ch 16 Jarvis Ears Flashcards

1
Q

the external ear, the middle ear, and the inner ear

A

three parts of ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

is called the auricle or pinna and consists of movable cartilage and skin

A

external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

serves to funnel sound waves into its opening

-terminates at the eardrum, or tympanic membrane (TM)

A

external auditory canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is lined with glands that secrete cerumen, a yellow, waxy material that lubricates and protects the ear.

A

canal (of the external auditory canal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

forms a sticky barrier that helps keep foreign bodies from entering and reaching the sensitive tympanic membrane.

A

wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

migrates out to the meatus by the movements of chewing and talking.

A

Cerumen (waxy stuff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

separates the external and middle ear and is tilted obliquely to the ear canal, facing downward and somewhat forward. It is translucent with a pearly gray color and a prominent cone of light in the anteroinferior quadrant, which is the reflection of the otoscope light

A

tympanic membrane (TM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is oval and slightly concave, pulled in at its center by one of the middle ear ossicles, the malleus

A

drum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

; these are the umbo, the manubrium (handle), and the short process.

A

parts of the malleus show through the translucent drum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

small, slack, superior section of the TM is called the

A

pars flaccida (part of tm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

remainder of the drum, which is thicker and more taut, is the

A

pars tensa(part of tm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is the outer fibrous rim of the drum

A

annulus(part of tm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

flows to the parotid, mastoid, and superficial cervical nodes.

A

Lymphatic drainage of the external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

is a tiny air-filled cavity inside the temporal bone

A

middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the malleus, incus, and stapes

-outer ear is covered by the tympanic membrane

A

tiny ear bones, or auditory ossicles (middle ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are the oval window at the end of the stapes and the round window

A

openings to the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Another opening is? , which connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx and allows passage of air

  • tube is normally closed, but it opens with swallowing or yawning.
  • Retracted drum due to vacuum in middle ear with obstructed eustachian tube
A

the eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(1) it conducts sound vibrations from the outer ear to the central hearing apparatus in the inner ear;
(2) it protects the inner ear by reducing the amplitude of loud sounds;
(3) its eustachian tube allows equalization of air pressure on each side of the tympanic membrane so the membrane does not rupture (e.g., during altitude changes in an airplane)

A

middle ear has three functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

, which holds the sensory organs for equilibrium and hearing

A

bony labyrinth (inner ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Within the bony labyrinth, the vestibule and the semicircular canals comprise the ?, and the cochlea

A

vestibular apparatus (inner ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

contains the central hearing apparatus

A

cochlea (inner ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

, the bony prominence behind the lobule, is not part of the ear but is an important landmark.

A

mastoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

peripheral, brainstem, and cerebral cortex

A

function of hearing involves the auditory system at three levels:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the ear transmits sound and converts its vibrations into electrical impulses, which can be analyzed by the brain

A

peripheral level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

is how loud

A

amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

is the pitch

-number of cycles per second

A

frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

, the sensory organ of hearing

A

organ of Corti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. tympanic meme
  2. stapes embedded in oval window
  3. basilar membrane of cochlea contain organ of corti hair cells
A

pathway of hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

loss involves a mechanical dysfunction of the external or middle ear

  • caused by impacted cerumen, foreign bodies, a perforated tympanic membrane, pus or serum in the middle ear, and otosclerosis (a decrease in mobility of the ossicles)
  • partial loss because the person is able to hear if the sound amplitude is increased enough to reach normal nerve elements in the inner ear
A

conductive hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

loss signifies pathology of the inner ear, cranial nerve VIII, or the auditory areas of the cerebral cortex
-simple increase in amplitude may not enable the person to understand words

A

Sensorineural (or perceptive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hearing loss may be caused by presbycusis, a gradual nerve degeneration that occurs with aging, and by ototoxic drugs, which affect the hair cells in the cochlea.

A

Sensorineural (or perceptive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

, in the inner ear constantly feed information to your brain about the position of your body in space
-work like plumb lines to determine verticality or depth

A

3 semicircular canals, or labyrinth (equilibrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

of the ear register the angle of your head in relation to gravity.

A

plumb lines(equilibrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

labyrinth ever becomes inflamed, it feeds the wrong information to the brain, creating a staggering gait and a strong spinning, whirling sensation called

A

vertigo.(equilibrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

inner ear starts to develop early in the

A

5th week of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

occurs during the 1st trimester, it can damage the organ of Corti and impair hearing.

A

maternal rubella infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

is relatively shorter and wider, and its position is more horizontal than the adult’s; thus it is easier for pathogens from the nasopharynx to migrate through to the middle ear. The lumen is surrounded by lymphoid tissue, which increases during childhood; thus the lumen is easily occluded. = high rick for child gain ear infection

A

infant’s eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

are shorter and have a slope opposite to that of the adult’s.

A

infant’s and the young child’s external ear canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

is a cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults between the ages of 20 and 40 years. It is a gradual bone formation that causes the footplate of the stapes to become fixed in the oval window, impeding the transmission of sound and causing progressive deafness.

A

Otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cilia lining the ear canal become coarse and stiff.

- cause cerumen to accumulate and oxidize, which greatly reduces hearing

A

Aging Adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

also blocks conduction in those wearing hearing aids.

A

Cerumen impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

are wax-softening agents that expedite removal with electric or manual irrigators

A

Ceruminolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

sensorineural loss that affects the middle ear structures or causes damage to nerve cells in the inner ear or to cranial nerve VIII. The person first notices a high-frequency tone loss, such as difficulty hearing a phone ringing
-hearing loss is accentuated with competing background noise

A

Age-related hearing loss (presbycusis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

affects men more than women of the same age, and there is a lower prevalence among African Americans compared with whites or Hispanics.
- current theories relate to melanin pigment protection in the cochlea or other environmental factors

A

Presbycusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

, occurs because of obstruction of the eustachian tube or passage of nasopharyngeal secretions into the middle ear.

  • 1-3yrs old
  • risk fact: absence of breastfeeding in the first 3 months of age, preterm birth, exposure to secondhand tobacco smoke (SHS), daycare attendance, male sex, pacifier use, seasonality (fall and winter), and bottle-feeding
  • sticky, yellow discharge
  • drum has ruptured.
  • Redness and swelling occur with otitis externa; canal may be completely closed with swelling.
A

Otitis media, or OM (middle ear infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

is genetically determined, with two distinct types. Wet, honey-brown wax occurs in Caucasians and African Americans, and a dry, flaky white wax is found in East Asians and American Indians

A

Cerumen

47
Q

occurs directly from ear disease or is referred pain from a problem in teeth or oropharynx.

A

Otalgia

48
Q

suggests infected canal or perforated eardrum such as
External otitis—Purulent, sanguineous, or watery discharge.
Acute OM with perforation—Purulent discharge.

A

Otorrhea

49
Q

—Dirty yellow-gray discharge, foul odor.

A

Cholesteatoma

50
Q

—Ear pain occurs first, stops with a popping sensation; then drainage occurs.
- shows as a dark oval area or as a larger opening on the drum.

A

perforation

51
Q

is gradual onset over years, bilateral, mostly high-frequency loss, worse in noisy environments, whereas a trauma hearing loss is often sudden

A

Presbycusis

52
Q

—A hearing loss with low-intensity speech, but sound actually becomes painful when speaker repeats in a loud voice.

A

Recruitment

53
Q

Person lip-reads or watches your face and lips closely rather than your eyes

  1. Frowns or strains forward to hear
  2. Postures head to catch sounds with better ear
  3. Misunderstands your questions or frequently asks you to repeat
  4. Acts irritable or shows startle reflex when you raise your voice (recruitment)
  5. Person’s speech sounds garbled, possibly vowel sounds distorted
  6. Inappropriately loud voice
  7. Flat, monotonous tone of voice
A

indicate unreported hearing loss

54
Q

is the perception of sound without an external source1a; it occurs with sensorineural hearing loss, cerumen impaction, middle ear infection, and other ear disorders.

  • ringing, roaring, buzzing in ear
  • cause sleep disturbance, depression, or anxiety and be so debilitating that person cannot lead a normal life
A

Tinnitus

55
Q

aminoglycoside antibiotics and the anticancer drug cisplatin (loss in 60% to 65% of patients).
2 Also possibly furosemide, vancomycin, and chronic use of aspirin.

A

ototoxic drugs

56
Q

is the most common type of vertigo, with brief (<1 minute) spinning sensations. Occurs with dysfunction of labyrinth. Increases risk for falls and doing daily activities.5 Feeling of spinning of person (subjective vertigo) or of objects around person (objective vertigo).

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

57
Q

first episode within 3 months of life increases risk for

-infants (ear infection)

A

recurrent OM.

58
Q

is 3 episodes in past 3 months or 4 within past year.

A

Recurrent OM

59
Q

: those exposed to maternal rubella or maternal ototoxic drugs in utero; premature infants; low-birth-weight infants; trauma or hypoxia at birth; and infants with congenital liver or kidney disease
-incidence of meningitis, measles, mumps, OM, and any illness with persistent high fever may

A

Children at risk for hearing deficit

60
Q

—ears larger than 10 cm

A

macrotia

61
Q

—ears smaller than 4 cm vertically

A

Microtia

62
Q

, a small, painless nodule at the helix. This is a congenital variation

A

Darwin tubercle

63
Q

Red-blue discoloration with swelling of auricle after exposure to extreme cold. Vesicles or bullae may develop, the person feels pain and tenderness, and ear necrosis may ensue.

A

frostbite. (

External Ear Abnormalities)

64
Q

Pain at the mastoid process may indicate

A

mastoiditis or enlarged posterior auricular node.

65
Q

Pull the pinna down on an infant and a child younger than 3 years
-Pull the pinna up and back on an adult or older child; this helps straighten the S-shape of the canal

A

Inspect with the Otoscope

66
Q

Purulent otorrhea suggests

  • pinna and tragus, redness and swelling of pinna and canal, scanty purulent discharge, scaling, itching, fever, and enlarged tender regional lymph nodes.
  • More common in hot, humid weather. Swimming causes canal to become waterlogged and swell; skinfolds set up for infection. Prevent by using rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops after every swim
A

otitis ex­terna (Swimmer’s Ear)//External Ear Abnormalities

67
Q

Frank blood or clear, watery drainage (cerebrospinal fluid [CSF]) after head injury suggests

A

basal skull fracture

68
Q

Yellow-amber drum color occurs with OM with effusion (serous).
Red color with acute OM.
Absent or distorted landmarks
-Bulging drum due to increased pressure
-Ear pain and ear rubbing are associated with acute OM, as are a bulging red eardrum and middle ear effusion. Fever is usually present but not always

A

OM

69
Q

gives a precise quantitative measure of hearing by assessing the person’s ability to hear sounds of varying frequency.

A

pure tone audiometer

70
Q

person is unable to hear whispered items. A whisper is a high-frequency sound and is used to detect high-tone loss.
-passing score is correct repetition of 4 of a possible 6 numbers/letters. Assess the other ear using yet another set of whispered items “4, K, 2.”

A

Whispered Voice Test

71
Q

measure hearing by air conduction (AC) or bone conduction (BC), in which the sound vibrates through the cranial bones to the inner ear. The AC route through the ear canal and middle ear is usually the more sensitive route. If hearing loss is identified by history or whispered voice test, tuning fork tests traditionally were used to distinguish conductive loss from sensorineural loss
-tests may help distinguish conductive loss from sensorineural loss. But they cannot screen a conductive loss from a mixed conductive/sensorineural loss.

A

Tuning fork tests

72
Q

is more accurate in detecting conductive hearing loss.

A

Rinne test

73
Q

assesses the ability of the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear to help maintain standing balance. Because the Romberg test also assesses intactness of the cerebellum and proprioception

A

Romberg test

74
Q

=—Absence or closure of the ear canal.

A

Atresia

75
Q

position of the eardrum is more horizontal in the neonate, making it more difficult to see completely and harder to differentiate from the canal wall.
by 1 month of age the drum is in the oblique (more vertical) position as in the older child, and examination is a bit easier

A

infant exam

76
Q

attachment enables you to direct a light puff of air toward the drum to assess vibratility

A

pneumatic bulb (infant/child)

77
Q

indicates effusion or a high vacuum in the middle ear. For the newborn’s first 6 weeks, drum immobility is the best indicator of middle ear infection.

A

Drum hypomobility

78
Q

tympanostomy tube in the central part of the eardrum. This is inserted surgically to equalize pressure and drain secretions.

A

Chronic OM relieved

79
Q

—Startle (Moro) reflex, acoustic blink reflex

A

Newborn (Test Hearing Acuity.)

80
Q

—Acoustic blink reflex, infant stops movement and appears to “listen,” stops sucking, quiets if crying, cries if quiet

A

3 to 4 months(Test Hearing Acuity.)

81
Q

—Infant turns head to localize sound, responds to own name

A

6 to 8 months(Test Hearing Acuity.)

82
Q

—Child must be screened with audiometry

A

Preschool and school-age child

83
Q

will be checked before the baby leaves the hospital or during the first month of life

A

newborn (1 month of life) baby’s hearing

84
Q

who do not pass the hearing screening should be scheduled immediately for a follow-up appointment with a pediatric audiologist. This examination must happen by age 3 months.

A

3 = All infants (baby’s hearing)

85
Q

If the follow-up examination confirms that the baby has hearing loss, the baby must receive appropriate interventions by ? months of age, including hearing devices and early communication intervention (e.g., lipreading, signed English, American Sign Language, or others).

A

6 months of age

86
Q

Two different tests are used for newborn hearing screening

-The baby can rest or sleep during both tests; each test takes 5 to10 minutes.

A

(1) otoacoustic emissions (OAE) test

2) auditory brainstem response (ABR

87
Q

—for this test a soft probe is placed just inside the baby’s ear canal to measure the response (echo) when clicks or tones are played into the baby’s ears,

A

otoacoustic emissions (OAE) test

88
Q

—clicks or tones are played through soft earphones placed over the baby’s ears while electrodes placed on the baby’s head measure how the auditory nerve and brainstem carry sound from the ear to the brain

A

auditory brainstem response (ABR)

89
Q

facial remnant or leftover of the embryologic branchial arch usually appears as a skin tag; in this case, one containing cartilage. Occurs most often in the preauricular area, in front of the tragus. When bilateral, there is increased risk for renal anomalies.

A

Branchial Remnant and Ear Deformity

External Ear Abnormalities

90
Q

Inflammation of loose, subcutaneous connective tissue. Shows as thickening and induration of auricle with distorted contours

A

Cellulitis(External Ear Abnormalities)

91
Q

Painful nodules develop on rim of helix (where there is no cushioning subcutaneous tissue) as a result of repetitive mechanical pressure or environmental trauma (sunlight). They are small, indurated, dull red, poorly defined, and very painful.

A

Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicus/ (Lumps and Lesions on the Ear)

92
Q

Trauma to the side of the head may lead to a basilar skull fracture involving the temporal bone. This shows as ecchymotic discoloration just posterior to the pinna and over the mastoid process. A look inside the ear canal may show hemotympanum as well

A

Battle Sign/ (Lumps and Lesions on the Ear)

93
Q

Location is commonly behind lobule in the postauricular fold. A nodule with central black punctum indicates blocked sebaceous gland. It is filled with waxy sebaceous material and painful if it becomes infected. Often are multiple.

A

Sebaceous Cyst / (Lumps and Lesions on the Ear)

94
Q

Small, whitish yellow, hard, nontender nodules in or near helix or antihelix; contain greasy, chalky material of uric acid crystals and are a sign of gout.

A

Tophi/ (Lumps and Lesions on the Ear)

95
Q

Overgrowth of scar tissue, which invades original site of trauma. It is more common in darkly pigmented people, although it also occurs in whites. In the ear it is most common at lobule at site of a pierced ear. Overgrowth shown here is unusually large.

A

Keloid/ (Lumps and Lesions on the Ear)

96
Q

Ulcerated, crusted nodule with indurated base that fails to heal. Bleeds intermittently. Must refer for biopsy. Usually occurs on the superior rim of the pinna, which has the most sun exposure. May occur also in ear canal and show chronic discharge that is either serosanguineous or bloody

A

Carcinoma/ (Lumps and Lesions on the Ear)

97
Q

Produced or is impacted because of narrow, tortuous canal or poor cleaning method. May show as round ball partially obscuring drum or totally occluding canal.
-when cerumen expands after swimming or showering), person has ear fullness and sudden hearing loss.

A

Excessive Cerumen (Ear Canal Abnormalities)

98
Q

Severe swelling of canal, inflammation, tenderness. In the figure above, canal lumen is narrowed to one-fourth normal size.

A
Otitis Externa (
Ear Canal Abnormalities)
99
Q

Common objects are beans, corn, breakfast cereals, jewelry beads, small stones, sponge rubber. Cotton is most common in adults and becomes impacted from cotton-tipped applicators. A trapped live insect is rare but makes the person especially frantic.

A
Foreign Body (children place)//  (
Ear Canal Abnormalities)
100
Q

Single, stony hard, rounded nodule that obscures the drum; nontender; overlying skin appears normal. Attached to inner third, the bony part, of canal. Benign, but refer for removal.

A

Osteoma// (

Ear Canal Abnormalities)

101
Q

More common than osteoma. Small, bony hard, rounded nodules of hypertrophic bone, covered with normal epithelium. Arise near the drum but usually do not obstruct the view of the drum. Usually multiple and bilateral, occur more frequently in cold-water swimmers. Needs no treatment, although may cause accumulation of cerumen, which blocks the canal.

A

Exostosis/ (Ear Canal Abnormalities)

102
Q

Arises in canal from granulomatous or mucosal tissue; redder than surrounding skin and bleeds easily; bathed in foul, purulent discharge; indicates chronic ear disease. Benign but refer for excision.

A

Polyp/ (Ear Canal Abnormalities)

103
Q

Exquisitely painful, reddened, infected hair follicle. It may occur on tragus on cartilaginous part of ear canal. Regional lymphadenopathy often accompanies a furuncle.

A

Furuncle/ (Ear Canal Abnormalities)

104
Q

Landmarks look more prominent and well defined. Malleus handle looks shorter and more horizontal than normal. Short process is very prominent. Light reflex is absent or distorted. The drum is dull and lusterless and does not move. These signs indicate negative pressure and middle ear vacuum from obstructed eustachian tube and serous otitis media

A

Retracted Drum// (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

105
Q

amber-yellow drum suggests serum in middle ear that transudes to relieve negative pressure from the blocked eustachian tube. You may note an air/fluid level with a fine black dividing line or air bubbles visible behind drum. Symptoms are feeling of fullness, transient hearing loss, popping sound with swallowing. Also called serous otitis media, glue ear.

A

Otitis Media With Effusion (OME)// (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

106
Q

This results when the middle ear fluid is infected. An absent light reflex from increasing middle ear pressure is an early sign. Redness and bulging are first noted in superior part of drum (pars flaccida), along with earache and fever. Then fiery red bulging of entire drum occurs along with deep throbbing pain. Accompanied by possible fever and transient hearing loss. Pneumatic otoscopy reveals drum hypomobility.

A

Acute Otitis Media// (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

107
Q

acute otitis media is not treated, the drum may rupture from increased pressure. Perforations also occur from trauma (e.g., a slap on the ear). Usually the perforation appears as a round or oval darkened area on the drum. Central perforations occur in the pars tensa. Marginal perforations occur at the annulus. Marginal perforations are called attic perforations when they occur in the superior part of the drum, the pars flaccida.

A

Perforation// (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

108
Q

overgrowth of epidermal tissue in the middle ear or temporal bone may result over the years after a marginal TM perforation. It has a pearly white, cheesy appearance. Growth of cholesteatoma can erode bone and produce hearing loss. Early signs include otorrhea, otalgia, unilateral conductive hearing loss, tinnitus.

A

Cholesteatoma/ (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

109
Q

Polyethylene tubes are inserted surgically into the eardrum to relieve middle ear pressure and promote drainage of chronic or recurrent middle ear infections. Number of acute infections tends to decrease because of improved aeration. Tubes extrude spontaneously in 12 to 18 months.

A

Insertion of Tympanostomy Tubes/ (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

110
Q

Colony of black or white dots on drum or canal wall suggests a yeast or fungal infection.

A
Fungal Infection (Otomycosis)// (
Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)
111
Q

Dense white patches on the eardrum are sequelae of repeated ear infections. They do not necessarily affect hearing.

A

Scarred Drum // (

Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

112
Q

blood in the middle ear, as in trauma resulting in skull fracture

A

Blue Drum (Hemotympanum)// (Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)

113
Q

Small vesicles containing blood are on the eardrum; it accompanies mycoplasma pneumonia and viral infections. Blood-tinged discharge and severe otalgia may be present.

A

Bullous Myringitis// (Abnormal Tympanic Membranes)