30 - 206 - CRYOSURGERY AND ELECTROSURGERY Flashcards

1
Q

cryogen of choice for treating benign and malignant neoplasm

A

liquid nitrogen

  • boiling point of −195.8 Celsius
  • has the lowest temperature of all the common cryogens, causing rapid freeze of treated tissue
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2
Q

MOST sensitive to the destructive effects of cryosurgery

A

Melanocytes

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3
Q

LEAST sensitive to the destructive effects of cryosurgery

A

fibroblasts

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4
Q

refers to the use of extreme cold to destroy cells of abnormal or diseased tissue

A

Cryosurgery

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5
Q

refers to the study of the effects of subzero temperature on living systems

A

Cryobiology

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6
Q

causes intracellular ice crystal formation with the disruption of electrolytes and pH changes

A

Rapid freezing

  • Therefore, tissue effects and cell death are most readily achieved when tissue is frozen rapidly.
  • During thawing, recrystallization occurs when ice crystals fuse to form large crystals that disrupt cell membranes.
  • As the ice melts further, the extracellular environment becomes hypotonic, causing water to infuse into cells and cause cell lysis.
  • The longer the thawing time, the greater the damage to cells because of increased solute effect and greater recrystallization
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7
Q

causes extracellular ice formation and less cell damage

A

slow freezing

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8
Q

major mechanism of injury from cryosurgery

A
  • After freezing, stasis within the vasculature occurs.
  • This **loss of circulation and resultant anoxia **is a major mechanism of injury from cryosurgery.
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9
Q

cell destruction of melanocytes occur at what temperature?

A

−4°C to −7°C (24.8°F to 19.4°F)

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10
Q

cell destruction of keratinocytes occur at what temperature?

A

**−20°C to −30°C **(−4°F to −22°F)

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10
Q

cell destruction of fibroblasts occur at what temperature?

A

−30°C to −35°C (−22°F to −31°F)

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10
Q

cell destruction of malignant lesions occur at what temperature?

A

−50°C to −60°C (−58°F to −76°F)

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10
Q

Absolute contraindications to cryosurgery

A
  • lesions that require histopathology for diagnosis
  • recurrent nonmelanoma skin cancers.
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11
Q

Relative contraindications to cryosurgery

A
  • cold urticaria,
  • abnormal cold intolerance,
  • cryoglobulinemia, or cryofibrinogenemia, or
  • tumors with indistinct borders or darkly pigmented features
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12
Q

Risks and potential complications of cryosurgery

A
  • pain
  • bleeding
  • pigmentation change
  • nerve damage
  • scarring
  • alopecia
  • insufflation of soft tissue
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13
Q

most disconcerting complication following cryosurgery

A

Hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation

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14
Q

Freeze times longer than how many seconds may result in alopecia?

A

20 seconds

15
Q

reactions expected from treated areas within 24 hours posttreatment of cryosurgery

A

Edema, vesicles, bullae, and weeping

16
Q

n general, superficial lesions should have a clinical freeze margin of how many mm?

17
Q

malignant or deeper lesions should have a clinical freeze margin of how many mm?

18
Q

technique that uses the transmission of electricity to cut tissue, destroy tissue, and cauterize vessels

A

Electrosurgery

19
Q
  • uses a damped sine wave, high-voltage, low-amperage alternating current to generate a spark from a monoterminal electrode to the tissue via the air
  • There is no contact between the electrode and the tissue
A

Electrofulguration

20
Q
  • This modality is the least tissue damaging of all of the high-frequency electrosurgery techniques, and results in rapid tissue healing.
  • Most of the tissue damage is superficial, primarily involving the epidermis.
A

Electrofulguration

21
Q
  • damped sine wave, high-voltage, low-amperage alternating current to generate a current from direct contact of a monoterminal electrode to the tissue
  • Superficial tissue damage occurs as** heat is transferred to tissue**, causing cell death.
A

Electrodessication

  • The extent of tissue damage is directly related to electrode contact time with the skin.
  • Although skin injury is greater with electrodessication compared to electrofulguration, most of the tissue damage remains superficial
22
Q
  • uses a moderately damped sine wave, low-voltage, high-amperage alternating current to generate a current from direct contact of a biterminal electrode to the tissue.
  • Tissue damage is deeper than with electrofulguration and electrodessication, providing tissue coagulation through the generation of heat in the tissue.
A

Electrocoagulation

  • Another distinguishing feature of electrocoagulation is the involvement of the patient within the circuit.
  • This allows the use of a lower voltage and higher amperage to generate more coagulation.
23
Q
  • uses a heating filament tip connected to a low-voltage, high-amperage direct current, usually a battery.
  • Heat is transferred from the filament to the target tissue, causing protein denaturation and tissue coagulation.
A

Electrocautery

24
Q
  • undamped or slightly damped sine wave, low-voltage, high-amperage alternating current to cut tissue with minimal peripheral heat damage
A

Electrosection

  • The “Bovie” knife incorporates a blended undamped and damped sine wave that provides both cutting and coagulation at the same time
25
Q

There is no electric current transfer to the target tissue, and the patient is not part of the circuit loop.

A

Electrocautery

26
Q
  • most used for patients with pacemakers or implantable cardiac defibrillators (ICDs) who are high-risk candidates for receiving electrosurgery.
  • because patients are not part of the circuit loop, it is useful for nonconductive tissue areas of the body, such as the** cartilage, bone, and nails.**
A

Electrocautery

27
Q
  • uses low-voltage, low-amperage direct current from a negative electrode to the positive electrode
  • The negative electrode is applied to the target tissue where electrons are released.
  • The electrons interact with the tissue to produce** sodium hydroxide **and hydrogen gas resulting in tissue liquefaction.
  • Acids are produced at the **positive electrode **resulting in tissue coagulation.
A

Electrolysis

The main use of electrolysis is for hair removal.

28
Q

With the exception of what electrosurgical techniques, electrosurgical units used in dermatologic procedures have high-frequency alternating current

A

electrocautery or electrolysis

28
Q

refers to the use of a treatment electrode without an indifferent or dispersing electrode

A

Monoterminal

The dispersing electrode (grounding pad) should be placed in a location that directs the current pathway away from the cardiac device (usually the right lower leg). If a pedal is used, it should be placed near the surgeon’s feet.

29
Q

refers to the use of both treatment and indifferent electrodes.

A

Biterminal

The dispersing electrode (grounding pad) should be placed in a location that directs the current pathway away from the cardiac device (usually the right lower leg). If a pedal is used, it should be placed near the surgeon’s feet.

30
Q

denotes 1 tip in electrosurgical unit

31
Q

denotes 2 tips in electrosurgical units

32
Q

most common application of electrosurgery

A

maintaining hemostasis in the operative field

33
Q

Coagulation can be achieved using what electrosurgical techniques?

A

electrofulguration, electrodessication, or electrocoagulation

  • direct application of the electrode to the bleeding vessel.
  • This provides conduction of heat to the vessel, resulting in tissue coagulation
34
Q

electrosurgical technique that is an effective treatment modality for papular or plaque-like tumors of the epidermis, such as seborrheic keratoses, verrucae, dermatosis papulosis nigra, molluscum, or flat warts

A

Electrodessication

34
Q

indications for Curettage and electrodessication (C+D) for BCC and SCC

A
  • Tumors should be primary;
  • have distinct clinical borders;
  • be located on sites of low recurrence, such as the trunk, extremities, or non-”H”-zone regions of the face;
  • have a superficial or nodular histologic subtype; and
  • have a diameter of less than 1 cm on the face and less than 2 cm on the trunk and extremities.
35
Q

Tumors not acceptable for C+D

A
  • indistinct borders,
  • tumors on the “H”-zone of the face,
  • tumors with an aggressive histologic pattern,
  • tumors with high metastatic potential,
  • tumors that require histologic diagnosis.