20 - 119: CUTANEOUS LYMPHOMA Flashcards

1
Q

MC type of MF present indarker-skinned individuals

A

Hypopigmented MF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Independent prognostic markers for survival, except

a. >60 years old
b. large cell transformation
c. increased LDH
d. decreased LDH

A

c. increased LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Characterized by patches, plaques and hair loss within lesions

A

Folliculotrophic MF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Solitary hyperkeratotic plaque on an extremitiy

A

Woringer-Kolopp disease – AKA pagetoid reticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Localized areas of bulky folding of the skin on the axillae and groins

A

Granulomatous slack skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T cell subtype present in Pagetoid reticulosis

A

CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sezary syndrome criteria except

a. >100/mm3 sezary cells in the blood – dapar >1000
b. CD4:CD8 ratio >10
c. loss of T cell antigens
d. loss of CD7 and CD26

A

a. >100/mm3 sezary cells in the blood – dapat >1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lymphomatoid papulosis: wedged shape infiltrate with >75% large lymphocytes

A

Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lymphomatoid papulosis: angioinvasive/angiocentric type

A

Type E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lymphomatoid papulosis: mimics primary cutaneous aggressive epidermotropic CD8 cytotoxic TCL

A

Type D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This is defined as neoplasm of clonal centrocytes and centroblasts with or without formation of follicles. Usually presents with solitary or grouped firm, painless, erythematous plaques and tumors.

A

Primary cutaneous follicular center lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

B-lymphocytes-derived malignancies that develop on the skin without extracutaneous involvement at the time of diagnosis and account for 20-25% of primary cutaneous lymphomas.

A

Primary cutaneous B-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patients have small red-to-violaceous papules, plaques, or nodules. Seen most commonly on the upper extremities, or the trunk.

A

Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identified as a distinct clinical entity because of its perceived poor outcome compared with the indolent subtypes. Typically presents as solitary or clustered bluish erythematous plaques and tumors located on one or both legs.

A

Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

First line therapy for primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, Leg Type.

a. Rituximab
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Hydroxydaunorubicin
d. Oncovin
e. Prednisolone
f. All
g. a and b

A

F. ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T-cell population where clonal T cells in MF are commonly derived

A

tissue-resident memory cells (TRM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T-cell population where clonal T cells in Sezary syndrome are commonly derived

A

Central memory cells (TCM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HLA class II molecules that are significantly overrepresented in MF or sezary syndrome

A

HLA-DRB1∗11 and DQB1∗03

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

virus associated with adult T-cell lymphoma/leukemia

A

human T-cell lymphotropic virus-1 [HTLV-1]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

virus associated with natural killer [NK]/T-cell lymphoma

A

Epstein-Barr virus [EBV]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

this virus is associated with CD30 lymphoproliferation and with immunosuppression.

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

this bacteria may be responsible for chronic antigenic stimulation in CTCL

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common disease-related causes of death in CTCL

A

immunosuppression and opportunistic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

areas of predilection of tumor stage of MF

A

face and body folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
erythroderma is defined as the involvement of how many % body surface area?
80%
26
Partial loss of these pan–T-cell antigens may be a feature of MF, but is not pathognomonic of the disease
CD7 and CD3
27
What is the 5-year survival rate of patients with MF limited to the skin?
80% to 100%
28
what is the 5-year survival rate of patients with lymph node involvement?
40%
29
independent prognostic markers for worse survival
* Stage IV, * age >60 years, * large-cell transformation, * increased lactate dehydrogenase
30
based on the criteria, how many points are required for the diagnosis of MF based on any combination of points from the clinical, histopathologic, molecular biologic, and immunopathologic criteria?
4
31
* presents with patches, plaques, and **unusual hair loss **within the lesions; occasionally, the disease may manifest with predominantly **papular lesions** * preferentially involves the head and neck region * affects mostly adults and is rarely observed in children and adolescents * occurrence of hair loss within the lesions, most conspicuous on the eyebrows, an intense pruritus, and secondary bacterial infection are common
Folliculotropic MF
32
* present with a solitary psoriasiform or hyperkeratotic patch or plaque, which is usually localized on the extremities and is slowly progressive * Unlike in classic MF, extracutaneous dissemination has not been observed. * shows more prominent epidermotropism and nuclear pleomorphism compared with unilesional MF, and more commonly shows a CD8+ phenotype * manifests more often as a **hyperkeratotic lesion.**
PAGETOID RETICULOSIS
33
* rare subtype of MF characterized by localized areas of bulky folding of skin, with a predilection for the axillae and groin * Light microscopy reveals a **dense granulomatous infiltrate** in the entire dermis * In addition to small, atypical cells with cerebriform nuclei, one finds macrophages and multinucleated giant cells and loss of elastic fibres. * The neoplastic cells express a CD3+CD4+CD8− phenotype.
GRANULOMATOUS SLACK SKIN
34
triad of Sezary Syndrome
1. diffuse erythroderma, 2. generalized lymphadenopathy, 3. circulating malignant T cells with cerebriform nuclei, so-called Sézary cells
35
Loss of expression of this CD is observed in majority of cases. It is also useful in the identification of Sézary cells.
Loss of **CD26 expression**
36
the diagnosis of Sézary syndrome requires an erythroderma with a positive T-cell clone in the peripheral blood associated with at least one B2 criterion, such as identification of more than how many Sézary cells/mm 3 in the blood.?
>1000
37
* characterized by recurrent, selfhealing crops of papules and nodules * chronic, recurrent, and self-healing papulonecrotic or papulonodular skin eruption * lesions typically involve the trunk and extremities, and lesions in various stages of evolution may be present concurrently
LYMPHOMATOID PAPULOSIS
38
* characterized by large tumor cells, of which the majority express the CD30 antigen, with no evidence or history of MF or other type of primary CTCL * characterized by the solitary or locoregional occurrence of reddish-to-brownish nodules and tumors, which frequently ulcerate
Primary cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphoma.
39
By definition, more than how mant % of the tumor cells in ALCL express CD30 in cohesive sheets?
75% ## Footnote ANAPLASTIC LARGE-CELL LYMPHOMA
40
In cases of solitary or localized skin lesions of ALCL, what is the treatment of choice?
excision or radiotherapy
41
In the case of extracutaneous dissemination of ALCL, what is the most frequently chosen option?
cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) *Brentuximab vedotin can also be regarded as a therapy of choice
42
This immunoconjugate is an anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody linked to monomethyl auristatin, a spindle-cell toxin that induces cell-cycle arrest
Brentuximab vedotin
43
* defined as a cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of primarily** subcutaneous infiltrates of small, medium, or large pleomorphic αβ T cells **and many macrophages that predominantly affect the **legs** and are occasionally complicated by a **hemophagocytic syndrome**
Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma
44
What are “B” symptoms?
weight loss, fever, and fatigue.
45
pivotal diagnostic marker for Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma
βF1 (TCR α/β)
46
The α/β type of the subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma responds well to what medication?
systemic corticosteroids
47
* Immunophenotypically, the neoplastic cells express **CD56** and cytotoxic proteins (**TIA-1, granzyme B, perforin**), and are characteristically positive for EBV.This lymphoma is nearly always positive with EBV * What is the treatment of choice?
EXTRANODAL NATURAL KILLER/ T-CELL LYMPHOMA, NASAL TYPE * bone marrow transplantation may be the treatment of choice
48
best surrogate marker for survival
tumor burden
49
the most effective of all skin-directed therapies
Total skin electron beam
50
The 3 major biologic response modifiers (BRMs) used in the treatment of erythrodermic CTCLs
(a) oral retinoids, (b) ECP via an intravenous route, and (c) subcutaneous injections of IFN-α
50
A cure is defined as freedom from disease for how many years off all therapy?
8 years
51
this oral retinoid is used in CTCL
bexarotene
52
humanized monoclonal antibody that targets **CD52**, expressed on most T and B lymphocytes and NK cells.
Alemtuzumab
53
It is U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved for the treatment of relapsed-refractory Hodgkin lymphoma and **ALCL**
Brentuximab Vedotin ## Footnote anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody
54
MC side effect of brentuximab
induction of peripheral neuropathy
55
defucosylated **anti-CCR4 monoclonal antibody**
Mogamulizumab
56
a **new formulation of doxorubicin** in which the drug is **encapsulated in liposomes** and stabilized by the attachment of polyethylene glycol (ie, pegylation) to the liposomal surface, resulting in increased half-life and improved accumulation in tumor tissues.
Pegylated liposomal doxorubicin
56
, a **nucleoside analog of deoxycytidine** that inhibits DNA synthesis has shown activity against solid tumors as well as hematologic malignancies.
Gemcitabine
57
a novel **antifolate** with a **high affinity for the reduced folate carrier (RFC-1), **a novel mechanism of resistance when compared with methotrexate
Pralatrexate
58
59
Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma (EMZL)/primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoma (PCMZL)
59
Primary cutaneous follicle center lymphoma (PCFCL)
60
Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type
61
* neoplasm of clonal **centrocytes** (small and large cleaved follicle center cells) and **centroblasts** (large follicle center cells with prominent nucleoli) with or without formation of follicles. * A typical finding is the occurrence of lesions in a** circumscribed area of the head and neck region or the trunk,** but rarely on the legs
PRIMARY CUTANEOUS FOLLICULAR CENTER LYMPHOMA
62
in a subgroup of Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma (EMZL)/primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoma (PCMZL), what bacteria is thought to have an etiologic role?
Borrelia burgdorferi