25 - 163 - EXANTHEMATOUS VIRAL DISEASES Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Pathognomonic buccal mucosal finding in measles

A

Koplik spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Morbilliform eruption of measles lasts for how many days

A

3 - 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F. Humans are the only natural hosts of measles

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mode of transmission of measles

A

person-to-person contact or airborne respiratory secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Measles infectious droplets have been reported to remain airborne for up to how many hours, allowing for easy transmission in public spaces.

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Incubation period of measles

A

7 - 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 stages of measles

A
  1. Incubation period
  2. Prodrome
  3. Exanthem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Characterize the prodrome of measles

A

The prodrome consists of fever (as high as 40.5°C [104.9°F]), malaise, conjunctivitis (palpebral, extending to lid margin), coryza, and cough (brassy or barking) and can last up to 4 days.

Koplik spots are the pathognomonic enanthem of measles and develop during the prodrome.

The spots begin as small, bright red macules that have a 1- to 2-mm blue-white speck within them and are typically found on the buccal mucosa near the second molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Koplik spots occur how many hours prior to the onset of the rash

A

48 hours

Koplik spots typically occur 48 hours prior to the onset of the rash and only last 12 to 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Koplik spots last for how many hours only

A

12 - 72 hours

Koplik spots typically occur 48 hours prior to the onset of the rash and only last 12 to 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the measles exanthem

A

The measles exanthem consists of nonpruritic, erythematous macules and papules progressing in a cranial-to-caudal direction. The exanthem begins on the forehead and behind the ears (Fig. 163-2) and spreads to involve the neck, trunk, and extremities (Fig. 163-3). The hands and feet are involved.

Lesions may coalesce, especially on the face and neck. The rash usually peaks within 3 days and begins to disappear in 4 to 5 days in the order that it appeared. Desquamation and brownish dyspigmentation in fair patients can occur as the rash resolves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Measles virus detection is most successful when collection occurs within how many days of the rash’s onset.

A

3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give laboratory diagnostic tests for measles

A
  • real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  • serologic studies: (+) serum IgM antibody for measles confirms diagnosis; IgM is positive on the 1st day of the rash and remains positive for at least 30 days; fourfold increase in IgG titers (serum must be withdrawn in the convalescent stage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uncomplicated measles will last for how many days

A

10 - 12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is a measles patient considered infectious

A

An infected patient is considered to be contagious 5 days prior to the onset of the rash until 4 days after the onset of the rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the complications of measles

A
  • severe diarrhea;
  • pneumonia (either viral or superimposed bacterial infection);
  • otitis media;
  • transient immunosuppression with lymphopenia and decreased cell-mediated immunity;
  • encephalitis, and
  • a rare form of a progressive neurodegenerative disease termed subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the second line treatment of measles

A

Ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

First-line treatment for Measles

A

■ Immunoglobulin, IM

■ Measles vaccine

■ Supportive care

■ Treat secondary infections

■ Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis can be given to which patients

A

Individuals at risk for severe illness and complications (infants younger than 1 year of age, pregnant women, unimmunized, and immunocompromised) should be given measles immunoglobulin if presenting within 6 days of exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Individuals at risk for severe illness and complications (infants younger than 1 year of age, pregnant women, unimmunized, and immunocompromised) should be given measles immunoglobulin if presenting within how many days of exposure.

A

6 days of exposure

Measles immunoglobulin can be given either via an IM (0.5 mL/kg; maximum dose: 15 mL) or IV route (400 mg/kg).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In healthy individuals, the measlesmumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine should be given to boost immunity if it can be administered within how many hours of measles exposure

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The American Academy of Pediatrics, recommends MMR at what age

A

12 - 15 months and then again prior to school entry, between 4 and 6 years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Infectious stage of german measles

A

Infected individuals shed virus for 5 to 7 days before and up to 14 days after onset of rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The risk is greatest to a fetus exposed to the rubella virus in the what trimester

A

1st trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Characterize the prodrome of german measles

A

The prodrome is characterized by low-grade fever, myalgia, headache, conjunctivitis, rhinitis, cough, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy; symptoms that may last up to 4 days and often resolve with appearance of rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do you call the enanthem of german measles consisting of tiny red macules on the soft palate and uvula

A

Forchheimer spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F: Forchheimer spots are pathognomonic for rubella

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Incubation period of german measles

A

14 - 17 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can you differentiate rubeola and rubella based on the cutaneous manifestations

A

The exanthem of german measles, occurring 14 to 17 days after exposure, is characterized by pruritic pink to red macules and papules that begin on the face, quickly progressing to involve neck, trunk, and extremities (Fig. 163-4).15 Lesions on the trunk may coalesce, whereas those on the extremities often remain more discrete. The rash usually begins to disappear in 2 to 3 days, unlike rubeola, which can be more persistent and clears the head and neck first. Desquamation may follow resolution of the rash.

30
Q

Lymphadenopathy in german measles is usually most severe in what locations

A

posterior cervical, suboccipital and postauricular lymph nodes

31
Q

Standard and droplet precautions are recommended for patients with rubella for how many days after rash onset

A

7 days after rash onset

32
Q

Rubella vaccine is typically administered as part of a threefold vaccine (MMR) or fourfold vaccine (MMR and varicella) at _______ months of age and again at ______ years of age.

A

12 to 15 months

4 - 6 years

33
Q

Any woman receiving the rubella vaccine should not become pregnant for how many days

A

28 days

34
Q

T/F: Infants of vaccinated breastfeeding mothers may become infected with rubella via breastmilk

A

True

35
Q

This exanthem is characterized by symmetric polyarthritis, particularly of the small joints in adults.

A

PARVOVIRUS B19 INFECTION

36
Q

The incubation period for erythema infectiosum

A

4 - 14 days

37
Q

It is the smallest single-stranded DNA-containing virus known to infect humans

A

Parvovirus B19

38
Q

primary manifestation of B19 viral infection in adults

A

Acute arthropathy

It occurs mainly in women and affects the knees and the small joints of the hands. Other joints, such as the spine and costochondral joints, are occasionally involved. This symmetric polyarthritis is usually of sudden onset and is self-limited but can be persistent or recurrent for months. It may mimic Lyme arthritis or rheumatoid arthritis.

39
Q

T/F: Patients with erythema infectiosum are not infectious when exanthem/rash is present

A

True

After the rash of erythema infectiosum appears, B19 is usually not found in respiratory secretions or serum, suggesting that persons with erythema infectiosum are infectious only before the onset of the rash.

Papular purpuric gloves-and-socks syndrome is contagious when the eruption is present, in contrast to erythema infectiosum.

40
Q

PAPULAR PURPURIC GLOVES ANDSOCKS SYNDROME is caused by what virus

A

Parvovirus B19

Patients usually have mild

prodromal symptoms of fatigue and low-grade fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Subsequently, itchy, painful, symmetric edema and erythema of the distal hands and feet occurs. Purpuric papules appear on the hands and feet with abrupt demarcation at the wrists and ankles. The enanthem, if present, arises on the lips, soft palate, and buccal mucosa. The syndrome resolves spontaneously within 2 weeks. Importantly, papular purpuric gloves-and-socks syndrome is contagious when the eruption is present, in contrast to erythema infectiosum.

41
Q

It is considered the test of choice in an immunocompromised patient, and to confirm fetal parvovirus B19 infection

A

PCR

42
Q

True about measles except:

a. The measles virus enters the host via the respiratory mucosa or conjunctiva

b. Caused by a single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus

c. Forchheimer spots are the pathognomonic enanthem

d. Vitamin A (200,000 international units per day or 100,000 international units per day for infants) on 2 consecutive days and a reduced risk of measles mortality in children younger than 2 years old

A

C.

Page 2990. Koplik spots are the pathognomonic enanthem of measles and develop during the prodrome. The spots begin as small, bright red macules that have a 1- to 2-mm blue-white speck within them and are typically found on the buccal mucosa near the second molars. Koplik spots typically occur 48 hours prior to the onset of the rash and only last 12 to 72 hours. Koplik’ spots may be absent if a patient presents several days into the patient’s rash.

43
Q

What is the proper scheduling for MMR vaccination?

a. 12 to 15 months of age and again at 4 to 6 years of age.

b. At birth

c. 2, 4, 6 and 18 months of age

d. 6 and 12 months of age

A

A

44
Q

Blood group that is the receptor of parvovirus

d. Biopsy

a. ABO

b. Rh

c. P

d. Lewis

A

C

Page 2995. The blood group P antigen (globoside) is a receptor of parvovirus. Because some individuals lack P antigen, they are not susceptible to infection with B19

45
Q

A 15-yo male presented with fever, lymphadenopathy and pharyngitis. He sought consult and was given ampicillin. 7 days after he developed generalized, pruritic, morbilliform rash. What etiologic agent caused this problem?

a. Measles virus

b. Rubella virus

c. Parvovirus

d. Epstein-Barr virus

A

D

Page 2999. Eruptions also frequently occur when patients with infectious mononucleosis are treated with antibiotics, classically ampicillin. This association was first described in the 1960s and coined the ampicillin rash.60 Beginning 7 to 10 days after the initiation of ampicillin, patients develop a generalized, pruritic, morbilliform rash with an erythematous or copper color that resolves in a week.

46
Q

Cutaneous lesions seen in congenital human cytomegalovirus infection except:

a. Jaundice

b. Petechial Rash

c. Morbilliform Rash

d. Blueberry muffin lesions.

A

C

Page 3004. Cutaneous findings in the newborn include a petechial rash secondary to thrombocytopenia, jaundice caused by hepatitis and blueberry muffin lesions from dermal erythropoiesis.

47
Q

What is the most common cause of Gianotti-Crosti Syndrome in developed countries?

a. Hepatitis B Virus

b. Hepatitis C Virus

c. Epstein-Barr Virus

d. Coxsackie Virus

A

C

Page 3003: In most developed countries, EBV is frequently cited as the most common cause of GCS.

48
Q

What is the gold standard for the diagnosis of human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) infection?
a. PCR

b. Viral culture

c. Viral serology (IgM and IgG)

d. Biopsy

A

B

Page 3005. The gold standard for diagnosis of HCMV infection is viral culture from blood using human fibroblasts. Because it takes days to several weeks to see the cytopathic effect in culture, culture has been supplanted by PCR for the diagnosis of active HCMV infection.

49
Q

True about roseala infantum except

a. It is caused by the human herpes virus -6

b. HHV-6 transmission occurs via shared saliva and can readily be detected in the saliva of adults and children.

c. The fever lasts approximately 3 to 7 days and is followed by the characteristic rash of roseola in all cases

d. HHV-6 is associated with exanthema subitem, Rosai-Dorfman Disease, pityriasis rosea and drug-induced hypersensitivity syndrome.

A

C

Page 3008. The fever lasts approximately 3 to 7 days and followed by the characteristic rash of roseola in only 23% of cases

50
Q
A
51
Q

most common complication of intrauterine infection with B19

A

Nonimmune fetal hydrops

52
Q

most common complication of intrauterine infection with B19

A

Nonimmune fetal hydrops

53
Q
A
54
Q

T/F: Erythema infectiosum are no longer infectious by the time they develop the illness, control measures directed toward these individuals are not likely to be effective

A

True

55
Q

also known as human herpesvirus 4

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

56
Q

Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by the triad of

A

Fever, lymphadenopathy and pharyngitis

57
Q

most common manifestation of EBV infection in adolescents and adults

A

Infectious mononucleosis

58
Q

Incubation period of infectious mononucleosis

A

30 - 50 days

59
Q

T/F: EBV infection during pregnancy is not thought to be teratogenic

A

True

60
Q

Eruptions also frequently occur when patients with infectious mononucleosis are treated with antibiotics, classically what antibiotic

A

ampicillin

61
Q

In ampicillin rash, Beginning 7 to 10 days after the initiation of ampicillin, patients develop a generalized, pruritic, morbilliform rash with an erythematous or copper color that resolves in a week (Fig. 163-7). This eruption also has been reported with other antibiotics. What other antibiotics are associated with its occurrence

A

amoxicillin, cephalexin, erythromycin, and levofloxacin

62
Q

EBV infection also has been implicated in the development of non–sexually related acute genital ulcers. What do you call these ulcers?

A

Lipschütz ulcers

Lipschütz ulcers frequently occur in prepubertal or adolescent females and present as painful, multiple ulcers with red-purple ragged edges on the medial or outer surface of the labia minora.

63
Q

Gianotti-Crosti syndrome is associates with what virus

A

EBV

64
Q

What lymphoma is strongly associated with EBV?

A

Nasal-type extranodal natural killer/T cell lymphoma (ENK/T)

65
Q
A
66
Q

Gianotti-Crosti Syndrome typically affects children between the ages of?

A

3 months and 15 years

67
Q

Peak age of onset of gianotti-crosti syndrome

A

1 - 6 years

68
Q

What two viruses are associated with gianotti-crosti syndrome?

A

Hepatitis B and EBV

69
Q

Areas of predilection of gianotti-crosti syndrome

A

Face, extenso surface of extremitites and buttocks

70
Q

Involvement of what areas of the body makes the diagnosis of GCS less likely?

A

trunk, palms, soles, or mucosal surfaces