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USMLE Step 1: Part 1 COPY > USMLE Rx: Week of 07/04/16 > Flashcards

USMLE Rx: Week of 07/04/16 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What value, tested in the amniotic fluid, is the best indicator of risk for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

A

The lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio; if it is greater than 2, then the risk of NRDS is significantly decreased

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2
Q

What reaction does NADPH oxidase catalyze?

A

It converts oxygen to superoxide

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3
Q

Minimal change disease, and nephrotic syndrome in general leads to a decreased _____________ pressure in the glomerulus.

A

oncotic (because of the loss of albumin)

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4
Q

Thrombophlebitis is indicated by a ____________ on physical examination.

A

warm, nodular cord

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5
Q

What ankle ligament is most commonly injured?

A

The anterior talofibular (part of the lateral ligament)

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6
Q

Review the four rotator cuff muscles and the motions they facilitate.

A

Supraspinatus: abduction and lateral rotation
Infraspinatus: lateral rotation
teres minor: lateral rotation and adduction
Subscapularis: internal rotation and adduction

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7
Q

What type of vaccine can induce both a humoral and cell-mediated response?

A

First off, only viral vaccines can induce cell-mediated immunity, so bacterial vaccines will not produce a T cell response (except intracellular bacteria); second, only live, attenuated vaccines can induce a cell-mediated response, because they need to be activated inside a cell and express proteins in MHC I receptors to activate CTLs; inactivated vaccines (such as intramuscular influenza vaccines) only induce humoral responses

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8
Q

Gliadins are a component of ___________.

A

gluten

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9
Q

Gout crystals are ____________ birefringent.

A

negatively (Pseudogout is Positively)

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10
Q

Remember that vitamin K is necessary for the ___________ of clotting factors.

A

gamma-carboxylation

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11
Q

Most studies have shown that ___________ does not decrease breast cancer mortality.

A

monthly self-examination

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12
Q

Which chemotherapy is associated with increased risk of pulmonary fibrosis?

A

bleomycin

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13
Q

Of the TB drugs, which is an inhibitor and which is an inducer of CYP-450?

A 
Rifampin = inducer
Isoniazid = inhibitor
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14
Q

List the mnemonics for inhibitors and inducers of CYP-450.

A 
Inducers: "chronic alcoholics steal phen-phen and never refuse greasy carbs"
Chronic alcoholism 
St. John's wort 
Phenytoin 
Phenobarbital 
Nevirapine 
Rifampin 
Griseofulvin 
Carbamazepine
Inhibitors: "SICKFACES.COM"
Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Amiodarone
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin and clarithromycin
Sulfonadmides
Chloramphenicol
Omeprazole
Metronidazole
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15
Q

Recall that thiazides can cause __________ due to volume depletion and electrolyte loss.

A

metabolic alkalosis

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16
Q

What is the mnemonic for target cells?

A 
"HALT" said the hunter to his target
Hemoglobin C 
Asplenia 
Liver disease
Thalassemia
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17
Q

List the mnemonic for antimicrobials to avoid in pregnant women.

A 
SAFe Children Take Really Good Care
Sulfonamides
Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
Clarithromycin
Tetracycline
Ribavirin
Griseofulvin
Chloramphenicol
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18
Q

What virus leads to increased risk of PDA?

A

Rubella (maculopapular rash spreading from face to body)

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19
Q

In response to exsanguination, acute tubular necrosis can result due to __________.

A

ischemia

20
Q

“Muddy brown casts” indicate ____________.

A

acute tubular necrosis

21
Q

ITP will often present with antibodies to __________.

A

GPIIb/IIIa

22
Q

The only tongue muscle innervated by the vagus nerve is _____________.

A

the palatoglossus

23
Q

Recall that the I in MUDPILES can be either _________.

A

isoniazid or iron

24
Q

Aschoff bodies have _____________ cells.

A

multinucleated giant

25
Q

What does DIC do to platelet count and bleeding time?

A

Platelets go down (due to consumption) and bleeding time increases

26
Q

Foreign bodies mostly lodge in the __________ lobe.

A

lower right

27
Q

The brachioradialis is innervated by the _________.

A

radial

28
Q

What rash often presents in those with sarcoidosis?

A

Erythema nodosum (red, nodular bumps on the shins)

29
Q

What chemotherapy cocktail is given to those with Hodgkin’s?

A 
ABVD
Adriamycin
Bleomycin
Vinblastine
Dacarbazine
30
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is associated with what virulence factor?

A

Protein A

31
Q

What is the first-line treatment for sarcoidosis?

A

Steroids

32
Q

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is most similar to what other kind of pulmonary disorder?

A

Atelectasis, because the lungs haven’t opened up

33
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis.

A

An autoimmune disorder in which lymphohistiocytes get abnormally activated and attack bone marrow cells; cytokines are overactive; histo-slides show macrophages engulfing RBCs; treated with steroids

34
Q

What is the most worrisome adverse effect of occupational exposure to nitroglycerine?

A

Cardiac arrest due to compensatory vasoconstriction following NO withdrawal

35
Q

Massive blood transfusions can cause low levels of what electrolyte?

A

Calcium

36
Q

Hypocalcemia can manifest with what symptoms?

A

Perioral paresthesias, muscle cramping, and muscle contraction upon tapping

37
Q

A positive heterophile test indicates ___________.

A

EBV mono

38
Q

What cancer drug works by generating free radicals that cleave DNA?

A

Bleomycin

39
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

They can lead to renal agenesis.

40
Q

What should be given to those with aspirin overdose?

A

Bicarbonate to alkalinize the urine and plasma

41
Q

Recall that most diuretics contain a _______ moiety.

A

sulfa

42
Q

Sudden death a few hours after an MI is most often due to _______________.

A

arrhythmia; later (3-7 days) ventricular rupture is more common

43
Q

Angiotensin II stimulates the ________ antiporter.

A

sodium-proton (in the proximal tubule)

44
Q

Which kind of antibiotic requires oxygen to be taken into bacteria?

A

Aminoglycosides

45
Q

Aminoglycosides bind to the __________.

A

30S subunit

USMLE Step 1: Part 1 COPY (243 decks)

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