Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mental status > CH 23 musculoskeletal sys Jarvis > Flashcards

CH 23 musculoskeletal sys Jarvis Flashcards

1
Q

are specialized forms of connective tissue

A

Bone and cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

musculoskeletal system consists of the body’s

A

bones, joints, and muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Humans need this system musculoskeletal for?

A

(1) for support to stand erect, and (2) for movement. The musculoskeletal system also functions (3) to encase and protect the inner vital organs (e.g., brain, spinal cord, heart); (4) to produce the red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the bone marrow (hematopoiesis); and (5) as a reservoir for storage of essential minerals such as calcium and phosphorus in the bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

skeleton is the

-206 bones

A

bony framework of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

joint (or articulation) is the place of union of

A

two or more bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

are the functional units of the musculoskeletal system because they permit the mobility needed for activities of daily living (ADLs).

A

Joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

fibrous joints the bones are united by

A

interjacent fibrous tissue or cartilage and are immovable (e.g., the sutures in the skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

are separated by fibrocartilaginous discs and are only slightly movable (e.g., the vertebrae)

A

Cartilaginous joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

are freely movable because their bones are separated from one another and enclosed in a joint cavity

A

Synovial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is avascular; it receives nourishment from synovial fluid that circulates during joint movement.
-cushions the bones and gives a smooth surface to facilitate movement.

A

Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is an enclosed sac filled with viscous synovial fluid, much like a joint

A

bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

located in areas of potential friction (e.g., subacromial bursa of the shoulder, prepatellar bursa of the knee) and help muscles and tendons glide smoothly over bone.

A

bursa location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Muscles are of three types:

A

skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

skeletal, or voluntary, muscles—

A

those under conscious control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Each skeletal muscle is composed of bundles of muscle

A

fibers or fasciculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

—a strong fibrous cord

-skeletal muscle attached to bone

A

tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

joint located just above the ring on the finger is the

A

metacarpophalangeal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is located distal to the metacarpophalangeal joint

A

interphalangeal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

is the articulation of the mandible and the temporal bone

- permits jaw function for speaking and chewing

A

temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

temporomandibular joint (TMJ) allows three motions:

A

(1) hinge action to open and close the jaws;
(2) gliding action for protrusion and retraction;
(3) gliding for side-to-side movement of the lower jaw.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

are 33 connecting bones stacked in a vertical column

A

vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

spinous processes of C7 and T1 are prominent at the =

A

base of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

inferior angle of the scapula normally is at the level of the interspace between

A

interspace between T7 and T8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

imaginary line connecting the highest point on each iliac crest crosses

A

L4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

two symmetric dimples that overlie the posterior superior iliac spines crosses the

A

sacrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cervical and lumbar curves are

A

concave (inward or anterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

thoracic and sacrococcygeal curves are

A

convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

are elastic fibrocartilaginous plates that constitute one-fourth of the length of the column

A

intervertebral discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

intervertebral foramen

A

exit of spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

motions of the vertebral column are

A

flexion (bending forward), extension (bending back), abduction (to either side), and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

shoulder girdle is a belt of three large bones

A

(humerus, scapula and clavicle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

is the articulation of the humerus with the glenoid fossa of the scapula

A

glenohumeral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rotator cuff

A

ball-and -socket enclosed by four muscles are the SITS muscles (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis). These form a cover around the head of the humerus. They rotate the arm laterally and stabilize the head of the humer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

helps during abduction of the arm so that the greater tubercle of the humerus moves easily under the acromion process of the scapula.

A

subacromial bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

is the articulation of the distal radius (on the thumb side) and a row of 8 carpal bones

A

wrist, or radiocarpal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

permits movement in two planes at right angles: flexion and extension, and side-to-side deviation.

A

condyloid action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

is the articulation between the two parallel rows of carpal bones

A

midcarpal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and the interphalangeal joints (DIP and PIP) .

A

permit finger flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

elbow joint contains the three bony articulations of the

A

humerus, radius, and ulna of the forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

elbow muscles are the biceps and brachioradialis for.

A

flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

elbow muscles triceps and brachialis for

A

extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Palpable landmarks of elbow are the

A

medial and lateral epicondyles of the humerus and the large olecranon process of the ulna between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

sensitive ulnar nerve runs between the

A

olecranon process and the medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

(largest joint in body) knee joint is the articulation of three bones—

A

the femur, the tibia, and the patella (kneecap)—in one common articular cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

no overlying fat or muscle; only the ligaments hold the tibia and femur in place, making the knee vulnerable to injury.

A

knee joint (hinge joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

wedge-shaped cartilages, called the medial and lateral menisci do what?

A

cushion the tibia and femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

forms a sac at the superior border of the patella, called the suprapatellar pouch (or bursa), which extends up as much as 6 cm behind the quadriceps muscle

A

knee’s synovial membrane is the largest in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

knee joint is stabilized by two sets of ligaments

A
  1. cruciate ligaments

2. collateral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

, lies between the patella and the skin

A

prepatellar bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

is a small, triangular fat pad below the patella behind the patellar ligament

A

infrapatellar fat pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ankle, or tibiotalar joint, (hinge joint) is the

A

articulation of the tibia, fibula, and talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

calcaneus (heel) is

A

under the talus and points posteriorly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

permits inversion and eversion of the foot.

A

subtalar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

anterior tibialis and toe extensors for

A

dorsiflexion. (leg flex back)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

gastrocnemius and toe flexors for

A

plantar flexion (leg flex forward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Lengthening occurs at the

A

epiphyses, or growth plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

is extreme flexion of the wrist, as observed with severe rheumatoid arthritis

A

ankylosis

58
Q

compensates for the enlarging fetus, which would shift the center of balance forward. This shift in balance, in turn, creates a strain on the low back muscles

A

Lordosis (pregnancy)

59
Q

is an enhanced thoracic curvature of the spine.

A

kyphosis

60
Q

is lateral curvature of portions of the spine

A

Scoliosis

61
Q

muscles vary in size and strength bc

A

genetic programming, nutrition, and exercise

62
Q

(pregnancy) Increased levels of circulating hormones (estrogen, relaxin from the corpus luteum, and corticosteroids) cause

A

increased mobility in the joints

63
Q

Increased mobility in the sacroiliac, sacrococcygeal, and symphysis pubis joints in the pelvis contributes to the noticeable changes in

A

maternal posture

64
Q

upper-back changes may put pressure on the ulnar and median nerves during the third trimester. Nerve pressure creates aching, numbness, and weakness in the upper extremities in some women.

A

lordosis affect (pregnant)

65
Q

, which is the cyclic process of bone resorption and deposition responsible for skeletal maintenance at sites that need repair or replacement.

A

bone remodeling occurs

66
Q

bone resorption

A

(loss of bone matrix)

67
Q

Peak bone mass or bone mineral density (BMD) is reached in the

A

early to late 20s

68
Q

bone resorption net effect is a gradual loss of

A

bone density or osteoporosis

69
Q

is a disease involving the loss of mineralized bone mass and leading to porous bone and thus the risk of fractures.

A

Osteoporosis

70
Q

a slight flexion of hips and knees.

  • increase in the thoracic curve
  • backward head tilt to compensate
A

kyphosis (acing adult)

71
Q

higher BMD (bone mass density) value means a

A

denser bone

72
Q

low BMD (bone mass density) value is a

A

strong and consistent predictor of hip and vertebral fracture among postmenopausal women

73
Q

are the most common musculoskeletal concerns

A

Joint pain and loss of function

74
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) involves

A

symmetric joints
pain is worse in the morning when arising
-pain decreases with movement
-stiffness occurs in the morning and after rest periods.

75
Q

osteoarthritis pain is worse

A

later in the day

76
Q

tendinitis is worse in the

A

morning, improves during the day

77
Q

causes sharp pain that increases with movement

A

fracture

78
Q

Joint pain 10 to 14 days after an untreated strep throat suggests

A

rheumatic fever

79
Q

Decreased ROM may be caused by

A

joint injury to cartilage or capsule or to muscle contracture.

80
Q

Inside knee injury can

A

strain or rupture medial ligament

81
Q

outside injury can strain or rupture

A

lateral ligament

82
Q

abrupt twisting in knee can injure

A

anterior cruciate ligament

83
Q

Pop may mean

A

tear in ligament or fracture

84
Q

(muscles) Myalgia is usually felt as

A

cramping or aching.

85
Q

(muscle) intermittent claudication (caused by obstruction of arteries, induced by exercise)

A

pain in calf when walking and go away with rest

86
Q

Are your muscle aches associated with fever, chills, the “flu”?

A

Viral illness often includes myalgia.

87
Q

weakness in muscles indicate?

A

Weakness may involve musculoskeletal or neurologic systems

88
Q

muscles look smaller?

A

atrophy

89
Q

bone pain other than fracture usually feels “dull” and “deep” and is

A

unrelated to movement.

90
Q

Low back pain occurs with

A

degenerative discs, osteoporosis, lumbar stenosis, or is nonspecific.

91
Q

Bisphosphonates are first-line therapy for

A

osteoporosis

92
Q

Period of anoxia may result in

A

hypotonia of muscles.

93
Q

Traumatic delivery increases risk for

A

fractures, (e.g., humerus, clavicle

94
Q

Ortolani sign for infants

A

examiner abducts the hip while applying anterior force on femur to reduce hip joint.

95
Q

Swelling may be excess

A

joint fluid (effusion), thickening of the synovial lining, inflammation of surrounding soft tissue (bursae, tendons), or bony enlargement.

96
Q

(complete loss of contact between the two bones in a joint)

A

dislocation

97
Q

(two bones in a joint stay in contact, but their alignment is off)

A

subluxation

98
Q

(shortening of a muscle leading to limited ROM of joint)

A

contracture

99
Q

(stiffness or fixation of a joint).

A

ankylosis

100
Q

Warmth and tenderness in joint signal

A

inflammation.

101
Q

Articular disease (inside the joint capsule [e.g., arthritis]) produces

A

swelling and tenderness around the whole joint, and it limits all planes of ROM in both active and passive motion.

102
Q

Extra-articular disease (injury to a specific tendon, ligament, nerve) produces

A

swelling and tenderness to that one spot in the joint and affects only certain planes of ROM, especially during active (voluntary) motion.

103
Q

is an audible and palpable crunching or grating that accompanies movement. It occurs when the articular surfaces in the joints are roughened, as with RA

A

Crepitation

104
Q

Muscle status and joint status are

A

interdependent and should be interpreted together

105
Q

Malocclusion of teeth also causes

A

palpable crepitus or audible click.

106
Q

TMJ inflammation and arthritis cause

A

Decreased ROM occurs

107
Q

TMJ

A

Lateral motion may be lost earlier and more significantly than vertical motion.

108
Q

(cervical spine inspection) Touch chin to chest.

-also tests the integrity of cranial nerve XI (spinal).

A

Flexion of 45 degrees

109
Q

(cervical spine inspection) Lift the chin toward the ceiling

-also tests the integrity of cranial nerve XI (spinal)..

A

Hyperextension of 55 degrees

110
Q

(cervical spine inspection) Touch each ear toward the corresponding shoulder. Do not lift the shoulder.
-also tests the integrity of cranial nerve XI (spinal).

A

Lateral bending of 40 degrees

111
Q

(cervical spine inspection) Turn the chin toward each shoulder
-also tests the integrity of cranial nerve XI (spinal).

A

Rotation of 70 degrees

112
Q

is localized under deltoid muscle and may be accentuated when the person tries to abduct the arm.

A

Swelling of subacromial bursa

113
Q

Expected postural changes in pregnancy include

A

progressive lordosis and, toward the third trimester, anterior cervical flexion, kyphosis, and slumped shoulders
-pregnancy is at term, the protuberant abdomen and relaxed mobility in the joints create the characteristic “waddling” gait

114
Q

Phalen test, the nurse should ask the person to hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand. The Phalen test reproduces

A

numbness and burning in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome.

115
Q

Limited abduction of the hip while supine is the most common

A

motion dysfunction found in hip disease

116
Q

Lateral tilting and sciatic pain with straight leg raising are findings that occur with a

A

herniated nucleus pulposus.

117
Q

Allis test also tests for hip dislocation but is performed by

A

comparing leg lengths.

118
Q

For a fractured clavicle, the nurse should observe for limited arm range of motion and unilateral response to the

A

Moro reflex

119
Q

forward bend test//Screen for scoliosis

A

Seat yourself behind the standing child and ask him or her to stand with the feet shoulder-width apart and bend forward slowly to touch the toes. Expect a straight vertical spine while standing and also while bending forward. Posterior ribs should be symmetric, with equal elevation of shoulders, scapulae, and iliac crests.

120
Q

nability to supinate the hand while the arm is flexed, together with pain in the elbow, indicates

A

subluxation of the head of the radius.

121
Q

Heberden and Bouchard nodules are hard and nontender and occur with

A

osteoarthritis

122
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome percussion of the median nerve produces burning and tingling along its distribution, which is a

A

positive Tinel sign.

123
Q

If you hear or feel a “click,” McMurray test is positive for a

A

torn meniscus

124
Q

Straight Leg Raising or Lasègue Test

A

maneuvers reproduce back and leg pain and help confirm the presence of sciatica and a herniated nucleus pulposus. Straight leg raising while keeping the knee extended normally produces no pain. Raise the affected leg just short of the point where it produces pain. Then dorsiflex the foot

125
Q

acute gout consist of

A

redness, swelling, heat, and extreme pain like a continuous throbbing.

126
Q

is a metabolic disorder of disturbed purine metabolism, associated with elevated serum uric acid

A

Gout

127
Q

occurs with trauma involving abduction, extension, and external rotation (e.g., falling on an outstretched arm or diving into a pool)

A

dislocated shoulder

128
Q

Knock-knees” (genu valgum) are present when there is more than 2.5 cm between the
-occurs normally between 2 and image years

A

medial malleoli when the knees are together

129
Q

remember the two conditions, link the r’s and g’s: genu varum—knees apart; genu valgum—knees together.)

A

Knock-knees” (genu valgum)

130
Q

are raised, firm, and nontender and occur with rheumatoid arthritis in the olecranon bursa and along the extensor surface of the ulna

A

Subcutaneous nodules

131
Q

Fingers drift to the ulnar side because of stretching of the articular capsule and muscle imbalance caused by

A

chronic rheumatoid arthritis

132
Q

Dupuytren contractures of the digits occur because of

A

chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia

133
Q

Changes in the fingers caused by chronic rheumatoid arthritis include

A

swan-neck and boutonniere deformities.

134
Q

is flexible and apparent with standing but disappears with forward bending

A

Functional scoliosis

135
Q

is fixed; the curvature shows both when standing and when bending forward

A

Structural scoliosis

136
Q

is a painful swelling of the tibial tubercle just below the knee and most likely due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, occurring during rapid growth and most often in boys. The symptoms resolve with rest

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

137
Q

Ballottement (test) of the patella is reliable when

A

large amounts of fluid are present

138
Q

Tinel sign and the Phalen test are used to check for

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

139
Q

McMurray test is used to test the

A

knee for a torn meniscus.

140
Q

are collections of monosodium urate crystals resulting from chronic gout in and around the joint that cause extreme swelling and joint deformity. They appear as hard, painless nodules (tophi) over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe and they sometimes burst with a chalky discharge

A

Tophi

141
Q

, asymmetric joint involvement commonly affects hands, knees, hips, and lumbar and cervical segments of the spine. Affected joints have stiffness, swelling with hard bony protuberances, pain with motion, and limitation of motion

A

osteoarthritis

Mental status (69 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions