promote sleep

A

Melatonin

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74
Q

dose is 0.3 to 3 mg taken 2 hours before bedtime
side effects of nausea, headache, and dizziness being infrequent.
receptor agonist: ramelteon or tasimelteon-// side effect : diarrhea, drowsiness, tiredness and dizziness.

A

Melatonin supplement (promote sleep/ herbal)

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75
Q

who have decreased levels of melatonin find it beneficial as a sleep aid

A

Older adults melatonin

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76
Q

effective in mild insomnia and RLS. (restless leg syndrome)

A

Valerian (herbal product help sleep)

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77
Q

essential oil may improve sleep quality

A

Lavender (oil help w/sleep)

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78
Q

has mild sedative effects and is used as a natural sleep aid

A

Passionflower (maypop) //herb

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79
Q

an herbal tea, has a mild sedative effect that may be beneficial in promoting sleep

A

Chamomile

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80
Q

because of their long duration of action, which can cause confusion, constipation, urinary retention, and an increased risk of falls

A

Caution older adults about using over-the-counter antihistamines

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81
Q

sleep deprivation

A

cause delirium

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82
Q

Teach the patient to elevate the head of the bed and use a side or prone position for sleep.

A

OSA

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83
Q

use CPAP

A

sleep apnea

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84
Q

Elevating their feet on an ottoman or small bench may help to position them safely.

A

people experience EDS

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85
Q
  • become easily fatigued and experience periods of insomnia
  • shorten activities and visits to allow patients to maintain an adequate energy level
  • wakes up during the night, keeping the lights at a low level
  • use music technique or back rub
A

pt w/ dementia >help improve sleep

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86
Q
  • after meals experience gastric reflux
  • prevent sleep disturbances: eat small meal several hrs before bed time
  • sleep in semi-sitting position
  • time medications
A

hiatal hernia

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87
Q

need to be used sparingly and under medical management

A

CNS stimulants such as amphetamines, caffeine, nicotine, terbutaline, theophylline, and modafinil

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88
Q

such as alcohol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline, imipramine, and doxepin), and triazolam causes insomnia

A

CNS depressants cause insomnia

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89
Q

Medications that induce sleep are called

A

hypnotics

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90
Q

are medications that produce a calming or soothing effect

A

Sedatives

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91
Q

are commonly used to treat sleep problems and are intended for short-term use

  • treat insomnia
  • relaxation, antianxiety, and hypnotic effects by facilitating the action of neurons in the CNS =decrease level of arousal
A

Benzodiazepines and benzodiazepine-like drugs

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92
Q

acting medication such as ? for short-term use (no longer than 2 to 3 weeks)

A

zolpidem (Ambien)

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93
Q

at the lowest possible dose for short-term treatment of insomnia are recommended.

  • -cause also cause respiratory depression; next-day sedation; amnesia; rebound insomnia; and impaired motor functioning and coordination, which leads to an increased risk of falls
  • contraindicated in infants less than 6 months old.
A

Short-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., oxazepam, lorazepam, or temazepam)

94
Q

sulfonamides, thiazide diuretics, oral hypoglycemic agents, tetracycline.

A

Drugs may increase sunlight sensitivity and give burn response

95
Q

antimalarials, anticancer agents, hormones, metals, and tetracycline.

A

cause hyperpigmentation

96
Q

is a problem after stopping a medication, particularly the benzodiazepines

A

Rebound insomnia

97
Q

, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production and maturation in bone marrow.

A

Erythropoietin

98
Q

(decreased blood supply), renin is released from juxtaglomerular cells.

A

renal ischemia

99
Q

renin is released from

A

juxtaglomerular cells.

100
Q

can have problems such as anemia, hypertension, and electrolyte imbalances.

A

Patients with kidney impairment

101
Q
  • a fixed base called the trigone

- distensible body called the detrusor.

A

bladder has 2 parts

102
Q

Urination, micturition, and voiding are

A

all terms that describe the process of bladder emptying.

103
Q

.-one coordinates inhibition of bladder contraction;

-other coordinates bladder contractility

A

2 micturition centers in the spinal cord

104
Q

, most people experience a strong sensation of urgency

A

bladder fills to approximately 400 to 600 mL

105
Q

is the inability to partially or completely empty the bladder

A

Urinary retention

106
Q

is the amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding and is measured either by ultrasound or straight catheterization

A

Postvoid residual (PVR)

107
Q

Incontinence caused by urinary retention is called

A

overflow incontinence or incontinence associated with chronic retention of urine.

108
Q

In the absence of symptoms, the presence of bacteria in the urine as found on a urine culture is called
-not infection

A

asymptomatic bacteriuria

109
Q

Symptomatic infection of the bladder can lead to a serious upper UTI

A

(pyelonephritis)

110
Q

can include burning or pain with urination (dysuria)

A

Symptoms of a lower UTI (bladder)

111
Q

irritation of the characterized by urgency, frequency, incontinence, or suprapubic tenderness; and foul-smelling cloudy urine

A

bladder (cystitis)

112
Q

are the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter and the length of its use

A

catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)

113
Q

is defined as the “complaint of any involuntary loss of urine”

A

Urinary incontinence (UI)

114
Q

is defined as urinary urgency, often accompanied by increased urinary frequency and nocturia that may or may not be associated with urgency incontinence and is present without obvious bladder pathology or infection.

A

Overactive bladder

115
Q

UI associated with chronic retention of urine (formally called ?is urine leakage caused by an overfull bladder.

A

overflow UI)

116
Q

is caused by factors that prohibit or interfere with a patient’s access to the toilet

A

Functional UI

117
Q

This describes incontinence that has multiple interacting risk factors, some within the urinary tract and others not, such as multiple chronic illnesses, medications, age-related factors, and environmental factors

A

multifactorial incontinence

118
Q

Patients who have had the bladder removed (cystectomy) because of cancer or significant bladder dysfunction related to radiation injury or neurogenic dysfunction with frequent UTI require surgical procedures that divert urine to the outside of the body through an opening in the abdominal wall called a stoma

A

(cystectomy)

119
Q
  1. a continent urinary reservoir
  2. Ureterostomy (ileal conduit).
    - which is created from a distal part of the ileum and proximal part of the colon
A

2 types of continent urinary diversions

120
Q

. The first is called a continent urinary reservoir

A

2 types of continent urinary diversions

121
Q

creates a one-way valve in the pouch through which a catheter is inserted through the 1155stoma to empty the urine from the pouch

A

ileocecal valve

122
Q

are small tubes that are tunneled through the skin into the renal pelvis.
-These tubes are placed to drain the renal pelvis when the ureter is obstructed

A

Nephrostomy tubes

123
Q

are small tubes that are tunneled through the skin into the renal pelvis.

A

Nephrostomy tubes

124
Q

foreskin will become tight and cannot be retracted

A

(phimosis)

125
Q

Retracted foreskins can cause dangerous swelling

A

(paraphimosis) of the penis

126
Q

are used to treat urinary urgency.

A

antimuscarinics (e.g., oxybutynin and trospium)// medication

127
Q

is an autoimmune disorder
-Affected persons are permanently intolerant of gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, rye, and some commercially produced oats.
-When gluten is ingested, immune-mediated inflammation results in damage to the small intestine and in malabsorption
common symptoms of diarrhea, abdominal pain, and abdominal distention

A

Celiac disease

128
Q

examination of blood serum, esp regard to response of immune system to pathogens.

A

serology testing

129
Q

is a loss of appetite from GI disease as a side effect to some medications, with pregnancy, or with mental health disorders.

A

Anorexia

130
Q

occurs with disorders of the throat or esophagus, such as thrush (candida infection), neurologic changes (e.g., stroke), or obstruction (e.g., solid mass or tumor).

A

Dysphagia

131
Q

(e.g., lactase deficiency resulting in bloating or excessive gas after taking milk products).

A

Food intolerance

132
Q

(heartburn), a burning sensation in esophagus and stomach from reflux of gastric acid.

A

Pyrosis

133
Q

(belching).

A

Eructation

134
Q

(dull, general, poorly localized)

A

visceral from an internal organ (pain description)

135
Q

(sharp, precisely localized, aggravated by movement); or referred from a disorder in another site

A

parietal from inflammation of overlying peritoneum (pain description)

136
Q

appendicitis, cholecystitis, bowel obstruction, or a perforated organ.

A

Acute pain requiring urgent diagnosis occurs with

137
Q

occurs with stomach or duodenal ulcers and esophageal varices.

A

Hematemesis

138
Q

occurs with GI bleeding or localized bleeding around the anus (e.g., hemorrhoids).

A

Red blood in stools

139
Q

Irregular eating patterns are common and a source of

A

parental anxiety (infants)

140
Q

Although a toddler may attempt nonfoods at some time, he or she should recognize edibles by age 2 years.

A

Pica (infants)

141
Q

inflammation of the bowel, constipation, urinary tract infection, and anxiety.

A

Abdominal pain accompanies

142
Q

anorexia nervosa.

A

Amenorrhea is common with

143
Q

caves in

A

Scaphoid abdomen

144
Q

abdominal distention

A

Protuberant abdomen indicates

145
Q

—Protrusion of abdominal viscera through abnormal opening in muscle wall

A

Hernia

146
Q

is a hard nodule in umbilicus that occurs with metastatic cancer of stomach, large intestine, ovary, or pancreas.

A

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

147
Q

with ascites or underlying mass

A

Everted with (umbilicus)

148
Q

(though rarely) with intraperitoneal bleeding (Cullen sign)

A

Bluish periumbilical color occurs

149
Q

Enlarged, everted with

A

umbilical hernia.

150
Q

Normally it is midline and inverted, with no sign of discoloration, inflammation, or hernia. It becomes everted and pushed upward with pregnancy.

A

normal umbilicus

151
Q

Skin glistening and taut with

A

ascites. (skin appearance)

152
Q

(lineae albicantes)—silvery white, linear, jagged marks about 1 to 6 cm long

A

One common pigment change is striae

153
Q

excess adrenocortical hor­mone causes the skin to be fragile and easily broken from normal stretching

A

Striae look purple-blue with Cushing syndrome (

154
Q

—circumscribed brown macular or papular areas—are common on the abdomen.

A

Pigmented nevi (moles)

155
Q

occur with portal hypertension or liver disease.

A

Spider angiomas

156
Q

occur with portal hypertension, cirrhosis, ascites, or vena caval obstruction.

A

Prominent, dilated veins (caput medusae)

157
Q

as a result of thinned adipose tissue.

A

Veins are more visible with malnutrition

158
Q

dehydration, which often accompanies GI disease.

A

Poor turgor occurs with

159
Q

Patterns alter with endocrine or hormone abnormalities,

A

chronic liver disease.

160
Q

pattern of pubic hair growth normally has a diamond shape in adult males and an inverted triangle shape in adult females

A

pattern of pubic hair growth in male n female (endocrine)

161
Q

comfortable person is relaxed quietly on the examining table and has a benign facial expression and slow, even respirations.

A

demeanor (way of looking or behaving)

162
Q

follow abdominal surgery or with inflammation of the peritoneum

A

Hypoactive or absent sounds

163
Q

is are loud, high-pitched, rushing, tinkling sounds that signal increased motility.

A

Hyperactive sound

164
Q

It is systolic, medium to low in pitch, and heard between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.

A

(usually younger than 40 years) may have a normal bruit originating from the celiac artery.

165
Q

is a pulsatile blowing sound and occurs with stenosis, partial occlusion, or aneurysm of an artery.

A

systolic bruit

166
Q

contents and to screen for abnormal fluid or masses.

A

Percuss to assess the relative density of abdominal

167
Q

over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass.

A

Dullness occurs

168
Q

is present with gaseous distention.

A

Hyperresonance

169
Q

if chronic obstructive lung disease is present

A

upper liver border is overestimated if

170
Q

are obscured if obesity or ascites is present.

A

both upper and lower edges (liver)

171
Q

the upper and lower borders of the liver were identified by

A

percussion to estimate liver span

172
Q

palpation is more reliable than percussion

-if percussed= dull

A

Screening for splenomegaly

173
Q

Detection of a distended bladder through percussion is also omitted due to unreliability.10 Bedside bladder scanning with ultrasound is commonly used to estimate bladder volume.

A

screening for bladder

174
Q

and to screen for an abnormal mass or tenderness.

A

Perform palpation to judge the size, location, and consistency of certain organs

175
Q

when the person is cold, tense, or ticklish.

A

Voluntary guarding occurs

176
Q

uterus

A

gravid

177
Q

abnormally firm liver may indicate (palpating)

A

cirrhosis

178
Q

The researchers recommend the scratch test if the abdomen is distended, obese, or too tender for palpation or if muscles are rigid or guarded.7

A

Scratch Test recommended when

179
Q

Normally the spleen is not palpable and must be enlarged 3 times its normal size to be felt

A

Spleen (imp info) not palpable

180
Q

returning from travel to areas where malaria is endemic

A

malaria in persons with fever and splenomegaly

181
Q

Occasionally you may feel the lower pole of the right kidney as a round, smooth mass that slides between your fingers. (normal)

A

right kidney palpation description

182
Q

Using your opposing thumb and fingers, palpate the aortic pulsation in the upper abdomen slightly to the left of midline

A

aortic pulsation in the upper abdomen slightly to the left of midline

183
Q

he blow will generate a fluid wave through the abdomen, and you will feel a distinct tap on your left hand

A

If ascites is present, you will feel

184
Q

when you elicit tenderness during palpation. Choose a site remote from the painful area. Hold your hand 90 degrees, or perpendicular, to the abdomen. Push down slowly and deeply; then lift up quickly. This makes structures that are indented by palpation rebound suddenly.
-A normal, or negative, response is no pain on release of pressure. Perform this test at the end of the examination because it can cause severe pain and muscle rigidity.

A

Rebound Tenderness

185
Q

Pain on release of pressure confirms rebound tenderness, which is a reliable sign of peritoneal inflammation. Peritoneal inflammation accompanies appendicitis.

A

positive Rebound Tenderness

186
Q

that is localized to a specific spot also signals peritoneal irritation.

A

Cough tenderness

187
Q

inflammation of the gallbladder, pain occurs.

A

cholecystitis

188
Q
  • This sign is less accurate in patients older than 60 years
  • test is positive, as the descending liver pushes the inflamed gallbladder onto the examining hand, the person feels sharp pain and abruptly stops inspiration midway.
A

Inspiratory Arrest (Murphy Sign)

189
Q

Draw a straight line from the anterior superior spinous process of the ileum to the umbilicus. McBurney point is located 1.5 to 2 inches from the ileum along this line. (McBurney point is at the hand placement in

A

McBurney Point Tenderness

190
Q

Perform the iliopsoas muscle test when the acute abdominal pain of appendicitis is suspected. With the person supine, lift the right leg straight up, flexing at the hip

A

Iliopsoas Muscle Test (appendix test)

191
Q

(which occurs with an inflamed or perforated appendix), pain is felt in the RLQ, and the test is positive

A

iliopsoas muscle is inflamed

192
Q

lift the person’s right leg, flexing at the hip, and 90 degrees at the knee. Hold his or her ankle, and rotate the leg internally and externally. There should be no pain.

A

Obturator Test. (appendix test)

193
Q

inflamed appendix irritates the obturator muscle, and this leg movement produces pain in a positive finding.

A

Obturator Test.

194
Q
  • Alvarado score of ≥7 increases the probability of appendicitis.
  • score of 4 or less significantly decreases the probability of appendicitis
A

Alvarado Score aka MANTRELS score (appendix test)

195
Q
  • contour of the abdomen is protuberant because of the immature abdominal musculature.
    -The skin contains a fine, superficial venous pattern.
    -Abnormalities: Scaphoid shape occurs with dehydration.
    Dilated veins.
A

infant abdomen

196
Q

presence of only one artery signals the risk for congenital defects.

A

abnormal finding of infant abdomen

197
Q
  1. umbilical hernia- disappears by 1 yr age (2.5 cm/1 in)

2. diastasis recti- (bulge out mainly in black infants n disappear by early childhood)

A

abdomen should be symmetric, although two bulges are common.

198
Q

Refer diastasis recti lasting more than 6 years.

A

refer abdomen bulge of diastasis recti

199
Q

larger than 2.5 cm; continuing to grow after 1 month; or lasting for more than 2 years in a white child or for more than 7 years in a black child.

A

Refer any umbilical hernia

200
Q

Marked peristalsis with

A

pyloric stenosis (gastric outlet obstruction)

201
Q

normal to percuss dullness over the bladder. This dullness may extend up to the umbilicus.

A

infant percussion over bladder

202
Q
  • is normal to feel the liver edge at the right costal margin or 1 to 2 cm below
  • you may palpate the spleen tip and both kidneys and the bladder
  • easily palpated are the cecum in the RLQ and the sigmoid colon, which feels like a sausage in the left inguinal area.
A

palpate organs in infant (GO OVER)

203
Q

.-a sticky, greenish-black meconium stool within 24 hours of birth.

  • 4th day, stools of breastfed babies are golden yellow, pasty, and smell like sour milk
  • formula-fed babies are brown-yellow, firmer, and more fecal smelling
A

newborn’s first stool

204
Q
  • Younger than 4 years, the abdomen looks protuberant when the child is both supine and standing.
  • After age 4 years the potbelly remains when standing because of lumbar lordosis, but the abdomen looks flat when supine.
  • Normal movement on the abdomen includes respirations, which remain abdominal until 7 years of age
A

children abdomen development at different ages/stages

205
Q

On the left the spleen also is easily palpable with a well-defined movable edge. Usually you can feel 1 to 2 cm of the right kidney and the tip of the left kidney.

A

child organs that able to be palpable

206
Q

objective signs to aid assessment, such as a cry changing in pitch as you palpate, facial grimacing, moving away from you, and guarding.

A

assessing abdominal tenderness in child

207
Q

-liver is easier to palpate. Normally you will feel the liver edge at or just below the costal margin. With distended lungs and a depressed diaphragm, the liver is palpated lower, descending 1 to 2 cm below the costal margin with inhalation. The kidneys are easier to palpate.

A

Aging adult organs to palpate

208
Q

, which is a liver infection.

A

viral hepatitis

209
Q

A, B, and C.

A

3 major types of hepatitis:

210
Q

are spread through blood and body fluids, for example by sharing contaminated needles or by sexual contact.
-cause a brief period of illness, then either be cleared from the body entirely or go on to cause a long-term, or chronic, infection.

A

Hepatitis B and C spread by

211
Q

is especially common with hepatitis C

A

Chronic infection (hepatitis C)

212
Q

Chronic hepatitis can eventually cause the liver to fail by causing liver scarring
-increase risk liver cancer

A

(fibrosis and cirrhosis).//hepatits C

213
Q

through blood testing

A

screening for hepatitis B and C

214
Q

is highest among people born in countries with high HBV infection prevalence, people born in the United States but not vaccinated in infancy with parents who were born in high-risk countries, people with HIV-positive status, users of injection drugs, men who have sex with men, and people with sexual partners with HBV or who have household contacts with HBV.

A

risk for hepatitis B (HBV)

215
Q

include people with a current or past history of injection drug use and people with additional risk factors: blood transfusion before 1992, birth year between 1945 and 1965, unregulated tattoos, birth to an HCV-infected mother, and long-term hemodialysis.

A

highest risk for HCV

216
Q

Inflammation of the appendix usually produces RLQ pain to palpation, with maximal tenderness sometimes occurring over McBurney point

A

McBurney Point Tenderness (appendix test)

217
Q

Rebound tenderness occurring in the right lower quadrant when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant may indicate appendicitis
-refer to screen for computed tomography (CT) scanning.

A

Blumberg sign

218
Q

In a supine person ascitic fluid settles by gravity into the flanks, displacing the air-filled bowel to the periumbilical space.

  • fluid is present, the note will change from tympany to dull
  • level of dullness is higher, upward toward the umbilicus.
  • it will not detect less than 500 to 1100 mL of fluid
A

second test for ascites is percussing for shifting dullness.

219
Q

sits 1 cm higher than the right kidney and is not palpable normally

A

left kidney description

220
Q

This traditional technique uses auscultation to detect the lower border of the liver. Place the stethoscope over the xiphoid process while lightly stroking the skin with one finger up the MCL from the RLQ and parallel to the liver border. When you reach the liver edge, the sound is magnified in the stethoscope.

A

Scratch Test

221
Q

is a constant, boardlike hardness of the muscles. It is a protective mechanism accompanying acute inflammation of the peritoneum.

A

involuntary rigidity

222
Q

Sharp pain occurs with

A

inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area, as in pyelonephritis.

223
Q

clear to green or brown.

A

fasting gastric secretions range from

224
Q

, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production and maturation in bone marrow.

A

Erythropoietin

225
Q

(decreased blood supply), renin is released from juxtaglomerular cells.

A

renal ischemia

226
Q

renin is released from

A

juxtaglomerular cells.

227
Q

can have problems such as anemia, hypertension, and electrolyte imbalances.

A

Patients with kidney impairment

228
Q

In the absence of symptoms, the presence of bacteria in the urine as found on a urine culture is called
-not infection

A

asymptomatic bacteriuria

229
Q

foreskin will become tight and cannot be retracted

A

(phimosis)

230
Q

Retracted foreskins can cause dangerous swelling

A

(paraphimosis) of the penis

Mental status (69 decks)

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