17 - 99 - BURNS Flashcards

1
Q

involve only the epidermis

A

SUPERFICIAL BURN (FIRST-DEGREE BURN)

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2
Q
A

Like a sunburn, the skin is warm, erythematous, painful, blanching, and dry without blisters or eschar (Fig. 99-1).

The epithelium remains intact, but will begin to slough within 7 to 14 days.

They are self-limited and have no potential for scar.

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3
Q

Partial thickness burns involve

A

epidermis and penetrate to the dermis, but do not completely penetrate through the dermis or down to the subcutaneous tissue

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4
Q
A

These burns appear wet, weeping, and erythematous, and are exquisitely painful, with blisters or sloughing epidermal remnant (Fig. 99-2).

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5
Q

Superficial partial thickness burn involves

A

epidermis and papillary dermis

Blanching, more painful, hyperemic and erythematous, typically heal in approximately 2 weeks with appropriate wound care, low risk of scar and pigment change.

These can be managed conservatively with dressing changes or xenograft.

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6
Q

Deep partial-thickness burn involves

A

epidermis, papillary dermis, and reticular dermis

nonblanching, less painful, pink or pale, require more than 3 weeks to heal, high risk of hypertrophic scar and pigment change, outcomes may be improved by excision and grafting

These typically require debridement and grafting.

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7
Q

Full-thickness burns involvement

A

penetrate to the subcutaneous tissue and beyond, affecting all dermal layers.

These burns are dry, leathery, waxy, nonblanching, insensate, and eschar is frequently shades of brown, white, gray, or black. The transition from adjacent partial-thickness burn is clear by the lack of tissue edema.

They will not heal without surgical excision with skin grafting or tissue transposition. Sequela, such as contractures and hypertrophic scars, are common.

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8
Q

Zones of injury in burn

A

Full-thickness burn of the back demonstrating zones of injury according to Jackson’s thermal wound theory.

A, Zone of hyperemia (cells that will recover from injury);

B, zone of stasis (cell injury that can either recover or transform into zone of coagulation);

C, zone of coagulation (cell death)

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9
Q
A

“fourthdegree burn” has been used to refer to burn injuries that penetrate to and/or expose deep structures (eg, bone, muscle, tendon) (Fig. 99-3). Skin grafting alone is not adequate treatment for burns of this severity, and limb loss may occur.

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

Third-degree burns should be debrided within the first _____ days to avoid cellulitis and wound infections.

A

3 to 5 days

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12
Q

excess resuscitation can cause abdominal compartment syndrome, which is defined as bladder pressure

A

> > 30 mm Hg

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13
Q

most common cause of death in burn patients

A

infection and sepsis

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14
Q

highest risk of death and complications compared to all other burn etiologies

A

Thermal injuries

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15
Q

most common mechanism of burns in the pediatric population

A

SCALD BURN

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16
Q

Type of burns included to calculate TBSA

A

Only partial-thickness and full-thickness burns are totaled to calculate TBSA.

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17
Q

Parkland Formula

A

  • It is extremely important to note that the original timing of the injury is what is used in the calculation, not the time of initial presentation.
  • Half of this volume is administered in the first 8 hours after the injury and the second half is administered over the next 16 hours.
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18
Q

type of fluid recommended to avoid complications associated with metabolic acidosis with normal saline or abnormal fluid shifts with colloid fluids.

A

Lactated Ringer Solution

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19
Q

urine output goal for adults

A

0.5 mL/kg/h

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20
Q

urine output goal for children

A

1 mL/kg/h

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21
Q
A
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22
Q
A
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23
Q
A
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24
Q

adult rule-of-nines

A
  • head and neck is given 9%,
  • each lower extremity is given 18%,
  • each upper extremity is given 9%,
  • anterior and posterior torso are each given 18%
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25
Q

pediatric rule-of-nines

A
  • head and neck is given 18%,
  • each lower extremity is given 15%
  • each upper extremity is given 10%,
  • anterior and posterior torso are each given 16%
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26
Q

several steps that can optimize a burn scar

A

Although hypertrophic scarring often cannot be avoided, there are several steps that can optimize a burn scar:

  1. Wound closure of a burn that is likely not to heal on its own in 3 weeks;
  2. Avoidance of sun contact of the scar during the first 6 months;
  3. Compression garments for those who can tolerate treatment for up to 1 year; and
  4. Keeping the scar moist.
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27
Q

Type of burn with highest risk of death and complications?

a. Flame burn

b. Scalp burn

c. Electrical burn

d. Chemical burn

A

A

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28
Q

Burn most common in children.

a. Flame burn

b. Scalp burn

c. Electrical burn

d. Chemical burn

A

B

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29
Q

In chemical burns, which is/are correctly paired?

a. Acid: liquefactive necrosis

b. Alkali: coagulation necrosis

c. Both

d. Neither

A

D

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30
Q

Burns: it is considered as the most painful degree?

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fourth

A

B

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31
Q

Which is not true regarding full thickness burn?

a. In extends up to subcutaneous tissue and beyond affecting all dermal layers

b. Dry, leathery, waxy, non-blancing

c. Skin grafting not adequate

d. It will not heal without surgical excision (skin grafting/tissue transposition)

A

C

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32
Q

a. Burn >20% TBSA

b. Burn >40% TBSA

Inflammatory mediator release triggers a systemic inflammatory response - A

A

A

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33
Q

a. Burn >20% TBSA

b. Burn >40% TBSA

Bacterial load becomes large without intervention.

A

B

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34
Q

Among the wound dressing options, leukopenia is a known side effect.

a. Silvadene

b. Silver nitrate

c. Bacitracin

d. Sulfamylon

A

A

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35
Q

most common mechanism of burn injury in the outpatient setting

A

scald burns

36
Q

majority of inpatient burns are secondary to what type of burn?

A

flame burns

37
Q

Painful, dry burn with no blisters or eschar formation, blanching

A

FIRST-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL)

38
Q

Exquisitely painful, wet, weeping burn, blanching

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL THICKNESS)

38
Q

Less painful, pale, nonblanching

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)

38
Q

Insensate, dry, waxy, nonblanching with eschar formation

A

THIRD-DEGREE BURN (FULL THICKNESS)

39
Q

Surgical excision with skin grafting necessary for healing

A

THIRD-DEGREE BURN (FULL THICKNESS)

40
Q

contractures, hypertrophic scars are common

A

THIRD-DEGREE BURN (FULL THICKNESS)

40
Q

more than 3 weeks to heal

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)

40
Q

debridement and grafting may be necessary

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)

41
Q

high risk for scarring and pigmentary changes

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (DEEP PARTIAL THICKNESS)

42
Q

Heals in 2 weeks with proper wound care

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL THICKNESS)

43
Q

low risk of scarring

A

SECOND-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL THICKNESS)

44
Q

Self-limited with sloughing within 7-14 days

A

FIRST-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL)

45
Q

no risk of scarring

A

FIRST-DEGREE BURN (SUPERFICIAL)

46
Q

Superficial burns involve what part og the skin

A

epidermis only

47
Q

Superficial partial thickness burn involves what part of the skin?

A

epidermis and papillary dermis

48
Q

Deep partial-thickness burn involves what parts of the skin?

A

epidermis, papillary dermis, and reticular dermis

49
Q

Full-thickness burns penetrate until what part of the skin?

A

subcutaneous tissue and beyond, affecting all dermal layers

50
Q

zone in burned skin where there are cells that will recover from injury

A

Zone of hyperemia

51
Q

zone in burned skin where cell injury can either recover or transform into zone of coagulation

A

zone of stasis

52
Q

zone in burned skin where there is already cell death

A

zone of coagulation

53
Q

has been used to refer to burn injuries that penetrate to and/or expose deep structures (eg, bone, muscle, tendon)

A

“fourth-degree burn”

54
Q

Third-degree burns should be debrided within the first how many days to avoid cellulitis and wound infections?

A

3 to 5 days

55
Q

Circumferential burns of the extremities are at risk for the development of what syndrome?

A

compartment syndrome as the underlying tissues becomes increasingly swollen and edematous and constricted by the eschar

56
Q

Ectopic bone formation known as heterotopic ossification may develop in patients with large TBSA burns causing severe pain, contractures, and restricting range of motion. 10 This most commonly occurs in what area?

A

elbow

more frequent if the burn injury includes the upper extremity

56
Q

excess resuscitation can cause abdominal compartment syndrome, which is defined as bladder pressure of what?

A

over 30 mm Hg

  • Patients often present with oliguria and abdominal distension. In these patients, first steps include escharotomy of the abdominal full-thickness burns, as well as paralysis and laying the patient flat.
  • Fluids should be immediately decreased and diuresis or continuous renal replacement therapy should be considered to avoid a decompressive laparotomy.
  • If these noninvasive measures fail to relieve the abdominal compartment syndrome, then a laparotomy might be required.
57
Q

most common cause of death in burn patients

A

infection and sepsis

58
Q

Unprotected from ultraviolet radiation, melanin-deficient burn scars are prone to squamous cell carcinoma development. What do you call this ulcer?

A

Marjolin ulcer

59
Q

associated with the highest risk of death and complications compared to all other burn etiologies

A

Thermal injuries, caused by fire or flames

60
Q

second leading cause of burn injuries and are the most common mechanism of burns in the pediatric population.

A

SCALD BURN

61
Q

pose the greatest diagnostic, therapeutic, and prognostic challenge among burn mechanisms

A

ELECTRICAL BURN

62
Q

ultimately determine ensuing tissue damage and lethality

A

current (amperage) of the electricity and its direction of travel

63
Q

has the greatest resistance of all body tissues, and therefore generates the most heat as current flows through it

A

Bone

Bone heating leads to severe thermal injury of deep invested muscles and tendon insertions which can cause swelling and compartment syndrome

64
Q

. If compartment pressures are greater than how many mm Hg, fasciotomies should be performed.

65
Q

T/F

Acid burns are typically deeper and more serious than alkali burns, as hydroxide ion saponification of fats induces liquefactive necrosis and permits further depth of chemical penetration

A

FALSE

Alkali burns are typically deeper and more serious than acid burns, as hydroxide ion saponification of fats induces liquefactive necrosis and permits further depth of chemical penetration

66
Q

what types of burns are totaled to calculate TBSA?

A

Only partial-thickness and fullthickness burns

67
Q

patients who have burns of more than how many % TBSA commonly require IV fluid resuscitation?

A

more than 20%

69
Q
70
Q
A

Sulfamylon

71
Q
A

Silver nitrate

72
Q
A

Bacitracin

73
Q
74
Q
75
Q

most important factors to consider in the assessment of a burn

A

depth, location, size, and duration of the burn injury

76
Q

tetanus toxoid vaccine should be given to all burn patients with what type of burns?

A

partial-thickness or full-thickness burns

  • In very young children and persons with high-risk tetanus wounds (ie, burn older than 6 hours at presentation, immunodeficiency, or soil contamination in wound), tetanus immunoglobulin should also be administered (tetanus toxoid is not given in children younger than age 4 years)
77
Q

first-line medications for the management of outpatient burn pain

A

Scheduled narcotics

78
Q

Infections occurring after the first 10 days, however, are more likely caused by what spp of bacteria?

A

Gram-negative rods

patients benefit from wound culture and empiric coverage with ciprofloxacin

79
Q

Usually these infections develop in the first 7 to 10 days, and normal flora organisms, such as what spp, are usually the culprits.

A

Staphylococcus

80
Q

most important step in rejuvenating the scar

A

release of the tension