CBSSA Form 13

Question 1

Multiple myeloma causes hypercalcemia from ____________ effects.

Answer 1

local (IL-1 and TNFa)

Question 2

What are the osmolalities of the different parts of the nephron compared to the serum?

Answer 2

PCT: isotonic (because it’s continuous with the glomerulus)

Loop of Henle: gets more concentrated as it goes down and then less concentrated as it goes back to the DCT

DCT: most hypotonic portion of the nephron (down to 100)

Collecting tubule: starts extremely hypotonic (continuous with DCT) and gets concentrated by ADH

Question 3

If someone comes in with methanol poisoning, what is the antidote?

Answer 3

Fomepizole –an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor

Alcohols are toxic only when metabolized to aldehydes. Thus, if you inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase then you would enhance the symptoms. By inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase, you prevent accumulation of the toxic substrate.

Question 4

The process of cancers metastasizing to certain organs is called _______________.

Answer 4

homing

Question 5

Abetalipoproteinemia results in what symptoms?

Answer 5

Extremely low cholesterol and malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins

Question 6

Both the ACTH-dependent and ACTH-independent forms of hypercortisolism present with hyper-___________ of the adrenal glands.

Answer 6

plasia

Question 7

The anterior side of the embryonic pharynx is called the pharyngeal ___________, while the posterior side is called the pharyngeal ______________.

Answer 7

groove/cleft; pouch

Question 8

The ______________ are usually obliterated by pharyngeal mesoderm, but can remain persistent as a cleft that opens anterior to the SCM.

Answer 8

2nd - 4th pharyngeal clefts

Question 9

When deciding between the sensory and motor cortices (in a picture of the brain with labels), be sure to note the _______________.

Answer 9

central sulcus; the sensory cortex is posterior to the motor cortex, and the sulcus decides what’s what –moreover, the sulcus can bend, so

Question 10

What bacterium is the most common cause of endocarditis in undamaged valves? And in damaged valves?

Answer 10

Undamaged vavles: Staphylcoccus aureus

Damaged valves: Streptococcus viridans

Question 11

Which glucose metabolite leads to cataracts in diabetics?

Answer 11

Sorbitol

Question 12

Which two cell types react to EBV?

Answer 12

EBV infects B lymphocytes through CD21 and then T lymphocytes react to those, creating “atypical lymphocytes with abundant lacey cytoplasm.”

Question 13

Explain what happens to hnRNA after transcription.

Answer 13

The 5’ end is capped with 7mg and the 3’ end is polyadenylated by the AATAAA sequence

Question 14

What is the best way to differentiate myasthenia gravis from myasthenic syndrome?

Answer 14

Myasthenic syndrome presents with proximal muscle weakness and myasthenia gravis presents with diplopia and ptosis

Question 15

Statins have an increased risk of myalgias with fibrates. Why?

Answer 15

Fibrates decrease hepatic clearance of statins

Question 16

Osteoporosis is associated with an increase in which cytokine?

Answer 16

IL-1 (“I Like bONE” –an osteoclast activating factor)

Question 17

True or false: some males have benign gynecomastia during puberty.

Answer 17

True!

Question 18

The main risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma is _______________.

Answer 18

diet (nitrosamines)

Question 19

What is the best treatment for lymphedema?

Answer 19

Compression sleeves

Question 20

The foot effacement of minimal change disease results in loss of _____________.

Answer 20

glomerular charge

Question 21

How does Pseudomonas become resistant to antibiotics?

Answer 21

Development of biofilm

Question 22

Compare nitric oxide and nitrous oxide.

Answer 22

Nitrous oxide is the inhaled anesthetic (“Oh, So sleepy.”) and nitric oxide is vasodilator used for pulmonary hypertension that can cause methemoglobinemia (“ICky brown blood as brown as a stICk.”)

Question 23

What is pilomotor contraction and what receptor mediates that response?

Answer 23

Goosebumps –alpha-1

Question 24

Ritodrine and terbutaline are _____________ drugs and cause ______________.

Answer 24

beta-2 agonists; uterine relaxation

Question 25

Will degeneration of the medial cerebellum lead to gait ataxia or positive Romberg sign?

Answer 25

Gait ataxia

Positive Romberg sign comes from absent proprioception (such as in tabes dorsalis)

Question 26

What are transference and countertransference?

Answer 26

Transference is when the patient sees the doctor as their parent/boss, and countertransference is the opposite. (“The doctor looks over the COUNTER at his patients”)

Question 27

What is reaction formation?

Answer 27

Unconsciously warding off an idea by focusing on its extreme opposite, such as a person trying to control libidinous thoughts by entering a monastery or campaigning against pornography.

Question 28

What is projection?

Answer 28

Attributing an unacceptable internal impulse to an external source, such as a man who wants to cheat on his wife thinking that she’s cheating on him.

Question 29

What are the differences between denial, repression, and suppression?

Answer 29

Denial: refusing to accept a fact (such as a painful diagnosis)

Repression: involuntarily denying or forgetting something (such as an adult not remembering going to counseling during his parents’ divorce as a teen)

Suppression: consciously holding back thoughts or feelings