17 - 99 - BURNS Flashcards

1
Q

involve only the epidermis

A

SUPERFICIAL BURN (FIRST-DEGREE BURN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A

Like a sunburn, the skin is warm, erythematous, painful, blanching, and dry without blisters or eschar (Fig. 99-1).

The epithelium remains intact, but will begin to slough within 7 to 14 days.

They are self-limited and have no potential for scar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Partial thickness burns involve

A

epidermis and penetrate to the dermis, but do not completely penetrate through the dermis or down to the subcutaneous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A

These burns appear wet, weeping, and erythematous, and are exquisitely painful, with blisters or sloughing epidermal remnant (Fig. 99-2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Superficial partial thickness burn involves

A

epidermis and papillary dermis

Blanching, more painful, hyperemic and erythematous, typically heal in approximately 2 weeks with appropriate wound care, low risk of scar and pigment change.

These can be managed conservatively with dressing changes or xenograft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Deep partial-thickness burn involves

A

epidermis, papillary dermis, and reticular dermis

nonblanching, less painful, pink or pale, require more than 3 weeks to heal, high risk of hypertrophic scar and pigment change, outcomes may be improved by excision and grafting

These typically require debridement and grafting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Full-thickness burns involvement

A

penetrate to the subcutaneous tissue and beyond, affecting all dermal layers.

These burns are dry, leathery, waxy, nonblanching, insensate, and eschar is frequently shades of brown, white, gray, or black. The transition from adjacent partial-thickness burn is clear by the lack of tissue edema.

They will not heal without surgical excision with skin grafting or tissue transposition. Sequela, such as contractures and hypertrophic scars, are common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Zones of injury in burn

A

Full-thickness burn of the back demonstrating zones of injury according to Jackson’s thermal wound theory.

A, Zone of hyperemia (cells that will recover from injury);

B, zone of stasis (cell injury that can either recover or transform into zone of coagulation);

C, zone of coagulation (cell death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

“fourthdegree burn” has been used to refer to burn injuries that penetrate to and/or expose deep structures (eg, bone, muscle, tendon) (Fig. 99-3). Skin grafting alone is not adequate treatment for burns of this severity, and limb loss may occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Third-degree burns should be debrided within the first _____ days to avoid cellulitis and wound infections.

A

3 to 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

excess resuscitation can cause abdominal compartment syndrome, which is defined as bladder pressure

A

> > 30 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common cause of death in burn patients

A

infection and sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

highest risk of death and complications compared to all other burn etiologies

A

Thermal injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common mechanism of burns in the pediatric population

A

SCALD BURN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Type of burns included to calculate TBSA

A

Only partial-thickness and full-thickness burns are totaled to calculate TBSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Parkland Formula

A

  • It is extremely important to note that the original timing of the injury is what is used in the calculation, not the time of initial presentation.
  • Half of this volume is administered in the first 8 hours after the injury and the second half is administered over the next 16 hours.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

type of fluid recommended to avoid complications associated with metabolic acidosis with normal saline or abnormal fluid shifts with colloid fluids.

A

Lactated Ringer Solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

urine output goal for adults

A

0.5 mL/kg/h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

urine output goal for children

A

1 mL/kg/h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

adult rule-of-nines

A
  • head and neck is given 9%,
  • each lower extremity is given 18%,
  • each upper extremity is given 9%,
  • anterior and posterior torso are each given 18%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
pediatric rule-of-nines
* head and neck is given 18%, * each lower extremity is given 15% * each upper extremity is given 10%, * anterior and posterior torso are each given 16%
26
several steps that can optimize a burn scar
Although hypertrophic scarring often cannot be avoided, there are several steps that can optimize a burn scar: 1. Wound closure of a burn that is likely not to heal on its own in 3 weeks; 2. Avoidance of sun contact of the scar during the first 6 months; 3. Compression garments for those who can tolerate treatment for up to 1 year; and 4. Keeping the scar moist.
27
Type of burn with highest risk of death and complications? a. Flame burn b. Scalp burn c. Electrical burn d. Chemical burn
A
28
Burn most common in children. a. Flame burn b. Scald burn c. Electrical burn d. Chemical burn
B
29
In chemical burns, which is/are correctly paired? a. Acid: liquefactive necrosis b. Alkali: coagulation necrosis c. Both d. Neither
D
30
Burns: it is considered as the most painful degree? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth
B
31
Which is not true regarding full thickness burn? a. In extends up to subcutaneous tissue and beyond affecting all dermal layers b. Dry, leathery, waxy, non-blancing c. Skin grafting not adequate d. It will not heal without surgical excision (skin grafting/tissue transposition)
C
32
a. Burn >20% TBSA b. Burn >40% TBSA Inflammatory mediator release triggers a systemic inflammatory response -
A
33
a. Burn >20% TBSA b. Burn >40% TBSA Bacterial load becomes large without intervention.
B
34
Among the wound dressing options, leukopenia is a known side effect. a. Silvadene b. Silver nitrate c. Bacitracin d. Sulfamylon
A
35
most common mechanism of burn injury in the outpatient setting
scald burns
36
majority of inpatient burns are secondary to what type of burn?
flame burns
37
Painful, dry burn with no blisters or eschar formation, blanching
FIRST-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL)
38
Exquisitely painful, wet, weeping burn, blanching
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL THICKNESS)
38
Less painful, pale, nonblanching
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)
38
Insensate, dry, waxy, nonblanching with eschar formation
THIRD-DEGREE BURN (FULL THICKNESS)
39
Surgical excision with skin grafting necessary for healing
THIRD-DEGREE BURN (FULL THICKNESS)
40
contractures, hypertrophic scars are common
THIRD-DEGREE BURN (FULL THICKNESS)
40
more than 3 weeks to heal
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)
40
debridement and grafting may be necessary
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)
41
high risk for scarring and pigmentary changes
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)
42
Heals in 2 weeks with proper wound care
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL THICKNESS)
43
low risk of scarring
SECOND-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL THICKNESS)
44
Self-limited with sloughing within 7-14 days
FIRST-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL)
45
no risk of scarring
FIRST-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL)
46
Superficial burns involve what part og the skin
epidermis only
47
Superficial partial thickness burn involves what part of the skin?
epidermis and papillary dermis
48
Deep partial-thickness burn involves what parts of the skin?
epidermis, papillary dermis, and **reticular dermis**
49
Full-thickness burns penetrate until what part of the skin?
**subcutaneous tissue and beyond,** affecting all dermal layers
50
zone in burned skin where there are cells that will recover from injury
Zone of hyperemia
51
zone in burned skin where cell injury can either recover or transform into zone of coagulation
zone of stasis
52
zone in burned skin where there is already cell death
zone of coagulation
53
has been used to refer to burn injuries that penetrate to and/or expose deep structures (eg, bone, muscle, tendon)
“fourth-degree burn”
54
Third-degree burns should be debrided within the first how many days to avoid cellulitis and wound infections?
3 to 5 days
55
Circumferential burns of the extremities are at risk for the development of what syndrome?
**compartment syndrome** as the underlying tissues becomes increasingly swollen and edematous and constricted by the eschar
56
Ectopic bone formation known as heterotopic ossification may develop in patients with large TBSA burns causing severe pain, contractures, and restricting range of motion. 10 This most commonly occurs in what area?
elbow ## Footnote more frequent if the burn injury includes the upper extremity
56
excess resuscitation can cause **abdominal compartment syndrome**, which is defined as bladder pressure of what?
over 30 mm Hg ## Footnote * Patients often present with oliguria and abdominal distension. In these patients, first steps include escharotomy of the abdominal full-thickness burns, as well as paralysis and laying the patient flat. * Fluids should be immediately decreased and diuresis or continuous renal replacement therapy should be considered to avoid a decompressive laparotomy. * If these noninvasive measures fail to relieve the abdominal compartment syndrome, then a laparotomy might be required.
57
most common cause of death in burn patients
infection and sepsis
58
Unprotected from ultraviolet radiation, melanin-deficient burn scars are prone to squamous cell carcinoma development. What do you call this ulcer?
Marjolin ulcer
59
associated with the highest risk of death and complications compared to all other burn etiologies
**Thermal injuries**, caused by fire or flames
60
second leading cause of burn injuries and are the most common mechanism of burns in the pediatric population.
SCALD BURN
61
pose the greatest diagnostic, therapeutic, and prognostic challenge among burn mechanisms
ELECTRICAL BURN
62
ultimately **determine ensuing tissue damage and lethality**
**current (amperage) of the electricity** and its direction of travel
63
has the greatest resistance of all body tissues, and therefore generates the most heat as current flows through it
Bone ## Footnote Bone heating leads to severe thermal injury of deep invested muscles and tendon insertions which can cause swelling and compartment syndrome
64
. If compartment pressures are greater than how many mm Hg, fasciotomies should be performed.
30 mmHg
65
T/F Acid burns are typically deeper and more serious than alkali burns, as hydroxide ion saponification of fats induces liquefactive necrosis and permits further depth of chemical penetration
FALSE **Alkali burns are typically deeper and more serious** than acid burns, as hydroxide ion saponification of fats induces liquefactive necrosis and permits further depth of chemical penetration
66
what types of burns are totaled to calculate TBSA?
Only partial-thickness and fullthickness burns
67
patients who have burns of more than how many % TBSA commonly require IV fluid resuscitation?
more than 20%
68
69
Silvadene
70
Sulfamylon
71
Silver nitrate
72
Bacitracin
73
Xeroform
74
Acticoat
75
most important factors to consider in the assessment of a burn
depth, location, size, and duration of the burn injury
76
tetanus toxoid vaccine should be given to all burn patients with what type of burns?
partial-thickness or full-thickness burns ## Footnote * In very young children and persons with high-risk tetanus wounds (ie, burn older than 6 hours at presentation, immunodeficiency, or soil contamination in wound), tetanus immunoglobulin should also be administered (tetanus toxoid is not given in children younger than age 4 years)
77
first-line medications for the management of outpatient burn pain
Scheduled narcotics
78
Infections occurring after the first 10 days, however, are more likely caused by what spp of bacteria?
Gram-negative rods ## Footnote patients benefit from wound culture and empiric coverage with ciprofloxacin
79
Usually these infections develop in the first 7 to 10 days, and normal flora organisms, such as what spp, are usually the culprits.
Staphylococcus
80
most important step in rejuvenating the scar
release of the tension